1/3(m-1)=-5
Please help

Answer: Both 110 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

2= 110 thanks to corresponding angles theorm

1=2 because of vertical angles theorom

Answer:

Your answers is 11.2 OUNCES!

Step-by-step explanation:

Error, Wont let me show work, But the answer is 11.2 OUNCES, I'm positive! :)

The total weight in ounces of the entire packages of Lindsay is 11.2 ounces.

Given data:

Lindsay has two packages which weighs 6.3 ounces and 4.9 ounces respectively.

To find the total weight of the two packages, add the individual weights together.

Package 1 weight: 6.3 ounces

Package 2 weight: 4.9 ounces

Total weight = Package 1 weight + Package 2 weight

On simplifying the equation:

Total weight = 6.3 ounces + 4.9 ounces

Total weight = 11.2 ounces

Hence, the packages weigh together a total of 11.2 ounces.

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Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

given a parabola in standard form : y = ax² + bx + c : a ≠ 0

• If a > 0 then parabola opens up

• If a < 0 then parabola opens down

given y = 4x² - 8x + 8 ← in standard form

with a = 4, b = - 8 and c = 8

here a > 0 then parabola opens up

Answer:

The length of wooden board = 9.4648 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

The wooden board makes a Right triangle with the building in which we have wooden board as hypotenuse, building as opposite side, and ground as adjacent side, the angle of elevation is 65 degrees.

Given adjacent side = 4 feet and elevation angle = 65 degrees.

We can use cosine formula in right triangle as follows:-

Cos(65°) = Adjacent / Hypotenuse

cos(65°) = 4 / Hypotenuse

Hypotenuse = 4 / cos(65°)

Hypotenuse = 9.464806333 feet.

Hence, the length of wooden board = 9.4648 feet.

Final answer:

To find the length of the wooden board which forms a 65-degree angle with the ground and has its base 4 feet from the building, use the cosine function to calculate the hypotenuse of the right triangle formed. The length of the board is approximately 9.06 feet.

Explanation:

To find the length of the wooden board leaning against a building, we can use trigonometry. Since the base of the board forms a 65-degree angle with the ground, and the distance from the base of the building to the base of the board is 4 feet, we have a right-angled triangle where we know the angle and the adjacent side.

Step-by-step solution:

Identify the right triangle formed by the board, the ground, and the wall of the building.

Use the cosine function which relates the adjacent side and hypotenuse in a right triangle. The cosine of an angle is equal to the length of the adjacent side divided by the length of the hypotenuse (cos(θ) = adjacent/hypotenuse).

Rearrange the formula to solve for the hypotenuse: hypotenuse = adjacent/cos(θ).

Plug in the values: hypotenuse = 4 ft / cos(65°).

Calculate the length using a calculator: hypotenuse ≈ 4 ft / cos(65°) ≈ 9.06 ft.

The length of the wooden board is approximately 9.06 feet.

Answer: 17.3 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter = 2 ( l + w ). So I did 45 divided by 2 which would be 22.5 then subtract that by 5.2 ft which is 17.3. 17.3 + 5.2 = 22.5 x 2 = 45 ft.

Answer:

E 8

Step-by-step explanation:

y = w x^2

If we double w and x, replae w with 2w and x with 2x  and solve for y

y = (2w) * (2x)^2

Do the powers first

y = 2w * (4x^2)

y = 8wx^2

Y is now increased by a factor of 8

Answer:

Y will be multiplied by 8.

Right option is (E)

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,  y = wx²    

y is not 0.

If w and x are doubled

That means,

w' = 2w   and x' = 2x

So , y' =w'x'²

or y' = (2w)×(2x)²

or y' = 2w×4x²

or y' = 8wx²

Since y = wx²

so y' = 8y.  

That means if we double the w and x then y will be multiplied by 8.

Answer:

1/35

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability the first prize is a toy car

There are 3 toy cars and 15 prizes.

3/15  = 1/5

Probability the second prize is a toy car

Since we now have a toy car, there are are 2 toy cars left and only  14 prizes.

2/14  = 1/7

We have two events, so we multiply the probabilities.

1/5 * 1/7 = 1/35

The probability of getting 2 toy cars is 1/35

Answer: 4.875

Step-by-step explanation:

Starting fraction: 4  7/8

Make it mixed: 39/8

Now divide top by bottom: 4.875

The least common multiple (and i apologize for my English) of 40 and 30 is 120.

23×3 69 11×4 44

-------= ------ -------= -------

40×3 120 30×4 120

69/120 - 44/120 = 25/120 witch is equal to 5/24 if you simplify with 5.

Answer:

830

Step-by-step explanation:

38+(22*36)

start with parenthesis first so multiply 22* 36= 792

then add the 792+38 and get 830  

Answer:

The discount is $79.80

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to solve this using proportions.  We take the percent out of 100 on one side of the ratio and the discount over the total price on the other.

30         discount

-----   = ----------

100        266

30* 266 = 100 * discount

7980=100 discount

Divide each side by 100

7980/100 = discount

79.80 = discount

Answer:

y = 20x + 40

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the rental rate for a cement mixer has a flat rate of $40 plus $20 for each day of the rental.

That means fixed one time cost is $40 which doesn't changes with time.

If number of days is represented by "x" then rental cost for "x" days will be 20 times x or just 20x.

So the final cost will be sum of fixed cost and the rental cost per day which is:

20x+40

Now if "y" represents total rental cost over time then final cost equation can be written as:

y = 20x + 40

Hence final answer is y = 20x + 40y = 20x + 40.

Answer:The answer is Y=20x+40

Answer:

-2700 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

The first year we have a loss of 1500 dollars. On the balance sheet we write -1500, with the negative indicating loss. Some accounting practices will use parenthesis to mean loss, so you might see it as (1500). But in this problem, we'll use negative signs for loss.

The second year is loss of 1200. Add up the two losses (the positive versions of each) to get 1500+1200 = 2700. Then make the result negative. Taking one loss and adding more loss to it means your loss has gotten bigger. So that's why the closing balance at the end of year 2 is -2700 dollars, which is a loss of 2700 dollars.

Answer:

1.

a. -3

b. 9

c. 5

d. -12

2.

a. 9 + (–6) = 3

b. (–5) + 8 = 3

c. (–12) + (–6) = -18

d. 10 – (–8) = 18

e. (–4) – (+2) = -6

f.  –9 – (–5) = 4

3.

a. 8 * 3 = 24

b. -7 * 5 = -35

c. -6 * -9 = 54

d. 8 / -2 = -4

e. -24 / -3 = 8

f. -36 / 6 = -6

4.

$65.00 - $82.00 = -$17

5.

$84

6.

-$1,500 + -$1,200 = -$2,700

Step-by-step explanation:

Question 5: 4) 2006-2012

Question 6: 8x^2+8x+1

Question 7: 2) 2

Question 8: a is picture on top, b is picture on bottom

Answer:

She drove 88 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Total cost =  fee per day + cost per mile * miles driven

We know the total cost was 70.46

The  fee per day  was 29.95 *2 =59.90.  She kept the van 2 days.  

The cost per mile was .12

Substitute in what we know

70.46 = 59.90 +.12 m

Subtract 59.90 from each side

70.46-59.90 = 59.90-59.90 +.12 m  where m is the miles driven

10.56 = .12m

Divide each side by .12

10.56/.12 = .12m/.12

88=m

x = number of minutes used, y = total cost in dollars

Plan A: y = 0.09x + 24

Plan B: y = 0.14x + 20

Equate the two right hand side (RHS) expressions and solve for x

0.14x + 20 = 0.09x + 24

0.14x - 0.09x = 24 - 20

0.05x = 4

x = 4/0.05

x = 80

The two plans will cost the same amount of money if you use up 80 minutes

Plug in x = 80 into either equation to find y

y = 0.09*x + 24

y = 0.09*80 + 24

y = 31.20

or

y = 0.14*x + 20

y = 0.14*80 + 20

y = 31.20

So both plans will cost $31.20 if you use up 80 minutes

The slope of the given line, determined from the graph and the point-slope form, is -0.5.

The slope of a line is a measure of its steepness. To determine the slope from a graph, you can use the point-slope form and the slope-intercept form of a linear equation.

Given a graph with points (0,1) and (0.5,0), you can calculate the slope as follows:

Use the point-slope form of a linear equation:

(y - y1) / (x - x1) = (y2 - y1) / (x2 - x1)

Where (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) are points on the line.

Plug in the coordinates of the given points:

(y - 1) / (x - 0) = (0 - 1) / (0.5 - 0)

Simplify:

(y - 1) / x = -1 / 0.5

Further simplify:

2(y - 1) = -x

Rearrange to isolate y:

2y - 2 = -x

2y = -x + 2

y = (-1/2)x + 1

Compare this equation to the slope-intercept form, y = mx + c. In this case, the slope (m) is -1/2, which is equivalent to -0.5.

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The question probable may be:

what is the slope of the line

Answer:

BC =10

AC = 13.661

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use the law of sines to solve this problem

sin C         sin B       sin A

---------- = ----------  = ---------

AB              AC          BC

Lets substitute in what we know

sin 30        sin B       sin 45

---------- = ----------  = ---------

5sqrt(2)       AC          BC

We can calculate angle B because all three angles have to add to 180

A+B+C = 180

45+B + 30 = 180

75+B=180

Subtract 75 from each side

75-75+B=180-75

B =105

sin 30        sin 105       sin 45

---------- = ----------  = ---------

5sqrt(2)       AC          BC

Using cross products and the first and third columns

BC sin 30 = 5 sqrt (2) sin 45

BC * .5 = 5 sqrt(2) * 1/2 sqrt(2)

1/2 BC = 5

Multiply by 2

2*1/2 BC = 5 *2

BC =10

Using cross products and the first and second columns

BC sin 30 = 5 sqrt (2) sin 105

sin 105 is really ugly as an exact answer

.5 AC  = 5 sqrt(2) .966

Divide by .5

AC = 5 sqrt(2) .966/.5

AC = 13.661

Answer:

BC = 10

AC = 13.66

Step-by-step explanation:

Remark

Both sides are found using the law of sines

Formula BC

Sin(45)/BC = Sin(30)/(5√2)

Solution for BC

Sin(30) = 0.5

Sin(45) = √2 / 2

Solution for AC

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

She needs to have 6 portions of 1/5 pie size.

6 portions of 1/5 pie size is 6/5 of a pie.

6/5 of a pie is the same as 1 1/5 (one and one-fifth) pies.

Since she only bakes full pies, she must round up to the next higher whole number, so she must bake 2 pies.

[tex]Domain:x\geq0\\\\-5\sqrt{x}=-15\qquad\text{divide both sides by (-5)}\\\\\sqrt{x}=3\to \boxed{x=9}\to\boxed{C.}[/tex]

Answer: A

Step-by-step explanation: I use synthetic division for problems like these:

-3 | 4 2 -18 38

     4 -10 12 2

Since -3 + 3 = 0, we use -3 in this process. Write out the coefficients in order separate from -3. Next, bring down the 4 and multiply -3 by 4 = -12. Add 2 and -12 = -10. Multiply -10 by -3 = 30. Add 30 to -18 to get 12. Multiply 12 and -3 = -36. Add -36 and 38 = 2

Answer:

A) 2

Step-by-step explanation:

correct answer on my test

Answer:

Daisha started her homework at 4:25

Step-by-step explanation:

I first take off the 5 minutes after 5:00 (i will add it back later)

Then i subtract 40 from 60 (60 minutes = 1 hour) and 20 minutes is left.

i then add the 5 minutes to the 20 minutes and get 25 minutes.

Since she had already been doing her homework for 40 min. and was not about to do it, i can say she started at 4:25.

make brainliest please

Answer:

Not factorable.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have a trinomial (3 terms). We factor by splitting the middle term 4t into factors of -7 (the last term) which add to 4.

-7 = 1 * -7

4t= 1t+-7t doesn't work

4t=-1t+7t doesn't work

This is not factorable.

Answer:

(t + 7) • (t - 11)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

r>7

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract 2.92.9 from both sides

-1.3-2.9>-0.6r−1.3−2.9>−0.6r

Simplify -1.3-2.9−1.3−2.9 to -4.2−4.2

-4.2>-0.6r−4.2>−0.6r

Divide both sides by -0.6−0.6

\frac{-4.2}{-0.6}<r

​−0.6

​​−4.2

<r

Simplify \frac{-4.2}{-0.6}

​−0.6 ​−4.2​​  to 77

7<r

Switch sides

r>7

Answer:

2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that a six sided die with sides labelled with numbers 1,2,3,4,5 and 6 is rolled once.

Since die is said to be equally likely for each number, die is unbiased

P(1) = P(2)=...=P(6) = 1/6

For a number greater than 2, we must not include 2 and hence numbers can be 3 or 4 or 5 or 6

Probability of rolling a number >2 = Probability of rolling 3 or 4 or 5 or 6

= P(3)+P(4)+P(5)+P(6)

= 1/6+1/6+1/6+1/6

=4/6

=2/3

Required probability = 2/3

The probability of rolling a number greater than 2 on a six-sided die is 2/3. This is because there are 4 numbers greater than 2 on the die and the total number of possible outcomes when the die is rolled is 6.

The subject of this question is probability, a topic in mathematics. To solve this problem, we need to first understand the total possible outcomes when rolling a six-sided die. The outcomes are the numbers 1 through 6, so we have 6 possible outcomes.

To find the probability of rolling a number greater than 2, we need to determine how many outcomes match this condition. The numbers greater than 2 on a six-sided die are 3, 4, 5, and 6. So, there are 4 favorable outcomes.

Probability is calculated by dividing the number of favorable outcomes by the total number of outcomes. So, the probability of rolling a number greater than 2 on a six-sided die is 4/6, which simplifies to 2/3.

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Answer:

156.86

Step-by-step explanation:

136.40 + 15% is 20.46 added to 136.40 is 156.86

Answer:

$156.86.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have been given that the bill at a restaurant came to $136.40. The patrons decided to leave a 15% tip.

The total bill including tip would $136.40 plus 15% of $136.40.

[tex]\text{Total bill}=\$136.40+\frac{15}{100}\times \$136.40[/tex]

[tex]\text{Total bill}=\$136.40+0.15\times \$136.40[/tex]

[tex]\text{Total bill}=\$136.40+\$20.46[/tex]

[tex]\text{Total bill}=\$156.86[/tex]

Therefore, the total cost of bill including tip would be $156.86.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

24

Answer:

We can fill 150 paper cup cones.

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a cone is

V = 1/3 pi * r^2 *h

The volume of one cone is

pi = 3.14

r = d/2 = 6/2 =3

h=9

Substitute what we know

V = 1/3 * (3.14) * (3^2) * (9)

   = 27* 3.14

   = 84.78  cm^3

The water cooler has 12717 cm^3 water

Divide the water by the volume of the paper cup cone  and we will know how many paper cup cones we can fill, assuming we fill them completely.

12717/ 84.78 = 150

We can fill 150 paper cup cones.

The volume of one cone-shaped paper cup is 84.78 cm³. With 12,717 cm³ of water in the cooler, approximately 150 cups can be filled.

To find out how many paper cups can be filled from the water cooler, we first need to calculate the volume of one paper cup. Given that the cup is shaped like a cone with a height of 9 cm and a base diameter of 6 cm, we can find the volume using the formula for the volume of a cone, which is V = (1/3)\u03c0r^2h, where V is the volume, r is the radius of the base, and h is the height of the cone.

The radius of the base is half the diameter, so r = 3 cm. Plugging in the values into the formula, we get: V = (1/3)*3.14*(3²)*9.

Calculating this, we get V \<= 84.78 cm³ per cup. Now, to determine how many cups can be filled from the cooler containing 12,717 cm³ of water, we divide the total amount of water in the cooler by the volume of one cup:

Number of cups = 12,717 cm³ / 84.78 cm³.

This gives us approximately 150 cups that can be filled from the water cooler.