15yd=45ft show the work to solve problem

80,000,000 in scientific notation would look like this...

8 x 10^7

It’s as simple as that. Let me know if you need any more help understanding!

Answer: 8×10^7

explanation: when doing scientific notation, you want the number(8) to be less than 10 so you would move the decimal left 7 places so it becomes 8.0000000, and then you would take 8 and put it in the equation so it's 8×10^7

Answer: 15,625 ft³

Step-by-step explanation:

You need to use the formula for calculate the volume of  a cylinder:

[tex]V=r^2h\pi[/tex]

Where r is the radius and h is the height.

You know the radius and the volume of the old tank, therefore you can find the height as following:

[tex]10,000=(12)^2h\pi\\\\h=\frac{10,000}{(144)\pi}ft[/tex]

You know that the radius of the new tank is 15 feet and it has the same height as the old tank. Therefore, you can substitute h into the first equation for calculate the volume of a cylinder, to find the maximum number of cubic feet of water that the new storage tank will hold:

[tex]V=(15ft)^2(\frac{10,000}{(144)\pi}ft)\pi=15,625ft^3[/tex]

Answer:

15625 cubic feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Everyone has there own style.

1. Wouldn't they know how to do it already?

If not...

2. Is there a calculator available? If there is just tell them to divide the numerator by the denominator.

If not...

3. You'll have to use long division and get the answers.

Hope this helps, cheers.

Answer:

39% of 120 = ? ... 41% of 120 = ?  

1% of 120 = ?

40% × 120 =

(40 ÷ 100) × 120 =

(40 × 120) ÷ 100 =

4,800 ÷ 100 =

48

Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/20 or 0.05 on each wall

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/20! 1/4 divided by 5 is 1/20.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x=5

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2 x^3 = 125 /2

Multiply each side by 2

2*1/2 x^3 = 125 /2*2

x^3 = 125

Take the cube root of each side

(x^3) ^ 1/3 = (125) ^ 1/3

x = 5

( 5*5*5 = 125    -5*-5*-5 = -125)

FG and JH are two parallel line segments

Answer:

FG and JH

Step-by-step explanation:

Obviously, FJ and GH are not parallel. So the only remaining pair of lines are fg and jh.

therefore, FG and JH appear to be parallel.

Since k is constant (the same for every point), we can find k when given any point by dividing the y-coordinate by the x-coordinate. For example, if y varies directly as x, and y = 6 when x = 2, the constant of variation is k = = 3. Thus, the equation describing this direct variation is y = 3x.

Answer:

1/6 meters

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the side length be x.

Then the area of the square = x^2

∴ x^2 = 1/36

√(x^2) = √(1^2 / 6^2)

x        = 1/6

Therefore, the side length is 1/6 meters.

Hope it helped you!!!

Answer:

y= 114

Step-by-step explanation:

1) (4x+ 2x- 12+ 20)=180

First find x (22)

2) (2x+20)+y=180

Plug in x

3) y=114

The values of x and y are 16 and 124 respectively when the angles (4x - 12) and (2x + 20) are vertically opposite and one of these angles forms a linear pair with angle y.

The subject of this question is mathematics, focusing on geometry and algebra. Vertically opposite angles are equal. Hence, (4x-12) = (2x+20). Solving for x, we get x = 16.

Also, it is mentioned that one of the angles forms a linear pair with angle y. A linear pair means that the two angles add up to 180 degrees. So, y + (2x+20) = 180. Substituting x = 16 in this equation and solving for y, we find that y = 124.

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So in interest is given once a year.

Year's interest = 200 × 12%

= 200× 12/100 = $24

2 Years' interest = 24 × 2 = $48

Money paid for loan

= 200 + 48

= $248

Ans = $248

Happy to help. Marking me the brainliest would really be appreciated.

Answer:

The amount you pay to the loaner is $248 but the amount of intrest you paid is $48

Step-by-step explanation:

Your Intrest is 12% so the decimal of that is .12. so Multiply .12 with 200, to find out 12% of 200

200 x .12 =24

so 12% of 200 is 24. But also 24 is the amount of intrest you would pay for 1 year. since you have to pay for TWO years multipy 24 by 2

24 x 2 = 48

so you pay $48 in intrest

Hope this helps!

Answer:

FT→T

Step-by-step explanation:

If p is true, then ~p is false.

Now note that

In your case, both~p is false and q is true, then ~p→q is true too (or FT→T)

Answer:

[tex] F -T\rightarrow T[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

p: true

q: true

The condition statement [tex]\neg p\rightarrow q [/tex]

If p is true then[tex]\neg p [/tex] is false.

If p is false then [tex]\neg p[/tex] is true.

If[tex]\ neg p [/tex] is false and q is true then the value of [tex]\neg p \rightarrow q[/tex] is true.

If  [tex]\neg p [/tex] is true and q is true then [tex]\neg p \rightarrow q[/tex] is true.

If[tex]\ neg p[/tex] is true and q is false then the value of [tex]\neg p \rightarrow q[/tex] is false.

If [tex]\neg p[/tex] is false and q is false then the value of [tex]\neg p \rightarrow q [/tex] is true.

[tex]F-T\rightarrow T[/tex]

[tex]T-F\rightarrow F[/tex]

[tex]F -F\rightarrow T[/tex]

[tex]T-F \rightarrow F[/tex].

Answer:

The graph in the attached figure

Step-by-step explanation:

we have

[tex]\left|x\right|<18[/tex]

we know that

The absolute value function has two solutions

case positive

[tex]+(x)<18[/tex]

The solution is the interval------> (-∞,18)

All real numbers less than 18

In a number line is the shaded area to the left at point x=18 (open circle)

case negative

[tex]-(x)<18[/tex]

Multiply by -1 both sides

[tex](x)>-18[/tex]

The solution is the interval------> (-18,∞)

All real numbers greater than -18

In a number line is the shaded area to the right at point x=-18 (open circle)

therefore

The solution of the inequality

[tex]\left|x\right|<18[/tex]

All real numbers greater than -18 and less than 18

see the attached figure to better understand the problem

Answer:

$14.50 I'm positive.

Step-by-step explanation:

Rented one time shoes: $2.75

One game of bowling: $2.50*4 games of bowling

4 games of bowling is $10

One nachos: $1.75*2 orders of nachos

2 orders of nachos is $3.50

HOPE THIS HELPED :)

Answer:

[tex]\bold{Return \ Of \ Investment}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Return Of Investment: The performance used to evaluate the efficiency of an investment or compare the efficiency of a number of different investments.

       It is a performance level used to compare the efficiency of one investment or more to several or just one more investments. They also evaluate the efficiency of one investment.

Return Of Investment (ROI) is very popular because it is simple, skilled and resourceful. If an investments ROI is net is positive, this tells them that it is worthwhile and has some use to it. If it is low, it lets people know that this is probably not the best solutions, and to not waste their time on something that won't work anyway.

[tex]\boxed{\bold{Mordancy}}[/tex]

Answer: B

Step-by-step explanation:

B. Return on investment .

Answer:

Multiply the previous value by 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

The correct pattern in the values as the exponents increase is - Multiply the previous value by 3.

We can see, that [tex]3^{-1}[/tex] is [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

And in the next step, [tex]3^0[/tex] is [tex]\frac{1}{3}\times3=1[/tex]

In the next step, [tex]3^1[/tex] is [tex]1\times3=3[/tex]

In the last step, [tex]3^2[/tex] is [tex]3\times3=9[/tex]

So, at each step, 3 is multiplied to the previous product/value.

Therefore, the correct answer is last option.

Answer: D. Multiply the previous value by 3

Step-by-step explanation: got it right on edgunuity 2020-2021. Hope this helps!

Answer:

Angle 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Looking at triangles ABD and ACD, they have parts which correspond. These parts are located in the same location in each triangle.

Angle 1 corresponds to Angle 2.

Answer:

The angle ∡1 is equivalent to ∡2

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to start with one reasonable assumption on the image to understand the thought process: "In the rhomboid at the left side, the length of AB is equal to AC".

If we trace a line from B to C, the left side of the rhomboid will be an isosceles triangle (see attached image).

One of the characteristics of these triangles is that if we trace a line directly from the vertex A to the opposite side (line BC) it splits the angle by half, so one half would be ∡1 and the other would be the answer: ∡2

Answer:

Shift the graph up 3 units.

9/11 = x/22

9*22 = 11x

198 = 11x | :11

x = 18

Answer:

The area of ΔDEF will be  [tex]4[/tex] square units.

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of [tex]\triangle ABC[/tex] is [tex]4[/tex] square units.

The corresponding side lengths of [tex]\triangle ABC[/tex] and [tex]\triangle[/tex]DEF are equal.

That means, two triangles are congruent according to [tex]SSS[/tex] postulate.

So, their area will be also equal.

Thus, the area of ΔDEF will be  [tex]4[/tex] square units.

Answer:

Advance tickets cost $30; same-day tickets cost $35.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let a = the cost of an advance ticket

and s = the cost of a same-day ticket

We have two conditions:

                                                         (1)                  a + s = 65

                                                         (2)        15a + 20s = 1150

Subtract a from each side of  (1)     (3)                       s = 65 - a

Substitute (3) into (2)                         15a + 20(65 - a) = 1150  

Distribute the 20                             15a + 1300 - 20a  = 1150

Combine like terms                                     1300 - 5a = 1150

Subtract 1300 from each side                               -5a = -150

Divide each side by -5                    (4)                     a = 30

Substitute (4) into (1)                                          30 + s = 65

Subtract 30 from each side                                     s = 35

Advance tickets cost $30; same-day tickets cost $35.

Check:

(1) 30 + 35 = 65     (2) 15 × 30 + 20 × 35 = 1150

            65 = 65             450    +    700    = 1150

                                                         1150 = 1150

Answer:

11 weeks

Step-by-step explanation:

First we need to check what variables we have.

Beginning Balance = $1000

Goal = $350

Withdrawal = $55 per week

Now let's declare a variable as the number of weeks.

Let x  = number of weeks

1000 - 55x = 350

-55x = 350-1000

-55x = -650

Then we divide both sides by -55 to find the value of x.

x = 11.81 or 11 since we're looking for how many weeks in total

Now let's see if we still have 350 if we have a total of 11 as the value of x.

1000 - 55(11) = 350

1000 - 605 = 350

395 = 350

We can see that Kendall will have $395 compared to the $350 goal.

So Kendall can withdraw $55 a week for 11 weeks to still be within her goal of having $350 in her savings account.

From the initial $1000 savings, Kendall can make withdrawals for 11 full weeks while maintaining her goal of having at least $350 left in the account.

To find out how many weeks Kendall can withdraw funds, we first need to calculate how much money Kendall can actually spend without going below her goal of $350. This is done by subtracting Kendall's savings goal from her initial savings. So, $1000 - $350 = $650.

Next, we divide this available amount ($650) by how much Kendall withdraws each week ($55). So, $650 ÷ $55 = approximately 11.82 weeks. Since Kendall can't withdraw money for a part of a week, she can make this withdrawal for 11 full weeks before reaching her goal of $350 in her account.

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Answer:

multiply by 4.5 to get x = 27

Step-by-step explanation:

Both sides should be multiplied by 4.5

x / 4.5 = 6

x = 27

Answer:

what she said cuz she was right  but the answer on oddsy ware is 4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there!

The equation we have been given is 5 - n/3 = -4.

Let's start by subtracting 5 from each side.

-n/3 = -9

Multiply each side by 3.

-n = -27

Multiply each side by -1.

n = 27

Check our answer.

5 - 27/3 = -4

5 - 9 = -4

-4 = -4

The value of n is 27.

Hope this helps!

The maximum height occurs at the vertex found using t = -b/2a

The time = t=-20/2*-5 = -20/-10 = 2 seconds.

Now replace t with 2 in the equation to solve for the height:

h(t) = -5t^2 +20t +1

h(2) = -5(2)^2 +20(2) +1

h(2) = -5(4) + 40 + 1

h(2) = -20 + 41

h(2) = 21 meters.

Maximum height was 21 meters at 2 seconds.

Answer: 6000, you simply multiply the mass by 1000

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve these we need to understand AND/OR rule of probability.

Simply put "AND" means "multiplication" and "OR" means "addition".

1.Drawing a King AND drawing a Heart:

Pleas note that there are 4 suits in a deck of cards and each suit has 1 king. So in a 52-card standard deck, there is 4 king. Also, there are 13 cards of each suite, so there are 13 hearts out of total 52. Also note that there is "AND" in between (so multiplication).

P(King)*P(heart) = 4/52 * 13/52 = 1/52

2. Flipping a Heads OR flipping a Tails:

Note that there can only be head or tail, so probability of either head of tail is 1/2. Note, there is "OR" in between (so addition).

P(head) + P(tail) = 1/2 + 1/2 = 1

3. Flipping a Tails AND drawing a King:

We already saw the probability of flipping tail is 1/2. Also, we say that there are 4 kings in a standard deck, so probability of drawing a king is 4/52. Note there is "AND" in between (so multiplication). Thus:

P(tails) * P(King) = 1/2 * 4/52 = 1/26

4. Flipping a Tails OR drawing a King

As #3, flipping a tail's probability is 1/2. And, drawing a King's probability is 4/52. BUT here, it is "OR" in between , hence we need to "ADD". Thus:

P (tail) + P(King) = 1/2 + 4/52 = 15/26

5. Drawing a King OR drawing a Heart

As we know, there are 4 suits each with 1 king, so there are total of 4 kings in a standard 52-deck card. Also, there are 13 cards of each suite (hearts, spades, diamonds, clubs). So there are 13 hearts. Hence, probability of King is 4/52 and probability of heart is 13/52. Note that there is "OR" in between, so that means "addition". Thus:

P(king) + P(heart) = 4/52 + 13/52 = 17/52

The various probabilities calculated are: 1) 1/52, 2) 1, 3) 1/26, 4) 7/13, 5) 4/13.

Therefore, the various probabilities calculated are: 1) 1/52, 2) 1, 3) 1/26, 4) 7/13, 5) 4/13.

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we have that by definition of properties of powers, it is fulfilled that:

[tex]a ^ {- 1} = \frac {1} {a ^ 1} = \frac {1} {a}[/tex]

On the other hand, we have that any number elevates it to the power 0, results in "1"

We have the expression:

[tex](-14^0)^{-2}[/tex]

What can we rewrite as:

[tex]\frac {1} {(- 14 ^ 0) ^ 2} = \frac {1} {(14 ^ 0) (14 ^ 0)} = \frac {1} {1 * 1} = \frac {1} {1} = 1[/tex]

Answer:

Option D

Answer:

4561.6 units squared

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a cylinder is defined by this equation: πr2h

r = radius = 11 units

h = height = 12 units

π = pi = 3.14152...etc. (In your case, just use 3.14)

So you plug these into the equation:

πr2h = (3.14) x (12) x (11^2)

Here, we will write squared as a number ^2, meaning that you multiply that number by itself twice.

Since 11 x 11 = 121, we can now solve for the volume:

(3.14) x (12) x (121) = 4561.6 units^2

Answer:

3:13

Step-by-step explanation:

Just simplify it all the way, leaving you with 3/13 if you divide both numbers by three, then you can convert it to a ratio there.

Answer:

3:13

Step-by-step explanation: