Answer:
Client-centered
Explanation:
The Client-centered approach is also known as Rogerian therapy or non-directive orientation. This approach focuses mainly on giving unconditional positive regard and support in order to the guide and help the client to perceive a congruent view of oneself, when the client suffers a gap between the reality and the self perception.
In the context, Caroline suffers from a psychological disorder where there is inconsistency between her self perception and her reality. Thus to treat her, the therapist follows the client centered orientation approach to deal with her sufferings.
Hence the answer is -- "Client-centered".
When studying personality traits, someone who is practical, conventional, and prefers routine will score low on the ________ trait. a. agreeableness b. neuroticism c. openness d. extroversion
Answer:c. openness
Explanation:
Openness is a personality found in the Big Five personality theory. An individual with this personality is more open minded to experience and try new things. This is a person who can be creative because they are able to imagine things and they are always curious. They don't confine to a routine lifestyle.
They will welcome new creative ideas and try them out and they are good with art.
A woman receiving treatment with topiramate gives birth to a newborn with a cleft lip and cleft palate. Which Food Drug Administration (FDA) Pregnancy Risk category of pregnancy does the drug belong?
This drug should be labeled as a teratogen. Teratogens impact child development in the prenatal stage. When the mother uses a teratogen during the period after the conception on but prior to the birth of her child, the child will encounter mental and physical health issues due to the ill effects of teratogens on prenatal development.
Topiramate is categorized under FDA Pregnancy Risk Category D due to its association with congenital malformations such as cleft lip and cleft palate when taken during pregnancy.
The FDA categorizes drugs into different risk categories based on their potential hazards and side effects during pregnancy, ranging from Category A (safest) to Category X (known to cause birth defects and should not be used during pregnancy).
Topiramate, the drug in question, has been associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations such as cleft lip and cleft palate when taken during pregnancy, particularly during the first trimester.
Therefore, topiramate falls under FDA Pregnancy Risk Category D, which indicates there is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.
Which seafloor feature is generally the smallest in height?
A) Tablemount
B) Abyssal hill
C) Seamount
Answer:
B) Abyssal hill
Explanation:
Abyssal hills are underwater hills found in abyssal floor with a height range of 50–300 meters.
Tablemounts also known as guyots is an underwater volcanic mountain with a height measuring as much as 900 meters. They are much larger in area and height than abyssal hills.
Seamounts are also underwater mountains formed from extinct volcanoes and range in heights from 1,000–4,000 meters.
The smallest seafloor feature in height is the Abyssal hill.
Explanation:The seafloor feature that is generally the smallest in height is the Abyssal hill. Abyssal hills are small, rounded underwater elevations that are typically less than 1,000 meters in height. They are formed by volcanic activity on the seafloor and are commonly found on the abyssal plain, which is a flat, sediment-covered region of the ocean floor.
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________ refers to a positive feeling about one's job resulting from an evaluation of its characteristics.
Answer: Job satisfaction
Explanation:
The job satisfaction is the term which refers to the employees positive feeling and the self satisfaction regarding the one's job result from the proper evaluation of the given characteristics.
The job satisfaction is very important factor for satisfying the employees job satisfaction in terms of career growth, balancing of work life and also the stability of the job.
The job satisfaction helps the employee for creating the good environment and it can measure by the the components such as effective, behavior and the cognitive.
Therefore, Job satisfaction is the correct answer.
Lulumelon owns a chain of fashion stores that serve men's, women's, and children's clothing categories, Jay, a motorcycle accident victim with an amputated leg, applies for a position at one of the stores in an upmarket location. Which one of the following assumptions by Lulumelon would prevent them from hiring him?A) There is no set of guidelines on how to take any potential disciplinary actions with disabled employeesB) Absentee rates for sick time are virtually equal between employees without disabilitiesC) A person with disability for whom workplace accommodations have been provided has obligations and rights as far as job performance is concernedD) Most workers with disabilities require no accommodation but for those who do, more than half of the workplace modifications cost $500 or less
Answer:A) There is no set of guidelines on how to take any potential disciplinary actions with disabled employees
Explanation:
The Absentee rates has no bearing on whether to hire Jay or not. Neither is a demand for higher performance based on the accommodations they will make for him. Employment Discrimination laws prevent organizations from discriminating against applicants based on their race, sex, disability, among other factors. Therefore, they cannot set a higher target for him than those set for workers without disabilities.
While option D would do more to encourage, than prevent Lulumelon from employing Jay, it is not factually correct. During recruitment, accommodations have to made to ensure that the workplace environment is as conducive to a worker with a disability as those without. These accommodations such as physical changes to ensure accessibility, changes to software and technology as well as policy changes can be substantial financially.
A valid reason for not employing Jay is the absence of a disciplinary procedure for people with disabilities in place. The company has to prepare for all possible events and consider what would happen if they had to take disciplinary measures against Jay, which is not available at the moment.
__________________ are reserves held in legal form which are greater than required reserves and can be loaned out..
The answer is Excess Reserves
Explanation: Excess Reserves are reserves held in legal form which are greater than required reserves and can be loaned out..
Answer:
Excessive reserves
Explanation:
Excessive reserves are the amount of reserve bank that is in excess and held by the central bank of states.
The excessive reserve can be determined by using the given relation
excessive reserve = actual reserve - required reserve
All the commercial banks under the federal bank can lend excessive reserves to increase the money supply.
how are surface mining and peat harvesting similar in the way they affect an ecosystem?
The correct answer is Both remove vegetation in the area, destroying habitats.
Surface mining refers to the method of extracting rocks or minerals from the earth by removing them from an open pit or borrowed excavation.
Peat harvesting involves a farmer or laborer manually cutting things.
Commercial shrimp fishermen are more than likely limited in influence because of a lack of:_________
Answer: Geographic distribution
Explanation:
According to the given question, the commercial shrimp fishermen are basically limited in influence due to the lack of the geographical distribution as it plays an important role in the environment.
The geographical distribution is basically depend upon the physical environment and also the climate such as temperature, light and moisture.
The geographical distribution is basically refers to the managing the different locations and the regions on the earth. So, due to the lack of geographical distribution we cannot do anything.
Therefore, geographical distribution is the correct answer.
If the governor appointed a loyal supporter to serve on the Sunset Advisory Commission, it would be considered an act of_________
Answer:
patronage
Explanation:
Hello! The patronage is when an individual (or establishment) with a large amount of money, finances other individuals in order to carry out their creative activity without worrying about economic productivity.
Financial aid can be oriented to all kinds of activities.
Thanks for your question!
Jacob is a waiter at Alpines, a five-star restaurant. He is known for his excellent memory with regard to customer orders. He recalls each customer’s order perfectly by associating the order with where the customer is seated and with the clothes the customer is wearing. In this scenario, which of the following encoding processes is Jacob most likely using to help him remember his orders?
Answer:
Explanation:
Jacob is most likely using a visual encoding to remember his orders. A visual encoding is the ability of the brain to remember certain things by visual stimuli. Visual encoding is the way we build the images on our brain. In this scenario Jacob uses his visual encoding to help him remember the different orders. He uses the position of the sitting and the colors of what the customers are wearing.
b) Visual encoding; Jacob is using visual encoding to remember customer orders by associating them with visual cues such as customer seating and clothes. Visual encoding involves creating mental images to retain information and has been shown to enhance memory retention. Therefore, Jacob's technique is effective due to the vivid mental images it creates.
Jacob, the waiter at Alpines, most likely relies on visual encoding to remember customer orders. Visual encoding is the process of encoding images, which allows information to be retained by associating it with mental images. Jacob remembers orders by linking them with where customers are seated and the clothes they are wearing, both of which are visual cues. This helps him create a mental image of each customer, making it easier to recall their orders accurately.
Visual encoding is powerful in memory retention because it converts verbal information into vivid mental pictures, reinforcing the use of concrete, high-imagery words. For instance, psychologists Craik and Tulving's research found that images can significantly enhance recall.
Complete Question:
Jacob is a waiter at Alpines, a five-star restaurant. He is known for his excellent memory with regard to customer orders. He recalls each customer’s order perfectly by associating the order with where the customer is seated and with the clothes the customer is wearing. In this scenario, which of the following encoding processes is Jacob most likely using to help him remember his orders?
a) Semantic encoding
b) Visual encoding
c) Acoustic encoding
d) Procedural encoding
You catch the whiff of freshly popped popcorn as you enter the movie theater. The process by which the odor of popcorn is converted into neural signals that your brain can interpret as the smell of popcorn is called:
A)sensory adaptation.
B)transduction.
C)proprioception
D)accommodation.
Answer:
B. transduction.
Explanation:
Transduction is the process whereby sensory receptors convert different forms of energy into neural signals that the brain interprets.
According to the text, __________societies were among the first to practice monotheism, the belief in a single, supreme being or god who is responsible for significant events such as the creation of the world.
Answer:
Horticultural societies.
Explanation:
Horticultural societies were the first type of society from which culture slightly appeared to emerge. People cultivated their own food, rather than depending firmly on the hunter and gather technique. This means that they were also the first type of society in which settlements were made, culture was shaped and practices such as monotheism were practiced. Judaism, Christianity and Islam are considered to be the three primary monotheistic religions.
According to parentral acceptance rejection theory children who are rejected by their parents are more likely to be____________.
Children who are rejected by their parents are more likely to be disobedient, according to parentral acceptance rejection theory.
EXPLANATION:
Parents play a major role is bringing up a child. The child is socially and emotionally developed only when their parents show love and care to them. The behavior of the child depends on the situation that he faces daily and the environment he live.
The child is said to be disobedient, when he lags in good behavior. The experience that the child faces every time plays a major role in deciding the character of the kid. Parental acceptance-rejection theory (PARTheory) mainly explains how to deal with bringing up the children.
Mr. Langley emphasizes that premature sexual activity among high school students involves the interplay of alcohol consumption, mass media norms, and teens' underestimation of their vulnerability to sexually transmitted infections. The teacher's emphasis best illustrates _______.
Answer:
biopsychosocial approach
Explanation:
Biopsychosocial approach -
It is the approach , where the fields like socio-environmental , psychology and biology , are all considered for solving the issues related to health , is referred to as biopsychosocial approach .
This approach opens up all the aspects of a particular activity or task , so as to get a better understanding of the topic.
Hence, from the question,
the correct term for the given approach of the question is ,biopsychosocial approach .
Which kinds of intelligences would be measured on a test devised by Howard Gardner?
Answer: Types of intelligence that can be measured in a test devised by Howard Gardner.
1) interpersonal;
2) intrapersonal;
3) musical;
4) kinesthetic. etc
Howard Gardner born July 11, 1943 is a developmental psychologist. He postulated a theory on multiple intelligences. In this theory he explained that individuals has several ways of processing information and every one of them are relative to one another.
He identified 8 intelligence in which an individual can be tested on. They are linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, spatial, bodily/kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal, and naturalistic.
Howard Gardner's Multiple Intelligences Theory consists of at least eight distinct intelligences, which encompass a wide range of cognitive, emotional, and practical skills, reflecting the diverse ways people can excel.
Explanation:Howard Gardner's Multiple Intelligences
The Multiple Intelligences Theory developed by Howard Gardner posits the existence of at least eight distinct intelligences. These intelligences are:
Linguistic intelligence: The capability to use language to express oneself and understand others.Logical-mathematical intelligence: The ability to think conceptually and abstractly, and to discern logical or numerical patterns.Musical intelligence: The skill in performing, composing, and appreciating musical patterns.Bodily kinesthetic intelligence: The capacity to manipulate objects and use a variety of physical skills.Spatial intelligence: The ability to think in three dimensions and visualize with the mind's eye.Interpersonal intelligence: The capacity to understand and interact effectively with others.Intrapersonal intelligence: The ability to understand and work with one's own emotions and thoughts.Naturalistic intelligence: The ability to recognize, categorize, and draw upon certain features of the environment.Despite criticism for lack of empirical evidence, Gardner's framework remains influential in the educational field, as it suggests the pluralistic nature of intelligence and supports the idea that everyone can excel in different ways. Additionally, the inclusion of emotional intelligence—encompassing both interpersonal and intrapersonal intelligences—is considered by some to be a better predictor of success than traditional measures of intelligence.
Contrastingly, Robert Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence divides intelligence into three components: practical, creative, and analytical. Meanwhile, traditional theories like Charles Spearman's concept of 'g', and the Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) theory describe intelligence as a single general ability or as part of a hierarchical structure of cognitive abilities, respectively.
Which of the following is a correct statement about the balance among prevention, detection, and response (PDR)? a. Organizations have no discretion in deciding their levels of security practice. b. If detection and response measures are in place, it is not necessary to have measures devoted to prevention. c. If preventive measures are in place, it is not necessary to have measures focused on detection and response. d. The greater the sensitivity and quantity of the data at issue, the more carefully the balance among these three must be evaluated.
Option D , The greater the sensitivity and quantity of the data at issue, the more carefully the balance among these three must be evaluated.
Explanation:
Prevention, detection and response are one of the fundamental triads of cyber security.
Maybe it was important to invest most of the Info-Sec spending on mitigation in the late nineties and the first half of the 2000s. However, the alterations they have seen in technology, threats and the economy over the last five to seven years have inevitably led to successful assaults by organisations. Consequently, the detection and response should be allocated more budget.
For their workers involved in high-risk asbestos-exposure jobs, employers must provide all these preventive protections EXCEPT:__________
Answer:
Cancer insurance
Explanation:
For workers who are exposed to asbestos, employers must provide protective outer clothing to cover their body from direct exposure with asbestos. A respirator approved by NIOSH must also be provided for workers to provide protection from asbestos inhalation. Adequate soap and water must also be provided to enable employees wash exposed parts properly. Employers are not expected to provide employees with Cancer Insurance.
In the __________ age, PR practitioners, unconcerned with brand strategy or other aspects of advertising, dealt primarily with media relations.
The correct answer to this open question is the following.
In the analog age, PR practitioners, unconcerned with brand strategy or other aspects of advertising, dealt primarily with media relations.
A public relations professional based its job in the daily relationship with mass media reporters, the elaboration of press bulletins, the organization of Press Conferences or personal interviews with TV and Radio stations, to answer media inquiries, and to collect important information from the company or the client to send it to media slots.
When an audience member translates the speaker's verbal and non-verbal messages into information and ideas, this process is known as:________.
a) channel confusion.
b) decoding.
c) noise.
d) encoding.
Answer:
Decoding
Explanation:
Decoding is the phenomenon that explains the ability to sound out that word you don't know, is the key skill to become a good reader. This is known as decoding.
Thus in the above context when audience members try to translate the speaker's nonverbal and the verbal message into the information and the ideas through decoding. This is the only way through which the audience can understand the meaning of the speaker's speech what a speaker wants to tell the audience.
While conducting a study on marital practices in various cultures, Dr. Ekoba unintentionally uses language that implies that her culture uses the best mating and marriage rituals, while other cultures' practices are deviant or inferior. This reflects a(n) ________ bias in her study.
Answer:
Ethnocentric
Explanation:
While conducting a study on marital practices in various cultures, Dr. Ekoba unintentionally uses language that implies that her culture uses the best mating and marriage rituals, while other cultures' practices are deviant or inferior. This reflects an ethnocentric bias in her study.
Ethnocentric meaning Dr Ekoba unintentionally measures the standards of other cultures using her own culture being that it is superior.
Answer: Ethnocentic
Explanation:
Ethnocentrism is a social science terminology which refers to how we tend to favour a particular culture over the other and then we end up misjudging their values and norms and putting our own culture as more important and better when compared to the other cultures. This occurs in institutions like religion, where one religion consider the other to not have moral values or standards when compared to what they hold valuable.
Dr. Arce is interested in the relative importance of genetic and environmental factors on human development.
This is known as the __________ controversy.
Answer:The nature versus nurture
Explanation:The nature versus nurture
is phenomenon that defines how certain behaviors are inherited genetically or acquired through influences
Nature refers to genetic influence and biological factors that contribute to our behavior whilst nurture is a behavior that is acquired from external factors i.e through life experiences.
The nature-nurture focuses on how both nature and nurture influences our human behaviour.
For a _____ conviction of a DUI you could pay a fine of not less than $500 and not more than $1,000.
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
If we are referring to the penalties associated with a DUI, the penalties range from $500 to $1000 for a first conviction. The severity of these penalties typically increases with subsequent offenses.
Explanation:The penalties for DUI convictions vary greatly depending on the state you reside and the number of prior offenses. However, taking the context of this question into account, for a first conviction of a DUI you could pay a fine of not less than $500 and not more than $1,000.
This is because laws for DUIs typically impose stiffer penalties for subsequent offenses, so the fines mentioned would align more closely with a first offense.
Keep in mind that in addition to fines, a first DUI conviction could also involve jail time, probation, community service, mandatory alcohol education programs, and the suspension of your driver's license.
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Why did the Separatists who fled London for Holland eventually settle in the New World?
Answer:
The English protestants who wanted to separate from the Church of England due to its corruption were called Separatists. They believed that the true believers should find other Christians and form their separate churches. They were in favour of allowing various congregation to have the right to decide their own affairs instead of submitting it to any higher authority. Separated movement was illegal in England and it followers were labelled as traitors and persecuted.
They fled from England in search of lands where they could follow their faith. The first group left for Holland in 1608 and some of these who were pilgrims settles in the Plymouth Massachusetts.
The Pilgrims, also known as Separatists, settled in the New World due to their desire for religious freedom and to maintain their English identity, which they felt was threatened in Holland. They eventually sought and gained permission from the Virginia Company to settle in North America, where they formed a self-governed society based on their religious convictions.
The Separatists, also known as Pilgrims, left London for Holland and eventually settled in the New World for several reasons. Initially, they moved to the Dutch Republic seeking religious freedom and the opportunity to practice their faith without interference from the Church of England. However, they faced two main issues in Holland: their concerns over their children losing their English identity and adopting Dutch customs, and the looming threat of the Dutch Republic coming under attack by the Spanish, which could result in persecution by Catholic forces.
As a result, in 1620, the Separatists sought permission from the Virginia Company to establish a colony in Virginia. They were granted a charter and embarked on the Mayflower, aiming to create a society where they could freely practice their religion and propagate their faith. William Bradford, the governor of the Plymouth Colony, emphasized the desire for a pure, religious community separate from the corruption perceived in the Church of England.
The Pilgrims hoped to maintain their English cultural heritage and establishing their own identity in a new colony. The Mayflower Compact, signed by the Pilgrims aboard the Mayflower, symbolized their commitment to creating a self-governed society based on their religious convictions, distinctively different from the Charters of Roanoke Island, the Chesapeake colonies, or the economically driven settlement of Jamestown.
If a consumer makes monthly payments of $250 to pay off a car loan, what type of credit is she using?
A) Non-Revolving
B) Revolving
C) Short Term
D) Unsecured
Answer:
A) Non-Revolving
Explanation:
There are two types of payment option, revolving credit and non-revolving credit.
For non-revolving credit, there is a fixed interest rate and fixed monthly payment according to agreement to payoff the loan. The consumers fixed monthly payment in this case is $250. Unlike non-revolving credit, there is no fixed payment amount in revolving credit.
Final answer:
A consumer making fixed monthly payments to pay off a car loan is using Non-Revolving credit. This is a loan with a fixed repayment schedule until the debt is fully paid off.
Explanation:
If a consumer is making monthly payments of $250 to pay off a car loan, the type of credit being used is Non-Revolving. This type of loan involves borrowing a fixed amount of money and making set payments until the debt is paid off. This differs from revolving credit, where the consumer can continually borrow up to a certain limit as long as the account remains in good standing. Auto loans are typically secured by the vehicle itself, meaning that if the borrower defaults, the lender can repossess the car.
Identify the FALSE statement about the following diagram. This image shows the ocean "conveyor belt," which rq15.1 Click to view larger image. a. mixes the entire oceans every 1.5 million years. b. forms due to changes in the density of seawater. c. sinks in polar latitudes, forming deep, cold salty water masses. d. exhibits thermohaline circulation of the ocean basins.
Final answer:
The false statement is that the ocean conveyor belt mixes the entire oceans every 1.5 million years. The actual mixing rate indicates a mean residence time of 1600 years for water in the deep ocean.
Explanation:
A student has asked to identify the FALSE statement about the ocean "conveyor belt," also known as thermohaline circulation. After reviewing the given information, it is clear that option a. mixes the entire oceans every 1.5 million years is the false statement. The true mixing rate is much higher; in fact, only about 0.01% of ocean water moves between layers annually, and the mean residence time of a water molecule in the deep ocean is approximately 1600 years, not 1.5 million years.
The ocean conveyor belt forms due to changes in the density of seawater, which is affected by temperature and salinity. In polar regions, the water becomes denser as it becomes colder and saltier, leading to its sinking and thus, forming deep, cold, salty water masses. This deep water moves along the bottom pushing other water out of its way and mixing with less dense water, eventually resulting in upwelling in certain areas. These processes contribute to the global thermohaline circulation of the ocean basins, which is critical for transporting heat and regulating climate.
Which research project studuesd more than 500 children adn their parents in the 1920?
Answer:
The Berkeley Longitudinal Studies was the research project studied more than 500 children and their parents in the 1920.
Explanation:
Understanding the Berkeley Longitudinal Studies
In 1920s ,a research on more than 500 children alongside their parents was conducted, under the heading of the Berkeley Longitudinal Studies, to investigate the different aspects of human personality. They came to know about some of the stable characters of the human personality which were; orientation towards of humans self confidence, intellectualism, and the readiness towards accepting new ideas and experiences.
In response to cutting up an onion, airborne irritants released by the onion will cause your eyes to automatically water or produce tears. Using Pavlov's terminology, the tears would be termed a(n):
Answer:
Unconditioned response
Explanation:
it is referred to that response ion classical conditioning which arises due to some unlearned stimulus. In a simple way, it is referred to that response that produced due to a stimulus that is unnatural.
example of unconditioned response- the smell of freshly prepared food, while the conditioned response is when, a dog listened to whistle for food and his excitement after hearing that particular sound is considered to be conditioned response.
The ______ perspective in psychology focuses on observable behavior rather than inner unconscious forces.
Answer:
Behavioral perspective
Explanation:
Behavioral perspective is the theoretical perspective that describes the behavior of a person and animal by its stimulus-response relationship. Many factors influenced the behavior of a person and animals.
The environmental factor that influenced the behavior of a person. The learning also influenced by its response and stimulus relationship. The learning also includes the changes in the behavior of a person and animals. Learning occurs due to the happening of stimulus and response close relationship. Both animal and human beings learned in the same manner.Thus here the behavioral perspective in psychology focused on observable behavior rather than the unconscious forces.
What is the area of the tungsten target called where the high speed electrons strike the surface?
Answer:
Actual focal spot-
Explanation:
Actual focal spot-
it is referred to that spot of focal where beam of electron converge to one place.
focal sopt size for different process are
1) for mammography - 0.3 mm to 0.6 mm
2) for radiography - 1.00 to 1.2 mm
Focal length of focal spot can be calculated by using following relation
[tex]focal\ length = actual\ focal\ length * sin\theta[/tex]
where[tex] \theta[/tex] is angle of anode
Erected shoring equipment must be inspected in all the following circumstances EXCEPT:
The correct answer is; Shoring equipment must be inspected before, during and after the erection of all formwork.
Further Explanation:
Since there is no choices that can be used to determine the best answer, I will state when shoring is appropriate. Shoring is done when digging on numerous job-sites and building houses, businesses, etc. When the company receives the shoring equipment, it needs to be inspected immediately before use.
During the project, all of the equipment should be inspected once again to make sure that the equipment is in working condition. OSHA does not give clear guidelines on the inspection process so many companies have their own. Some of the things that are inspected on the shoring equipment are;
checking for leaking fluids in the cylinderschecking to be sure the shore has been pressurized and sustains a pressure of 750 psi to 1500 psi.pressure can be held for approximately 60 secondsLearn more about shoring equipment at https://brainly.com/question/5428790
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Answer:well, the question is not complete, we do not have the options, but , not to worry, I will give you somethings to help you solve this kind of problem.
Explanation:
Shoring equipments are the equipments used in holding up or supporting structures.
Okay, Occupational Safety and Health Administration(OSHA) is an agency that is saddled with the responsibility of providing a safe environment in workplaces. Shoring equipments are used in engineering works, and, there are rules and regulations provided by Occupational Safety and Health Administration(OSHA) so as to maintain safety in the field.
One of the rules and regulations provided by Occupational Safety and Health Administration(OSHA) is the one concerning the use of offshore equipments. The regulation says that;
" All Shoring equipment (including equipment used in reshoring operations) shall be inspected prior to erection to determine that the equipment meets the requirements specified in the formwork drawings''
The above quote of the rules and regulations set by Occupational Safety and Health Administration(OSHA) can be found in 1926.703(b)(1) of the Safety and Health Regulations for Construction, United States Department of Labour.
Therefore, to answer the question, all shoring equipments must be inspected before, during and after the formwork.