A cook has 2 2/3 cups of flour. A recipe calls for 2 3/4 cups of flour. Does the cook have enough flour? If not, how much more flour is needed

The product of two irrational numbers can be either rational or irrational.

The product of two irrational numbers is not always irrational. To understand this, let's consider an example and a counterexample.

Example of an Irrational Product

Take the square root of 2 (\/(2)) and the square root of 3 (\/(3)). Both of these numbers are irrational. Their product is:

\/2 × \/3 = \/6

Since \/6 cannot be expressed as a fraction of two integers (making it irrational), this is an example where the product of two irrational numbers is irrational.

Counterexample of a Rational Product

Now, consider another example with \/(2) and \/(2). Since both are irrational, their product is:

\/2 × \/2 = 2

Here, 2 is a rational number because it can be written as a fraction (2/1). Therefore, this is a counterexample where the product of two irrational numbers is rational.

In summary, the product of two irrational numbers can be either rational or irrational depending on the specific numbers involved.

The length and width of the rectangle will be 19 meters.

The sum of all the sides of the rectangle will be known as the perimeter of the rectangle. Let L be the length and W be the width of the rectangle.

Then the perimeter of the rectangle will be

Perimeter of the rectangle = 2(L + W) units

The perimeter of a college athletic field is 104 meters and the length is 16 meters more than the width.

L = 14 + W

Then the length and width of the rectangle will be

P = 2(L + W)

104 = 2(14 + W + W)

52 = 14 + 2W

2W = 38

W = 19 meters

The length and width of the rectangle will be 19 meters.

More about the perimeter of the rectangle link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/15287805

#SPJ2

median  is the middle value, since there is an even number, add the 2 middle numbers and divide by 2

median = 9 +17 = 26/2 = 13

mode is the number that is repeated most often

mode = 6

mean is the average of all the numbers, when added they equal 276

276/12 = 23

mean = 23

5% trimmed mean = 218 /10 = 21.8

 the averages are statistics since the points of a football game can vary

The percent decrease in the area of a rectangle from 40 square feet to 28 square feet is calculated by dividing the difference in areas (12 sq ft) by the original area (40 sq ft) and multiplying by 100%. The result is a 30% decrease in area.

The percent decrease in the area of a rectangle can be found by first calculating the difference in the areas and then dividing that difference by the original area. In this case, the original area of the rectangle was 40 square feet and it decreased to 28 square feet, a difference of 12 square feet.

We use the formula for percentage change which is:

(change in value) / (original value) × 100%

Here, the change in value is the difference in areas (12 square feet) and the original value is the original area of the rectangle (40 square feet). Thus we calculate:

(12 sq ft/ 40 sq ft) * 100% = 30%

So, the percent decrease in the area of the rectangle is 30%.

https://brainly.com/question/8549621

#SPJ2

Final answer:

The statement is true, as the slope of the graph of f(x)+g(x) at x=2 is the sum of the slopes of f and g at that point, which equals 10.4.

Explanation:

The statement is true.

In calculus, the derivative of a function at a particular point measures the rate at which the function is changing at that point. It is analogous to the slope of the tangent line to the graph of the function at that point.

When we are given that f'(2) = 3.1 and g'(2) = 7.3, these values represent the slopes of the functions f and g at x = 2, respectively.

To find the slope of f(x) + g(x) at x = 2, we simply add the slopes of f and g at that point. This is based on the rule that the derivative of the sum of two functions is the sum of their derivatives, or symbolically, (f+g)' = f' + g'.

Therefore, the slope of the graph of f(x)+g(x) at x=2 is indeed 10.4 (3.1 + 7.3).

Answer:no. I don’t understand. Where did the 12 come from

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that ( x) is between $34 and $38 is 0.6826 or 68.26%.

To find the probability that a random variable ( x) is between $34 and $38, we need to use the probability density function (PDF) if ( x) follows a continuous distribution. Let's assume ( x ) follows a normal distribution with a mean [tex](\( \mu \))[/tex] of $36 and a standard deviation [tex](\( \sigma \))[/tex] of $2.

Calculate the z-scores for $34 and $38:

[tex]\[ z_1 = \frac{34 - 36}{2} = -1 \][/tex]

[tex]\[ z_2 = \frac{38 - 36}{2} = 1 \][/tex]

Look up the z-scores in the standard normal distribution table:

[tex]\[ P(z_1 < Z < z_2) = P(-1 < Z < 1) \][/tex]

Find the probabilities corresponding to these z-scores:

[tex]\[ P(Z < 1) = 0.8413 \][/tex]

[tex]\[ P(Z < -1) = 0.1587 \][/tex]

Subtract the two probabilities:

[tex]\[ P(-1 < Z < 1) = P(Z < 1) - P(Z < -1) = 0.8413 - 0.1587 = 0.6826 \][/tex]

So, the probability that ( x) is between $34 and $38 is 0.6826 or 68.26%.

The value of f is 0.02.

Expression is a formation of numbers and variables with mathematical operations.

According to the given question we have to solve for f or we can say we have to find the value of f for the given expression which is

2+1.25f=10−2.75f                (lets multiply each term by 100 to remove

                                                                                              decimals )  

∴ 200 + 125f = 1000 - 275f

125f + 275f = 1000 - 200

400f = 800

      f = 800/400

      f = 2.

As we have multiplied by 100 we have to divide by 100 we obtain the exact result.

So, 2/100 is = 0.02

f = 0.02.

learn more about expressions here :

https://brainly.com/question/15994491

#SPJ6

The limit [tex]\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = \infty[/tex] means that the term  [tex]a_n[/tex] becomes large as n becomes large

The limit of a function describes the behavior of such function as the independent variable approaches a certain value

Infinity [tex]\infty[/tex] represents a very large number

In the limit, both n and [tex]a_n[/tex] tend to infinity

The given limit is:

[tex]\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = \infty[/tex]

The limit above describes the behavior of [tex]a_n[/tex] as n approaches infinity

As n approaches infinity [tex]a_n[/tex]  also approaches infinity

Therefore, the description of the limit [tex]\lim_{n \to \infty} a_n = \infty[/tex] is that the term  [tex]a_n[/tex] becomes large as n becomes large

Learn more here: https://brainly.com/question/16176032

The statement 'lim n → ∞ an = ∞' means that the terms an become large as n becomes large.

The statement lim n → ∞ an = ∞ means that the terms an become large as n becomes large.

https://brainly.com/question/39042717

#SPJ3

Answer:

By solving it.

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to see if the equation is correct, you just have to perform the operations in both sides of the inequality and then check if those are equal, that means that the equation is correct, for example if both sides of the equation give as a result 10 then the equation is correct, now let´s do it with the problem:

12+39=49

51=39

Since 51 is not equal to 39 that means that the equation is not correct.

The conditional probability that event a will occur given that event b has occurred, denoted as p(a | b), is approximately 0.3 or 30%.

The question is asking for the conditional probability of the event a given that event b has occurred, written as p(a | b). In probability theory, the formula for conditional probability is p(a | b) = p(a ∩ b) / p(b). Here, we already know that p(a ∩ b) = 0.14 and p(b) = 0.46. Substituting these values into the formula gives us:

p(a | b) = 0.14 / 0.46 = 0.304347826.

So, the probability of event a occurring given that event b has occurred is approximately 0.3 or 30%.

https://brainly.com/question/32171649

#SPJ2