Answer:Film placement instruments.
Explanation:
Darwin’s influence on modern scientific inquiry is largely (i)_______ ; yet while Darwin’s ideas inform fields as disparate as genetics and social psychology, one cannot help but think that each group, in (ii)_______ Darwin’s ideas, has imparted a slant that might have surprised Darwin.A) anecdotal, sub-verting B) common place, questioning C) un-contested, appropriating
Answer:
The answer is C) un-contested, appropriating
Explanation:
Although Darwinian ideas are purely biological and scientific, they have aided theoretical research in other sciences as well, psychology, in particular. The theory of evolution does not only explain the evolution of the human body, but also that of the brain. The brain's psychological mechanisms and the behaviors they produce can largely be understood through Darwin's theories; the theories of natural and sexual selection have directed much of psychological research.
In general, scientists accept Darwin's theories but in specific fields, such as social psychology and neuroscience, scientists have formulated surprising explanations using Darwinian ideas.
What would be most important to have readily available for a client who is receiving an indirect-acting cholinergic agonist and develops a severe reaction?
Answer:
Atropine
Explanation:
Atropine is an anticholinergic drug that inhibits the parasympathetic function that is characterized by no electrical charge.
Atropine is a drug capable of blocking the action of the parasympathetic system thanks to two pharmacodynamic characteristics that are important:
1. Its affinity for muscarinic receptors is greater than that of Ach. Therefore, Atropine will compete with Ach. endogenous for occupying these receptors and it is the Atropine who will occupy them. Atropine has a specific affinity for muscarinic receptors, it has no affinity for nicotinic or neuronal receptors, or muscle receptors.
2. Atropine only binds to muscarinic receptors, but it cannot stimulate them since it lacks intrinsic activity (intrinsic activity = 0) therefore the Atropine molecule itself has no effect on the organs innervated by the parasympathetic , the effects that we observe are a consequence of the fact that Atropine, when joining muscarinic receptors, prevents the action of Ach. in those receivers.
From this it follows that the action of anticholinergics depends primarily on the parasympathetic tone existing at the time these drugs begin to act.
This mechanism of action of Atropine is called reversible competitive antagonism. It is reversible because the antagonism disappears if we manage to increase the concentration of Ach. in the zone.
How many cells are created from cytokinesis following mitosis
Answer:The Answer Is Two cells
Explanation:
Cytokinesis following mitosis results in two genetically identical daughter cells, each with the same number and type of chromosomes as the original cell.
Explanation:Cytokinesis following mitosis results in the creation of two genetically identical daughter cells. After the cell has gone through the four stages of mitosis - prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase - cytokinesis occurs, cleaving the cell into two separate entities. Each resulting cell has its own nucleus with the exact same number and type of chromosomes as the original cell. In the process of cell division, first, the nucleus divides through mitosis, and then the cytoplasm divides through cytokinesis. This ensures that the cellular content, including the genetic material, is evenly distributed between the two new cells and cell growth can continue in each.
When considering the total number of cells produced from one cycle of cell division, including mitosis and cytokinesis, it is two. One parent cell divides to form two daughter cells, each being a clone of the parent in terms of genetic content, assuming no errors in the replication or segregation of chromosomes. It's important to realize that mitosis and cytokinesis are essential for growth, repair, and asexual reproduction in organisms.
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An ameba is a single-celled organism. It uses its cell membrane to obtain food from its environment, digests the food with the help of organelles called lysosomes, and uses other organelles to process the digested food. From this, we can best infer that
(1) all single-celled organisms have lysosomes to digest food
(2) amebas are capable of digesting any type of food molecule
(3) single-celled organisms are as complex as multicellular organisms
(4) structures in amebas have functions similar to organs in multicellular organisms
Answer:
According to me answer no 4 is correct.
Explanation:
single cell amoebas can perform all life functions capture the food, digestion, respiration, excretion, and reproduction also. These all are similar to multicellular animals.
Final answer:
The structures within an amoeba perform roles similar to organs in multicellular organisms, reflecting a level of complexity in which specific organelles carry out vital functions for the amoeba's survival. The correct answer is (option C) single-celled organisms are as complex as multicellular organisms.
Explanation:
The question is asking us to make an inference based on information about how an amoeba, a single-celled organism, feeds and processes food. Specifically, an amoeba uses its cell membrane to engulf food by endocytosis, after which a lysosome fuses with the food vesicle to digest the food. Waste is then excreted from the amoeba by exocytosis. Organelles within the amoeba, similar to a multicellular organism's organs, perform specific functions vital to the amoeba's survival and function.
Given this information, the best inference we can make is that structures in amoebas perform functions similar to organs in multicellular organisms. This is because, like organs, these structures (organelles such as lysosomes) have specific roles in the life processes of the amoeba, indicating a level of complexity within this single-celled organism that reflects that of the organ systems in multicellular organisms.
Relative time dating is one way that scientists can understand the relative ages of rocks and fossils. Refer to the figure above. What can you conclude about the relative ages of the labeled rock layers?
Answer:d
Explanation:
The modern Himalayas continue to grow as a plate carrying oceanic crust subducts beneath a plate carrying continental crust.
Answer: True. The growth is as a result of and is the convergence between these crusts
Explanation:
Convergent: Continental to Continental then to Oceanic crust
A convergent boundary is created when an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate. The oceanic plates typically goes under the continental plate when this the case. The going under is because the oceanic plate is thinner and more dense than the continental plate. This type of convergent boundary is what probably create volcanic mountain ranges like Mount Rainier, the Ring of Fire. It can also cause earthquakes and some seismic activities.
Peter and Rosemary Grant have studied the gene-culture transmission of birdsong in Charles Darwin's finches, Geospiza fortis and Geospiza scandens. What evidence from their studies illustrates the "culture" part of the transmission and what evidence illustrates the "gene" part of this coevolutionary relationship?
The cultural part of the transmission happens when the child learns the song from the father.
The gene part of co-evolutionary relationship happens when the females mate only with the males who sing the song produced by males of their own species.
Explanation:
The gene is known to a heredity unit that is transferred from a parent to the child and the gene plays a major role in determining the characteristic of the child.
The gene-culture transmission of birdsong illustrates that the songbirds usually learn the songs from other birds of their gene.
Transcription and translation is also known as protein synthesis, and is the expression of genes. The genetic code determines the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide, and the properties of the amino acids give the final structure and function of the protein. Other than membrane proteins, state four functions of proteins in the cell.
~ Building Tissues and Muscles.
Protein is necessary in building and repairing body tissues.
~ Hormone Production.
Protein hormones bind to receptors on the cell membrane instead of entering the cell directly.
~ Enzymes
Enzymes are proteins that bind to molecules to speed up chemical reactions.
~ Immune Function
Antibodies are specialized protein configurations that provide a specific immune defense against invaders.
A student working on his dissertation plans on interviewing 15 principals in neighboring high schools. The student plans to collect data about the personal experiences the principals have had with disruptive students, what types of disciplinary actions were taken (including decisions they may have personally made), and their feelings or thoughts as to whether those actions were appropriate. Identifiers will be collected. This study would be categorized as which type of review?
A. Exempt Review
B. Full Board Review
C. Expedited Review
D. Not Human Subjects
Answer:
B. Full Board review
Explanation:
studies which involve children and challenged individuals are always expected to undergo full board review.
Answer:
B. Full Board Review
Explanation:
The question above refers to research that fits the type of research that presents more than a minimal risk, in addition to involving a group of people who belong to a protected population, in this case children. This is because, the research seeks to evaluate the personal experiences that the directors had with disturbing students. In this case, this survey fits the Full Board Review, which is the type of review provided for that type of survey.
The information in the passage suggests that in mice CRY1 most likely affects XPA by:
Answer:
The information in the passage suggests that in mice CRY1 likely affects XPA by repressing the XPA-encoding gene transcription as shown in the graph which indicates a lowering of XPA levels when CRY1 levels is raised.
The proteins produced by the CRY1 gene in mice may interact with or influence the proteins produced by the XPA gene, potentially affecting the timing or efficiency of DNA repair.
Explanation:Based on the given question, it seems to indicate a relationship between CRY1 and XPA in mice which falls under the scope of genetic biology. The details of mice, CRY1, and XPA were not provided, hence a direct answer cannot be formulated without speculation. However, generally, CRY1 is a gene that encodes a protein in mice that's involved in controlling sleep cycles or circadian rhythms. XPA gene, on the other hand, is related to DNA repair processes. If a passage suggests that CRY1 affects XPA, it could mean that the proteins produced by the CRY1 gene somehow interact with or influence the proteins produced by the XPA gene, potentially to do with the timing or efficiency of DNA repair.
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Suppose you had an enzyme that recognized a sequence of six nucleotides. What are the odds that this sequence would appear in a random chain of DNA?
Answer:
The odds that this sequence would appear in a random chain of DNA is one out of two thousand and forty-eight.
Explanation:
If an enzyme recognizes a six-nucleotide pattern, the chances of that sequence being in a random sequence of DNA are one in two thousand and forty-eight.
Define nucleotides.A nucleoside as well as a phosphate make up nucleotides, which are organic compounds. They are monomeric units of a nucleic acid polymers deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid, which are both fundamental macromolecules in all living things on Earth.
If an enzyme recognizes a six-nucleotide pattern, the chances of that sequence being in a random sequence of DNA are one in two thousand and forty-eight.
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Collagens are NOT __________.
A. found as bundles of double-helical polypeptides
B. load-bearing proteins in the extracellular matrix
C. the most abundant component of the extracellular matrix in animals
D. high in glycine, hydroxylysine, and hydroxyproline
Answer: b
Explanation:
collagen is a tough fibrous protein of bones, tendons, skin. it is responsible for the strength and structure of these parts of the body.
Collectively, it joins the whole body together.
If you were going to study the effects of certain fertilizer on plant growth, which list of variables would you most likely want to standardize (keep constant)?
Answer:
a) Soil type
b) Water quantity and quality
c) Intensity of light
d) Quantity and quality of fertilizer applied.
e) Environmental condition
Explanation:
Fertilizer plays an essential role is providing the essential nutrients to plants thereby boosting their growth.
Hence, in order to conduct a controlled experiment which shall monitor the impact of fertilizer on the growth of plants, all other factors which affect the growth of plants must be standardized or kept constant. These factors include -
a) Soil type
b) Water quantity and quality
c) Intensity of light
d) Quantity and quality of fertilizer applied.
e) Environmental condition
When studying the effects of fertilizer on plant growth, it is important to standardize variables such as light intensity and duration, temperature, and watering schedule to ensure accurate results.
Explanation:When studying the effects of certain fertilizer on plant growth, it is important to standardize or keep constant certain variables to ensure accurate results. These variables include:
Light intensity and duration: Plants require a certain amount of light to undergo photosynthesis. By keeping the light constant, you eliminate its impact on plant growth.Temperature: Plants have specific temperature requirements for growth. Keeping the temperature constant ensures that any observed differences in growth are due to the fertilizer and not temperature variations.Watering schedule: Consistency in watering the plants is important as water is essential for plant growth. Varying the watering schedule could introduce a confounding factor.Other factors include Quantity and quality of fertilizer applied, Environmental conditionLearn more about Standardizing Variables for Fertilizer Study here:https://brainly.com/question/32797845
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Savannas differ from grasslands by having Select one:____________.a. less annual precipitation. b. lower average annual temperature. c. no grazers. d. flat-topped trees scattered throughout.
Answer:
D. flat-topped trees scattered throughout.
Explanation:
Grasslands are vast area of land covered in grass. In such environment, grasses are favor to grow but trees shrubs and other tall plants are not favored to grow.
Savannas are also vast lands that supports the growth of grasses and trees scattered across the land.
So, in savanna there are trees scattered throughout the land and grasses, but grasslands only have grasses growing in the vast area.
What may happen when clomiphene is co-administered with methyldopa to promote ovulation?
Answer:
It may result to infertility or impaired fertility.
Explanation:
Infertility can be described to occur when after a year of consistent unprotected sexual intercourse of a couple, they are still unable achieve pregnancy. This is what likely to occur when the two drugs mentioned are administered at the same time during ovulation.
Note that, there is another thing referred to as impaired fecundity, which is when a woman is having difficulty in carrying a pregnancy up until the time of delivery, and can be a woman having difficulty in getting pregnant.
The concentration of potassium is higher in red blood cells than in the surrounding blood plasma. This higher concentration is maintained by the process of:________(1) circulation
(2) diffusion
(3) excretion
(4) active transport
Answer:
Option 4, active transport
Explanation:
In active transportation, external force is used to move any substance against the concentration gradient. .This active transportation leads to movement of potassium in into the cell where the concentration of potassium ion is already high. While the sodium starts moving out of the cell. The energy for active transport is provided by the ATP. When the level of ATP reduce, the red blood cells attain spherical shape as the water and sodium move into RBCs.
Hence, option 4 is correct
The field of conservation biology ________.tries to increase speciation events in order to increase biodiversitydeveloped in response to government interventiontries to conserve every species, everywherewas initially viewed as too measurement oriented, looking at details and not at the big pictureattempts to integrate an understanding of evolution and extinction with ecology and environmental systems
Answer:
attempts to integrate an understanding of evolution and extinction with ecology and environmental systems
Explanation:
The field of Conservation biology is based on the management of nature and of Earth's biodiversity to reduce the level of extinction and the erosion of biotic interactions
So as to protect species, it a habitats and ecosystems
Conservation biology is a field that integrates knowledge from biology, ecology, and environmental systems to understand and address threats to biodiversity, often operating at various levels from individual organisms to entire ecosystems. Strategies include data collection, establishment of preserves, and focus on biodiversity hotspots.
Explanation:The field of conservation biology is intrinsically linked with the efforts of biodiversity preservation. It is a discipline that integrates concepts from biology, ecology, and environmental systems to understand and counteract threats to biodiversity at the genetic, species, and ecosystem levels. A significant aspect of conservation biology involves generating precise data regarding population size, reproduction factors, habitat requirements, and potential external influences. In the process, conservation biologists often contribute to setting up and maintaining conservation preserves, a critical tool in biodiversity protection, despite the limitations imposed by political and economic forces.
Conservation biology also involves work at four levels: organism, population, community, and ecosystem. A big part of the work in conservation biology is keeping a balance between preservation efforts in protected areas and sustainable efforts outside those areas to ensure a symbiotic co-existence. This includes focusing on areas rich in species, also known as biodiversity hotspots, and targeting them for protection, as they often contain high amounts of endemic species. Lastly, non-profit and non-governmental organizations also play a vital role in conservation efforts across the world.
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What specific spinal nerve branch controls the movement of rectus abdominis
Answer:
The correct answer will be-ventral ramus
Explanation:
Rectus abdominis is a skeletal muscle found in the front part of the body which begins from the sternum and ends at the pubic zone.
Rectus abdominis is also known as "Abs" which viewed externally appears to be six, eight or ten in number.
These muscles are innervated by the thoracoabdominal nerves which carry and transmit signals to CNS and to the muscles back. The main spinal nerve which controls the movement of Abs is known as the "ventral ramus".
Thus, ventral ramus is the correct answer.
_____________ refers to the automatic process of noticing stimuli, and _____________ refers to the automatic process of filtering information cues A. Understanding: evaluating B. Sense-making; understanding C. Cognition; attribution D. ldentifying: validating E. Attention; perception
Answer:
E. Attention; perception
Explanation:
Attention:
Its simply refered to as the process of focusing a certain measure of cognitive resources needed to obtain the significant results from transforming inputs on sensory or mental incidents
Perception:
This are processes needed to process each daily stimuli an individual encounters. It relies on understanding several sensations by receiving and processing stimuli gotten from the environment.
Two tubes that connect to the trachea and to bronchioles are called
Two tubes that connect to the trachea and to bronchioles are called bronchi or bronchus.
What is Bronchi?The bronchi (plural) or bronchus (singular) are the large tubes that connects to the trachea or windpipe and these are responsible for directing the air we breathe to the right and left lungs. The bronchi are present in the chest. The left bronchus carries air to the left lung. Whereas, the right bronchus carries the air to right lung.
The trachea and upper bronchi contain a C-shaped cartilage, the smaller bronchi have plates of cartilage present in the particular shape. As the bronchi undergoes subdivision into smaller or sub-segmental bronchi, the amount of cartilage in the bronchi goes on decreasing, and the amount of the smooth muscle in the bronchi keeps on increasing.
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On a weather map, isobars that _____ indicate strong winds.
A. are far apart
B. are part of a loop
C. are close together
D. cross one another
Answer:
The isobars that are close to each other indicate strong winds
Explanation:
The isobars that are close to each other indicate strong winds. The gap or spacing between two adjacent isobars represent the pressure difference between them. lower the gap between then higher is the chances of pressure difference. Therefore when two isobars are very close to each other then strong wind prevail due to movement of air to fill vaccum space
On a weather map, isobars that C. are close together indicate strong winds. Therefore , C. are close together is correct .
When isobars are close together on a weather map, it indicates a steep pressure gradient.
The pressure gradient force is directly related to the spacing of isobars; the closer the isobars, the stronger the pressure gradient force.
This force influences the speed and direction of the wind.
Here's how it works:
Pressure Gradient Force:
The pressure gradient force drives air from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure.
The greater the pressure difference (indicated by closely spaced isobars), the stronger the pressure gradient force.
Wind Speed:
When isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is strong, resulting in higher wind speeds.
Air moves more rapidly from high pressure to low pressure, creating strong winds.
Wind Direction:
Wind tends to flow perpendicular to the isobars, from high pressure toward low pressure. The closer the isobars, the more directly the wind is forced across them.
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A pathogenic microorganism that is highly resistant to antibiotics, often causing deep-tissue nosocomial infections, and frequently found living in many areas of the hospital is:
Answer:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a rod like shaped bacterium, a gram negative infection invading the host cells of its host(e.g human). It leave it host restless by weakening the host defense mechanisms. This pathological condition is caused by an infection called nosocomial infections. Pseudomonas aeruginosa possess an advanced resistance mechanism hence making its treatment with antibiotics difficult.
Memory and thinking are most closely associated with which part of the central nervous system?
Answer:
Cerebrum
Explanation:
Memory is a complex process and the stored memory is the past experience of the human being. They are formed by thinking and different events done by the human.
The cerebrum of the brain involves thinking and memory. This is the largest part of the brain having different sub-parts. They are especially the hippocampus, temporal lobe, limbic system which involves different types of memory.
Cerebrum involves in hearing, speech, movement control, learning.
The limbic system is part of the cerebral cortex. It is concerned with emotion, behavior, memory.
The long term memory is dealt with by the hippocampus. This type of memory gets active when a person wants to recall something or memorize a thing for a long time.
The temporal lobe involves listening to a sound and store some short term memory. Other lobes of cerebrum involve sensory memory like vision, taste, smell, etc.
Would the amount of cytosine and guanine be equal to each other in an RNA molecule?
Answer: No
Explanation:
DNA is double standard and contains 4 bases Adenine, cytosine, guanine and thymine. Base pairing occurs in DNA. Chargaff's rule state that Adenine always pairs with thymine, and Cytosine always pairs with guanine, therefore the amount of Adenine is always equal to thymine and cytosine is always equal to quanine in a DNA molecule.
But Chargaff's rule only applies to DNA and not RNA. This is because RNA is single-stranded, and thus, base pairing is absent also RNA replaces thymine with Uracil. There's no correlation between base pair in RNA.
The answer is No.
A protein in the plasma membrane that binds to specific chemicals in the cell's external environment to regulate processes within the cell is a ________ protein.
How do lizard species on mainland california compare in diversity to those found on islands?
Answer:
Due to more open ecological opportunities on a given island, greater differences occur between island species. A single lineage diversifies rapidly, and descendant populations occupy many habitats and ecological roles.
Explanation:
A recent study revealed that the peak thickness of the cerebral cortex occurred ________ years later in children with ADHD than in children without ADHD.
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Please see the attachment
Answer:true
Explanation:
The nucleus of a cell coordinates processes and activities that take place in the cell. Which two systems perform a similar function in the human body?
Answer:
The two systems which perform similar function in the human body are;
- The Endocrine system
and
- The Nervous system
The similarity between these two is that they bring about co-ordination. They work very closely to bring about co-ordination of activities. The hypothalamus is the important link between these two systems.
PeAcE.
The nucleus is the cell organelle vital for cell functioning. The endocrine and the nervous system perform a similar function as that of the nucleus.
What are the endocrine and nervous systems?The nervous system is the body system that comprises the nerve cells, brain, and spinal cord. They perform the activities of the control and the coordination and are important for the action-reaction.
The endocrine system is the system of the glands and organs that produce and release hormones to coordinate, control, and regulate metabolism, growth, reproduction, and other functions.
Therefore, the endocrine and the nervous system is similar to the nucleus of the cell.
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Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive if the feet evert during the Overhead Squat assessment?a) Lower Trapizius b) Gracils c) Hip flexor complex d) Gluteus maximus
Answer:
Gracils
Explanation
Gracils is the least muscle used during squatting.. It is as good as not used
"The correct option is c. Hip flexor complex.
During the Overhead Squat assessment, if the feet evert, it is often indicative of an underactive hip flexor complex. This is because the hip flexors, which include the iliopsoas, rectus femoris, and sartorius, among others, play a crucial role in stabilizing the pelvis and maintaining proper alignment of the lower extremities during movements such as squats.
When the hip flexors are underactive, they may not effectively counteract the external rotation and abduction forces exerted by the gluteus medius and minimus during the squat. This can lead to the feet excessively turning outward or everting as a compensation strategy to maintain balance and stability.
Here's a breakdown of the other options and why they are less likely to be the cause of foot eversion during an Overhead Squat:
a) Lower Trapezius: The lower trapezius muscle is primarily responsible for scapular depression and upward rotation. While it does play a role in posture and scapular stability, it is not directly related to foot eversion.
b) Gracilis: The gracilis is a muscle of the medial thigh that assists in thigh adduction and medial rotation. It is not typically associated with foot eversion during a squat.
d) Gluteus Maximus: The gluteus maximus is the primary hip extensor. While weakness in the gluteus maximus can affect squat mechanics, it is more commonly associated with issues such as knee valgus (knees caving in) rather than foot eversion.
Therefore, the hip flexor complex is the most likely group of muscles to be underactive when observing foot eversion during the Overhead Squat assessment."
16. Immunity that can be acquired naturally, such as when we are exposed to a bacterial or viral infection (such as measles), or that can be acquired artificially, such as when we receive a vaccine, is known as
Answer: Adaptive immunity
Explanation:
The adaptive immunity is also known as acquired immunity. It is a sub system of the overall immunity.
It can defined as the immunity which is not present in the body when we are born. It develops in the body when it is exposed to the pathogens no matter it is natural or artificial.
The acquired immunity can develop in the body and makes the body susceptible to infections and develops prevention for the next time when the body will be exposed for the next time.