A nurse is teaching a pre-natal group about the benefits of breast-feeding. The nurse determines teaching has been effective based on which statement?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:Hello, your question is not complete. Nonetheless, check explanation section to learn one or two things so that you will have more understanding and be able to solve similar questions.

Explanation:

A prenatal class is for mostly for pregnant women, and classes are held to educate them(pregnant women) about things to expect during their pregnancy period, during labour and child birth, and during their early Parenthood which include breastfeeding.

Breastfeeding is a type of nutrition process in which infants/babies are fed with milk from the mammary gland of the mother. The milk from the mother's breast is sterile and more nutrients than any other baby foods.

Since the class is all about the BENEFITS OF BREASTFEEDING, the nurse taking the Pre-natal class will be happy that his or her class in effective if the pregnant women are able to understand the importance of breastfeeding and can answer questions relating to breastfeeding. For example, if the pregnant women understand that breastfeeding increases resistance to infections in babies.


Related Questions

Willianne is training to run in a half-marathon (13.1 miles). She has run in 5K and 10K races before, but never in a half-marathon. To prepare, Willianne has been following a training plan for the past several months. What are some of the specific effects of endurance training on carbohydrate metabolism?

Answers

Answer:

Endurance training promotes adaptations and shifts in substrate utilization and increases the maximal capacity for carbohydrate oxidation (as well as fat oxidation).

Explanation:

Endurance training reduces the reliance on carbohydrate as a source of energy during submaximal excercise. There is an increased effectiveness of insulin to stimulate glucose transport, there’s also an enhanced glucose uptake. Trained muscles are also characterized by increased concentration of glycogen, which is an important factor in the decreased rates of fatigue with prolonged exercise. As it was said, exercise training can increase insulin sensitivity and improve overall glucose homeostasis, which are important in cases of metabolic deseases.

Final answer:

Endurance training enhances glycogen storage and efficiency of use in the muscles, increasing available energy through improved carbohydrate metabolism and delaying fatigue during extended exercise such as a half-marathon.

Explanation:

Endurance training has a significant impact on carbohydrate metabolism, particularly in how the body stores and uses glycogen. During intensive training, such as preparing for a half-marathon, the muscles adapt by increasing their capacity to store glycogen. Glycogen is a form of stored glucose, derived from carbohydrates, which serves as a readily available source of energy for muscle contraction during prolonged exercise.

As the endurance athlete trains, their muscles become more efficient at utilizing glycogen, ensuring that there is a sustained release of glucose to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the biochemical way to store and use energy. This process happens through cellular respiration, a metabolic pathway that converts glucose to ATP in the presence of oxygen, which endurance athletes heavily rely on during a race. The practice of carbohydrate loading before an event further maximizes glycogen stores, making more energy available and potentially enhancing performance and delaying fatigue.

Moreover, consistent endurance training can alter fuel utilization, increasing the muscle's ability to oxidize fatty acids. This shift could spare glycogen during exercise, preventing the runner from “hitting the wall,” a state where glycogen stores are depleted, and the body has to rely on less efficient energy sources like fats. Therefore, combined with a strategic diet, endurance training profoundly affects carbohydrate metabolism.

Malnutrition includes deficiencies, imbalances, and excesses of nutrients, alone or in combination, any of which can take a toll on health over time.A. TrueB. False

Answers

Answer: True

Explanation: malnutrition is essentially the lack of nourishment. An imbalance (less or more) of one or more nutrients certainly has the capacity of causing health issues. And as such it includes deficiencies, overabundance and imbalances.

Who is the leading health education specialist? Who believes that the most fundamental outcome of health education is the enabling of individuals to achieve a level of freedom, avoiding unnecessary encumbrances to make enlightened choices?

Answers

Answer:

John Seffrin

Explanation:

John Seffrin wrote about health education as the primary tool needed in the pursuit of personal freedom. He believes what is most important when trying to achieve a level of freedom is health education. This is because he claims that it helps an individual avoid encumbrances that are irrelevant and unnecessary to help them make enlightened choices.

The philosophy that health has physical, emotional, spiritual, and social components, and that each is just as important as the others is termed___________.

Answers

Answer:

Philosophy of Symmetry

Explanation:

In the philosophy of health, we have the philosophy of symmetry, wellness philosophy, and the holistic philosophy. From the philosophy of symmetry point of view, health has "physical, emotional, spiritual, and social component". with all of them being equally important and should always be kept in a balance. The wellness philosophy has 6 dimensions and the holistic philosophy, with environmental and intellectual joining the list of philosophy of symmetry.

Answer:

Wellness

Explanation:

This is a state of complete physical, mental and social-welbeing but not necessarily absence of disease.

A client diagnosed with cancer has met with the oncologist and is now weighing whether to undergo chemotherapy or radiation for treatment. This client is demonstrating which ethical principle in making this decision?
a) Autonomy.
b) Justice.
c) Beneficence.
d) Confidentiality.

Answers

Answer: Autonomy

Explanation:

Autonomy is the capacity to make uncoerced decisions. That is, making an independent decision out of one's free will rather than being forced.

Personal autonomy as being demonstrated by this client is the capacity for one to decide and pursue a course of action in one's life by oneself.

Which statement is TRUE regarding Healthy People 2020?
a) It is revised frequently by the USDA.
b) It explains the 5 food groups.
c) It is revised every 20 years by the DHHS.
d) It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education.

Answers

Final answer:

The true statement about Healthy People 2020 is that it aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. It is developed by the DHHS, not the USDA, and targets all aspects of health.

Explanation:

The statement that is TRUE regarding Healthy People 2020 is: d) It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. Healthy People 2020 is a program developed by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) in the United States with the goal of improving the nation's health.

This initiative sets out a comprehensive set of 10-year national goals and objectives for improving the health of all Americans. While it is reviewed and evaluated every decade by the DHHS, it does not fall within the purview of the USDA, and it goes beyond dietary guidelines like the 5 food groups to encompass all aspects of health, with a particular focus on eliminating disparities and enhancing access to health education.

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Final answer:

The true statement about Healthy People 2020 is that it aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. It's an initiative revised every ten years by the DHHS that focuses on promoting health equality and enhancing health knowledge access, instead on explaining the five food groups.

Explanation:

The correct statement regarding Healthy People 2020 is: It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education.

Healthy People 2020 is an initiative by the U.S Department of Health & Human Services (DHHS). This organization revisits and updates its objectives every ten years, not every 20 years as stated in the question. Healthy People 2020 does not directly deal with providing explanations of the five food groups; such guidelines' framing lies more with the USDA. Its primary focus is on promoting health equity and enhancing the health knowledge and education access across the American population to improve nationwide health outcomes.

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Reggie takes a look at the time between antibiotic order and administration in the other ICUs in his hospital. He discovers that most of the ICUs have the same problem. This is an example of which of the following actions of leaders discussed in this lesson?

Answers

Answer:

Forming a clearer picture of the problem .

Explanation:

The intensive care unit (ICU) is the special health care department that provide special care to the patient. The ICU involves the proper sterile condition to the patient.

The ICU have some problem that are common to almost all the ICU. The Reggie example illustrates that clear picture of the problem faced by the ICU. The Reggie has the leadership quality and in the high position to take legal action against the hospital leadership.  

Thus, the correct answer is forming a clearer picture of the problem .

According to the Employee Benefit Research Institute (EBRI), in 2013 ________ percent of employers with 50 or more employees offered at least one health promotion activity.

Answers

Answer:

80 percent of employees with 50 or more employees offered at least one health promotion activity.

Explanation:

EBRI is a non-partisan and non-profit research institute in Washington D.C. It produces research data on different public economics and health issues such as savings, retirement, economic security, health insurance coverage etc. It provides authentic research-based data to address the physical health and financial well-being graphs of the United States population specially the retired citizens.

Answer: 80 percent of employees with 50 or more employees offered at least one health promotion activity.

Explanation:

Choosing healthy portion sizes is easier if you equate the portion to an easily recognizable, everyday item. Complete the following sentences.1. A fruit serving is 1 cup of fresh fruit, 1 cup of 100% fruit juice, or one-half cup of dried fruit. A small or medium fruit is about the size of a _____2. Three ounces of meat is equivalent to the size of a _____3. One cup of ready-to-eat breakfast cereal is roughly the size of a _____.4. Two tablespoons of salad dressing, peanut butter, or margarine is the same size as a _____.

Answers

Final answer:

A fruit serving is about the size of a tennis ball, three ounces of meat is equivalent to the size of a deck of cards, one cup of ready-to-eat breakfast cereal is roughly the size of a baseball, and two tablespoons of salad dressing, peanut butter, or margarine is the same size as a ping-pong ball.

Explanation:

1. A small or medium fruit is about the size of a tennis ball.

2. Three ounces of meat is equivalent to the size of a deck of cards.

3. One cup of ready-to-eat breakfast cereal is roughly the size of a baseball.

4. Two tablespoons of salad dressing, peanut butter, or margarine is the same size as a ping-pong ball.

Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg body weight at 14 months than she did at 11 months. This change in appetite probably indicates that she is:

Answers

Here is the complete question

Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg body weight at 14 months than she did at 11 months. This change in appetite probably indicates that she is:

a.ill and needs medical attention.

b.not as physically active now as when she was 11 months old.

c.in a less rapid stage of growth now.

d.becoming malnourished.

Answer:

in a less rapid stage of growth now

Explanation:

The calorie is a unit of energy that is ubiquitously used in nutrition. A measure of how much energy a food contains is dependent on the number of calories in the food. Estimation by researchers have proven and shown that a gram of carbohydrates has 4 calories, a gram of protein has 4 calories and a gram of fat has 9 calories and Compilation of these three are essential for body body build up.

If Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg, the body weight at 14 months will be less rapid than she did at 11 months, it is likely acceptable to justify there is a  less rapid stage of growth now in Nancy after consuming fewer amount of calories in subsequent months than earlier.

Which drug can be used to treat three types of seizures (tonic-clonic seizures, complex partial seizures) and status epilepticus?

Answers

Answer:

Lamotrigine

Explanation:

Lamotrigine is an adjunctive therapy for the treatment of partial seizures, primary generalized tonic–clonic seizures, and generalized seizures of Lennox–Gastaut syndrome in patients two years of age and above.

A nurse is discussing the role of vitamin D in calcium regulation with a nursing student. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching?A. "Adequate amounts of vitamin D occur naturally in the diet." B. "Vitamin D3 is preferred over vitamin D2."C. "Vitamin D can promote bone decalcification."D. "Vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the intestine."

Answers

Answer:

Adequate amounts of vitamin D occur naturally in the diet.

Explanation:

The vitamins are the chemicals that are required in the diet in the small amounts. The deficiency and its excessive presence in the body can cause the disease in the individual.

Two main types of vitamin are fat soluble vitamins and water soluble vitamins. The vitamin D is the fat soluble vitamin and its deficiency can cause rickets. These vitamins must be obtained from the external source and not present naturally in the diet.

Thus, the correct answer is option (A).

A chef sees unused ingredients in the refrigerator so wants to design adapt a recipe to a recipe he can make with the ingredients he has. What steps will he take to determine the number of portions he can make if he cannot make a full recipe?

Answers

Final answer:

To determine the number of portions a chef can make with unused ingredients, they need to identify the required amounts, compare them to the available amounts, and calculate the limiting ingredient.

Explanation:

When a chef wants to adapt a recipe based on the ingredients they have, they need to determine the number of portions they can make. Here are the steps they can take:

Identify the total amount of each ingredient required for the recipe.

Weigh or measure the corresponding ingredients they have in their refrigerator.

Calculate the ratio between the required amount and the available amount for each ingredient.

Find the lowest ratio amongst all the ingredients. This will be the limiting ingredient.

Divide the available amount of the limiting ingredient by its ratio to determine the number of portions they can make.

By following these steps, the chef will be able to determine the number of portions they can make when they don't have enough ingredients to make a full recipe.

"The epiphyseal line is the bone marking that results when the growth plate becomes calcified or 'closed.' The line is slightly raised and rougher than the surrounding bone." Based on this passage and your knowledge of bone growth, which of the following describes how the epiphyseal plate is replaced by the epiphyseal line?

a. Osteoclasts break down the cartilage within the epiphyseal line.
b. Osteocytes communicate to the body replace the bone with cartilage.
c. Osteoblasts build the bone needed within the epiphyseal line.
d. Osteocytes maintain the osteoclasts needed to build the bone.

Answers

Answer:

c. Osteoblasts build the bone needed within the epiphyseal line

Explanation:

At epiphyseal plate , bone grows in length . Cartilage present in epiphyseal plate continues to grow by the process of mitosis.Osteoblasts are the bone forming cells which move in and ossify the matrix to form the bone. The chondrocytes begin to degenerate then and the large epiphyseal plate is replaced by a thin epiphyseal line.

Final answer:

The epiphyseal plate is replaced by the epiphyseal line due to the action of the osteoblasts that build new bone tissue, thereby calcifying the growth plate and forming the epiphyseal line.

Explanation:

The epiphyseal plate is a cartilaginous layer within the long bone where growth occurs. It is gradually replaced by the epiphyseal line as a person reaches adolescence or adult maturity. This happens due to the process of bone growth and remodeling, where osteoblasts build new bone tissue that replaces the cartilage in the epiphyseal plate.

This growth plate calcifies, or hardens, thereby halting bone growth and forming the slightly raised, rough line known as the epiphyseal line. Therefore, the best description would be option 'c': Osteoblasts build the bone needed within the epiphyseal line.

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Which entity was charged with providing leadership for the development and nationwide implementation of an interoperable health information technology infrastructure?a. ONCb. CMSC. IOMd. None of the above

Answers

Answer:

Answer is ONC.

Explanation:

The full meaning of ONC is Office of the National Coordinator For Health Information Technology.

The role of this office the promotion of health information technology through out the United States, also monitoring its development.

They are the office to see into the provision of  the electronic health records which will help to prevent or stop medical error and eventually stop the use of paper records.

A woman has been treated for a tumor of the left breast that has not responded to chemotherapy. The woman has just found out that she has the BRCA mutations and discusses her options with her primary care provider. Which treatment would be most difficult for this woman?

Answers

Answer:

Chemotherapy

Explanation:

In which of the following phases of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model can the TRX Suspension push-up be effectively integrated?

Answers

Answer:

Which activity is an example of binging?

consuming a lot of food in one day

reading a couple chapters of a book every day

watching an episode of the same show every day

drinking a cup of coffee each morning

Explanation:

Describe some negative effects of competitive stress and explain how to manage it in a positive manner

Answers

Answer:

Any of the usual symptoms associated with stress (nervousness, high blood pressure, more susceptible to colds); relaxation and a positive attitude are important.

Explanation:

Competitive stress as defined by a psychologist is an "Feeling of difference between the demands placed on a athlete by the people around the athlete and the athlete's reaction capability and and resource for getting those expectation."Like any type of stress competitive stress has it's negative effects as well .An athlete might get nervous,might receive unnecessary pressure and even might loose confidence.It can be managed by keeping a positive attitude ,relaxing oneself and by not putting to much stress on oneself.

Miralee needs a new toothbrush. She wants a toothbrush that gently massages her gums. There is a new electric toothbrush on the market that is all the rage right now. A famous actor endorses it, and everyone has been talking about it. There is also another regular toothbrush that has extremely soft bristles. While both are in the same price range, the regular toothbrush has softer bristles that will take care of her sensitive gums. In addition, the handle is sturdy and has a solid rubber grip. There is no celebrity endorsing this toothbrush, though.

Which criteria should Miralee use for her selection? Check all that apply.

that the toothbrush is safe to use
that the toothbrush is of superior quality
that the toothbrush massages gums
that the toothbrush is endorsed by a celebrity
that the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association

ANSWER:
- that the toothbrush is safe to use.
- that the toothbrush is of superior quality.
- that the toothbrush massages gums.
- that the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association.

Answers

The answer to the given question about the use of toothbrush by Miralee is explained below.

Explanation:

As Miralee has some gum problem and she wants a new toothbrush that can help her massage her gums and sooth them, so she should select the toothbrush on the basis of what comfort or advantage she is seeking in it.

So Miralee should go for the following selection:

the toothbrush is safe to use. the toothbrush is of superior quality. the toothbrush massages gums. the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association.

She should not go for a toothbrush just because it is endorsed by a famous celebrity, rather she should choose the brush according to her needs.

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Answer:

the toothbrush is safe to use.

the toothbrush is of superior quality.

the toothbrush massages gums.

the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association

Explanation:

A study by Walline et al., (2009) randomly assigned one group of children to wear contact lenses and another group to wear glasses to correct myopia. Did the results of the study indicate any differences between the two groups?

Answers

Final answer:

The study by Walline et al. (2009) did not indicate any significant differences between the group of children wearing contact lenses and the group wearing glasses to correct myopia. Both methods showed similar outcomes in terms of visual acuity, comfort, and satisfaction.

Explanation:

The study by Walline et al. (2009) aimed to compare the outcomes of wearing contact lenses versus glasses to correct myopia in children. The researchers randomly assigned one group of children to wear contact lenses and another group to wear glasses. The results of the study showed that there were no significant differences between the two groups in terms of visual acuity, comfort, or overall satisfaction with the vision correction methods.

On the bus on the way to school, Angelique’s friend Jack shows her his new ear piercing. When she asks him where he had it done, he says his friend Georgia did it for him at her house. Jack says she did piercings on a few of their friends over the weekend using a safety pin. What are the possible negative outcomes from Jack’s decisions? Check all that apply. tetanus nerve damage hearing loss allergic reaction hepatitis

ANSWER:
- tetanus
- nerve damage
- allergic reaction
- hepatitis

Answers

Answer:

All the answers except hearing loss.

Explanation:

your welcome

Ear and nose piercing is done on the body parts using a pointed needle-like object and jewellery is inserted in the place.

The possible negative outcomes from Jack’s decisions are:

Option 1: Tetanus

Option 2: Nerve damage

Option 4: Allergic reaction

Option 5: Hepatitis

This can be explained as:

Tetanus is a bacterial illness that concerns the jaw muscles and seals them. It can be caused by punctured areas.

Nerves lying below skin surfaces can get injured due to sharp objects.

An allergic reaction can occur due to unsafe needle piercing as they can have bacteria and other microbes on them.

Hepatitis or liver damage can happen due to the use of the same unhygienic needle.

Therefore, except hearing loss all are possible outcomes.

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During a marriage counseling session, the therapist suggests to Mr. and Mrs. Gallo that they each restate their spouses comments before making their own. The therapist was applying a technique most closely associated with _________.A. EMDRB. psychoanalysisC. cognitive-behavioral therapyD. systematic desensitizationE. client-centered therapy

Answers

Final answer:

The technique of having Mr. and Mrs. Gallo each restate their spouse's comments is closely associated with client-centered therapy. This approach encourages active listening, reduces misunderstandings and promotes understanding between the partners.

Explanation:

During a marriage counseling session, the therapist suggested that Mr. and Mrs. Gallo each restate their spouse's comments before making their own. This strategy of active listening is most closely associated with client-centered therapy.

Client-centered therapy was developed by Carl Rogers, and is based on the belief that clients have an innate capacity for personal growth and healing. In this framework, the therapist acts as a supportive facilitator, rather than an authority figure, aiding the client's exploration of their feelings, thoughts and behaviors.

In the context of marriage counseling, having each spouse restate the other's comments encourages empathetic listening, reduces misunderstandings, and validates each person's perspective.

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Final answer:

The technique of restating comments before making one's own, as suggested by a therapist to Mr. and Mrs. Gallo, is most closely associated with client-centered therapy, specifically active listening developed by Carl Rogers. This approach maintains emphasis on acknowledging, restating, and clarifying what clients express.

Explanation:

During a marriage counseling session, the therapist asked Mr. and Mrs. Gallo to each restate their spouses comments before making their own. This technique is most closely associated with client-centered therapy, specifically active listening. This therapeutic approach, developed by Carl Rogers, involves the therapist acknowledging, restating, and clarifying what the client expresses, and emphasizes unconditional positive regard and self-acceptance.

Cognitive-behavioral therapy is also often used in couples therapy, focusing on current conflicts and issues rather than past experiences or childhood traumas. The goal is to understand how individual behaviors, beliefs, and backgrounds are impacting the relationship. However, in this case, the technique of restating the partner's comments is clearly related to client-centered therapy.

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Litigation resulting from improper restraint use is a common nursing legal issue. A nursing student is listing points related to the use of restraints. Which factor needs correction?1. Restraints can be used when less restrictive interventions are not successful.2. Restraints can be used when all other alternatives have been tried and exhausted.3. Restraints can be used only to ensure the physical safety of the resident or other residents.4. Restraints can be used anytime without a written order from the healthcare provider.

Answers

Answer:

Litigation may be defined as the process of setting any problem or dispute in the court. The litigation must be follow in the health and medicine as well for the proper justice with people.

The restraints is used in the case when no positive response is obtained even after complaining. If the other alternatives are not in use then the restraint is important. The restraints always require the written order that can be given to the health care provider.

Thus, the correct answer is option (4).

The health care team determines that the family of an infant with failure to thrive who is to be discharged will need follow-up care. Which approach would be the most effective method of follow-up?

Answers

Answer:

a weekly visit schedule by a community health Nurse

Explanation:

The infant-mother interaction monitoring is very paramount after discharge,

The  need to monitor and evaluate progression in the infant weight gain is another  important   target of the follow up.

Therefore the   community health nurse needs scheduled weekly visit to  the child;s  home environment to meet up with the two above  essential duties, to provide support, care,  education and proffer solutions to  some healthcare challenges that may arise  with  mother and the child in their permanent natural environment.

While the government cannot guarantee health and safety for each individual, its role is to provide for maximum health and safety for the community as a whole.A) True B) False

Answers

Answer:

(A). True.

Explanation:

'The government cannot guarantee health and safety for each individual, its role is to provide for maximum health and safety for the community as a whole'.

The above statement is true, the government by protecting public health, financing public health sector, improving health policies.

The government through the executive arm of the government appoint people, for example, ministerial appointment to the health ministry, the people appointed will have to work in order to improve the health sector.

The Government also,during planning of national budget, the government release money into the health sector for its improvement.

This improvements in health sector is for the provision for maximum health and safety for the community as a whole.

A client in labor has been given an epidural anesthetic. Which nursing assessment finding is most important immediately following the administration of epidural anesthesia?

Answers

Answer:

c) Maternal pulse increases from 78 to 96 beats/minute.

True or False? Advertising over-the-counter drugs relays the message that if you are experiencing some symptoms, taking drugs is an acceptable option.

Answers

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

This is because taking the drug that they are advertising implies that you can solve whatever problems or complications you are having and you wont need to see a specialist who basically robs you of your money and livelihood due to your income.

Column A Column B Column C Column D textbooks gas money doctor's office co-pay movie tickets tuition parking pass medicine prescription television on-campus food plan car repair insurance payment online game subscription Which column of expenses can be most easily eliminated if income decreases? Column A Column B Column C Column D

Answers

Answer:

Column D

movie tickets

television

online game subscription

Answer: The best answer for this is D. I just took the test

Explanation:

Indirect standardization should be used if age-specific death rates of the population for standardization are unknown or unstable. True or false?

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

In a given population system whereby the age-specific mortality rates can be estimated or determined, the best standardization method is the direct method. However, if the age-specific mortality rates of the given population system cannot be determined or estimated, the indirect standardization method should be applied.

An optimum number of overlearning opportunities is approximately _____% of the number of trials required for acquisition of the behavior. a. 50% b. 25% c. 33% d. 75%

Answers

Answer:

a. 50%

Explanation:

Overlearning is a condition in which an individual undergoes repeated practice after which the main objective of the practice has already be achieved. The probability of  acquistion of the behavior in the practice is either the individual was successful after  learning it once again or not successful . In both cases, the number of the required outcome is 1 and the number of all possible outcome is 2.

∴ The sample space can  be given as:

Sample Space (S) = [tex]\frac{number of required outcome}{total number of possible outcome}[/tex]

Sample Space (S)  = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

                               = 0.5;  (in percentage, we have)

                              = 50%

Final answer:

In educational psychology, the recommended optimum number of overlearning opportunities is around 50% of the required trials for initial behavior acquisition. Thus,option A is correct.

Explanation:

An optimum number of overlearning opportunities is a concept in educational psychology that refers to the amount of additional practice beyond initial mastery needed to consolidate learning. The commonly recommended amount is approximately 50% of the number of trials required for acquisition of the behavior. This practice ensures that the learned behavior is solidified and can be recalled more easily in the future.

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One of two or more Expressions that are multiplied together to get a product Are 82 and 28 equivalent ____________________ is a pathological form of grieving that tends to last longer than normal grieving and is accompanied by impaired social interaction. When the procedure calls for making a more dilute solution of an acid, or mixing an acid with other solutions, what is the correct order of steps? x/3 = 14 whats the answer Why was Indiana named Indiana Rayman Automobiles, an automobile manufacturing company, was founded in 1912. The company primarily focused on creating greater efficiencies by refining its processes and creating specialized jobs. This allowed the company to increase its output and lower the prices of its products. As a result, automobiles became an affordable commodity. In the context of the history of American business, Rayman Automobiles was most likely founded during the _____. For each of the statements below, decide which of the Maxwell equations (forstaticsituations) tells you that the statement is true. Briefly, justify your answers.(a) There are no magnetic monopoles.(b) There must be a scalar potential.(c) There must be a vector potential.(d) Charges create electric fields.2. Pacho starts saving for college by opening a savings account and depositing $50. He plans to make a deposit every month to continue saving. The amount of money in Pacho's savings account can be modeled by the sequence A0=50, An=An1 +25, where n is the number of months since his initial deposit. Is the sequence An a function? Why or why not? The first term in an arithmetic sequence is 1 , and the second term is 2. The difference between each pair of consecutive terms in the sequence is 1 2/5.A) True B) False The ______ movement was a direct result of the work done by Dorthea Dix, who felt that merely treating people well was sufficient to treat mental illness. Density is an intensive physical property that relates the mass of an object to its volume. Density, which is simply the mass of an object divided by its volume, is expressed in the SI derived unit g/mLg/mL for a liquid or g/cm3g/cm3 for a solid. Most substances expand or contract when heated or cooled, so the density values for a substance are temperature dependent. A particular brand of gasoline has a density of 0.737 g/mL at 25 ?C. How many grams of this gasoline would fill a 14.6gal tank? Global winds are found in each convection region. Because convection cells are in a set place in the atmosphere and the Earth is spinning on its axis, the winds appear to curve. The apparent curving of the winds is called _______. The health of the bear population in a park is monitored by periodic measurements taken from anesthetized bears. A sample of the weights of such bears is given below. Find a 95% confidence interval estimate of the mean of the population of all such bear weights. The Loann Le Milling Company is going to purchase a new piece of testing equipment for $28,000 and a new machine for $53,000. The equipment falls in the three-year property class, and the machine is in the five-year class. What annual depreciation will the company be able to take on the two assets? A falsely elevated hematocrit is obtained using a defective centrifuge. Which of the following calculated values will not be affected? A woman is in her early second trimester of pregnancy. The nurse would instruct the woman to return for a follow-up visit every:1 week2 weeks3 weeks4 weeks A person's website specializes in the sale of rare or unusual vegetable seeds. He sells packets of sweet-pepper seeds for $2.16 each and packets of hot-pepper seeds for $4.40 each. He also offers a 16-packet mixed pepper assortment combining packets of both types of seeds at $2.44 per packet. How many packets of each type of seed are in the assortment? Selena's snow cone stand sells small snow cones for $2 and large snow cones for $3.50. One summer day, she sold $163 worth of snow cones. If the number of large snow cones was 12 more than the number of smalls, how many of each size did she sell? The parent of a 3-month-old infant is concerned because the infant does not yet sit by oneself. Which statement best reflects average sitting ability? Steam Workshop Downloader