Answer:
Answer is D "Genes for the two traits are located close together on the same chromosome, and crossing over occurred between the two gene loci"
Explanation:
Traits are distinguishing characteristics of an organism. The Phenotypic crossing of the Drosophila melanogaster specie with Gray body and long wings over that of the same specie but female with black body and apterous wings produced a total of 100 offspring, which showed a that genetic crossing were done on the closely related chromosomes of the body traits for the individual species.
What source of fuel is used by the body during long periods of low-intensity exercise, such as a day-long hike?
Answer:
The fatty acids stored in the adipose tissues.
Explanation:
The adipose tissues are connective tissues that consist fat cells known as the adipocytes.
They are found all around the body. Those that are found under the skin are subcutaneous fat, while those that are found in the abdominal cavity, around the internal organs are visceral fats.
The adipose tissues store energy in form of fat, and insulate the body.
During low-intensity exercises like a day-long hike, the body uses fatty acids as the primary energy source through aerobic metabolism, with a small amount of glucose, until glycogen stores are depleted and fatigue sets in.
During long periods of low-intensity exercise, such as a day-long hike, the body primarily uses aerobic metabolism to produce ATP, which is the immediate fuel source for cellular activities.
The primary energy source during these activities is fatty acids, which are abundant in the body's reserves, allowing for sustained energy production over a long duration. Alongside fatty acids, the body also uses a small amount of glucose, which is derived from glycogen stores. However, unlike fat reserves, glycogen stores can become depleted, leading to fatigue.
From a physiological standpoint, the best breathing technique requires the lifter to inhale when lowering the weight and exhale when lifting the weight.
A) True
B) False
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Respiration may be defined as the process of exchange of the oxygen and carbon dioxide between the body and the environment. The gaseous exchange depends on the partial pressure of the gases.
Different breathing techniques are used by the sportsman according to their exercise. The best breathing technique that are used by the lifters is the inhalation of the oxygen when lowers the weight. The air must be breathe out when lift the weight.
Thus, the answer is true.
When gene duplication occurs to its ultimate extent by doubling all genes in a genome
The gene duplication occurs to its ultimate extent by doubling all genes in a genome during mitosis.
Explanation:
Mitosis is a process by which an Eukaryotic organism divides its cells into two cell keeping all the genetic setup and the genetic configurations same. During mitosis, at first, during the G0 phase of mitosis, the cell prepares itself for mitosis, where it duplicates its DNA and some of the other proteins required during cell division.
During the mitosis these DNAs concentrate as different chromosomes and are separated and pulled apart into two different poles by spindle fibers and two new cells are eventually formed. Thus, during mitosis, cells produce ultimate gene duplication.
A sperm cell's acrosome ______.
A) contains the sperm's mitochondria
B) fuses with the plasma membrane of the egg cell
C) contains enzymes that are released when the sperm encounters an egg and dissolves a hole in the jellylike matrix that surrounds the egg
D) contains the sperm's nucleus and is the part of the sperm that enters the egg during fertilization
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Sperm cells do a great and tasking job in their quest for egg fertilization. First, they have to find an egg to fertilize by swimming a long distance, as not all released sperm finds an egg. The few that finds an egg still have to cross the egg's protective coat and fuse their own membrane with the plasma membrane of the the egg. This process of crossing the egg's barrier is referred to as ACROSOME reaction.
The acrosome is a lysosome-like vesicle located in between the sperm's plasma membrane and nuclear membrane (nucleus) derived from the golgi complex of the spermatid. It is closer to the plasma membrane at the tip of the sperm's head. The vesicle contains soluble proteolytic enzymes such as acrosin and inner membrane proteins such as bindin.
The acrosome reaction is the exocytosis of the acrosome, or the fusion of the acrosomal membrane with the sperm's plasma membrane. The process releases the acrosomal contents (lytic enzymes) to the outside of the sperm.
When the acrosome's proteolytic enzymes are released, they begin to degrade the egg's protein-rich protective coat. The egg's plasma membrane is surrounded by a thick ZONA PELLUCIDA layer made of extracellular matrix and a jelly-like cumulus layer surrounding it. This degradation creates a path for the sperm to swim through on its way to the egg's plasma membrane. This enables the plasma membranes of the egg and sperm to fuse placing both haploid nuclei (one from the sperm, the other from the egg) into the same cell, where they form the diploid genome of the new organism.
If a double-stranded DNA molecule is like a twisted rope ladder with handrails and steps, what would the steps in the ladder represent?A. phosphate groupsB. nitrogenous basesC. DNA polymeraseD. sugar (deoxyribose) molecules
Final answer:
In the twisted ladder model of DNA, the steps or rungs represent the nitrogenous bases—adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine—which pair together to form the structure of the DNA ladder.
Explanation:
If we liken a double-stranded DNA molecule to a twisted rope ladder, the steps in the ladder represent the nitrogenous bases. More specifically, these bases are adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). In the DNA structure, adenine always pairs with thymine and guanine with cytosine. These pairings create the rungs of the ladder.
It is essential to note the ladder's rails are the sugar-phosphate backbone, which consists of alternating sugar (deoxyribose) and phosphate groups. On each side of the ladder, a strand of this backbone runs in opposite directions (antiparallel) which is crucial for the function and replication of DNA.
The codon AUG specifies the amino acid methionine. What would the tRNA anitcodon be that recognizes this codon?
Answer:
UAC
Explanation:
This example portrays that translation, which is the second process of protein synthesis, is about to occur. Translation cannot occur without a special type of RNA called tRNA or transfer RNA.
A tRNA contains a set of three nucleotides called ANTICODON. The tRNA matches an mRNA codon with the amino acid it encodes. The tRNA initially binds to the mRNA and reads the mRNA codon using its anticodon (which is complementary to the mRNA's codon). The actual reading is done by matching the base pairs through hydrogen bonding following the base pairing rule i.e. A-U, G-C. After reading the mRNA codon using its anticodon, it then carries the specific amino acid encoded by that codon it binds to, in order to add to the growing polypeptide chain.
For example, a codon AUG (start codon that signals beginning of translation) will be read by tRNA anticodon, UAC. Since the codon AUG codes for amino acid, Methionine. The tRNA then carries Methionine via its amino acid attachment site and adds to the polypeptide chain (future protein).
The modern approach to classification, with the broader goal of reconstructing the evolutionary history, or phylogeny, of organisms is:
systematics.
morphology.
biodiversity.
biology.
systematics.
Answer:
systematics is the correct answer.
Explanation:
The modern approach to classification, with the broader goal of reconstructing the evolutionary history, or phylogeny, of organisms is: systematics.Systematics plays an important role in the field of biology.Carl Linnæus is the father of Systematics.Systematics refers to the study of the diversification,nomenclature, and classification of the living organism in the past and also in present.Systematics is used to understand the evolutionary relationship and the purpose of systematics is to describe and explain biological variety.The main objective of systematics is to identify species and to give scientific names to organisms, it used to determine the arrangement of the living organism and to study the evolutionary history of organisms.Create an explicit equation for each recursively-defined sequence below.
t(1)= 3, t(n + 1) = 5 × t(n)
Answer:
t(n) = 3·5^(n-1)
Explanation:
The recursive formula describes a sequence in which each term is 5 times the one before it. This is a geometric sequence with common ratio 5 and a first term that is said to be 3.
As you know, the generic formula for a geometric sequence is ...
an = a1·r^(n-1)
For a1 = 3, r = 5, and a sequence named "t", this is ...
t(n) = 3·5^(n-1)
Answer:
t(n) = 3·5^(n-1)
Explanation:
im guessing this may not be right...
Gibbons are small apes that live in the trees of southeast Asia. A scientist predicts that at the current rate of deforestation in southeast Asia, the region's carrying capacity for gibbons will decrease by 10 percent every year. The scientist's prediction provides the strongest support for which of these conclusions? A. The gibbon population will decrease by 5 percent every year until reaching a certain minimum size, which it will maintain. B. The gibbon population will decrease by 10 percent every year until reaching a certain minimum size, which it will maintain. C. Gibbons will maintain their current population size as they adapt to new environments. D. Gibbons will eventually become extinct in the wild.
The scientist's prediction that Southeast Asia's carrying capacity for gibbons will decrease by 10 percent due to deforestation supports the conclusion that the gibbon population will also decrease by 10 percent yearly until stabilized at a minimum size (which corresponds to option B).
A scientist predicts that due to ongoing deforestation in Southeast Asia, the carrying capacity for gibbons will decrease by 10 percent every year. This prediction strongest supports the conclusion that the gibbon population will decrease by 10 percent every year until it reaches a minimum size, which it will then maintain (which corresponds to option B). This conclusion assumes that the gibbons' population size is directly correlated with the carrying capacity of the environment, which in this case is decreasing due to deforestation. As the carrying capacity shrinks, the number of gibbons that the region can sustain also goes down, potentially leading to a continuous decline in population until a new equilibrium with the reduced carrying capacity is found.
When people receive organ transplants, they often need to take medications that decrease immune responses because:________
(1) transplanted organs contain antigens that can trigger white blood cell activity
(2) hormones present in replacement organs prevent the synthesis of antibiotics
(3) transplanted organs produce their own antibiotics
(4) antigens present in these organs attack antibodies already present in the blood
Answer:
Option 1
Explanation:
The organ transplanted is a foreign element for the body and the medication prescribed after transplantation surgery prevents this organ from the attack of immune system of the body.
Since the immune system is in habit of attacking all foreign agents, it poses highest risk in transplantation surgery and hence effective medication can prevent the organ form being rejected.
In general, immuno-suppressant or anti-rejection drugs are given to the patient. Along with anti-rejection drug some additional drugs are given to eradicate the side effects of anti-rejection drugs.
Hence, option 1 is correct
_____ is produced by the liver and released by the gallbladder. This _____ allows fat droplets to mix with water-based fat-digesting enzymes in the small intestine.
Answer:
Bile juice.
Explanation:
Digestion is the process of the breakdown of the large food molecules into the simpler substances. Digestive enzymes and digestive juices also plays an important role in digestion process.
Bile juice contains no enzyme and has salts that helps in the emulsification of fat. Bile is produced by the liver and it neutralize the acidic environment of the intestine. The fats gets broken down into the simpler substances by the action of the bile juice.
Thus, the answer is bile juice.
Bile is produced by the liver and released by the gallbladder. This bile allows fat droplets to mix with water-based fat-digesting enzymes in the small intestine.
Bile is produced by the liver and released by the gallbladder.
This bile allows fat droplets to mix with water-based fat-digesting enzymes in the small intestine.
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During the process of _____, the cell's nucleus—including the chromosomes—duplicates itself and the cell divides resulting in the formation of two cells.
During the process of mitosis, the cell's nucleus—including the chromosomes- duplicates itself and the cell divides resulting in the formation of two cells.
MITOSIS:
Mitosis is a kind of cell division in which two daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell is produced. In mitosis, the daughter cells produced are genetically identical to the parent cell. Mitosis is the process that enables new cells to be formed from existing ones in an organism. During the mitotic process, the cell's nucleus- including the chromosomes initially duplicates itself and the cell divides resulting in the formation of two cells.Learn more at: https://brainly.com/question/3327479?referrer=searchResults
which of the following observations or statements represents the e in gems diamond?
A)The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater.
B)The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.
C)Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect.
D)A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. "The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater".
Explanation:
The GEMS Diamond is a four letter key that helps physicians to remember four important points for geriatric care. The "E" in the GEMS Diamond comes from Environmental Assessment. This refers that the physician must look at the patient’s home or surroundings to avoid any external element that could represent a harm for the patients health. One example could be that the patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. In this case the heater must be repaired or the patient must be relocated to avoid any health complication resulted from an exposure to a cold environment.
Imagine that you've discovered a regulatory sequence thousands of base pairs away from the promoter and that when this sequence is lost due to mutation, levels of gene expression decrease sharply. This sequence is most likely ______.
A. A silencerB. An enhancerC. A promoter-proximal elementD. A promoter
Answer:
An Enhancer
Explanation:
Enhancers are the regulatory sequences and are generally located 80-160 base pairs upstream of the transcription start site. Enhancers have bidirectional elements that are involved in the initiation of transcription. Enhancers serve as the binding sites for activators to increase the concentration of activators in the vicinity of the promoter and thereby increase the rate of transcription of the gene.
According to the given information, the loss of a regulatory sequence led to a reduced level of transcription of the gene. This means that the regulatory sequence was involved in the upregulation of transcription. The presence of the sequence far away from the promoter makes it an enhancer.
A new kind of tulip is produced that develops only purple or pink flowers. Assume that flower color is controlled by a single-gene locus, and that the purple allele (C) is dominant to the pink allele (c). A random sample of 1000 tulips from a large cultivated field yields 847 purple flowers, and 153 pink flowers.
a. Determine the frequency of the purple and pink alleles in this field population.
b. Estimate the proportion of all purple flowering plants that are heterozygotes and homozygotes.
a. purple allele (C) = 0.609, pink allele (c) = 0.391
b. purple homozygotes = 371, pink homozygotes = 153, heterozygotes = 476
Answer:
a. purple allele (C) = 0.609, pink allele (c) = 0.391
b. purple homozygotes = 371, pink homozygotes = 153, heterozygotes = 476
Explanation:
Given -
Purple flowers - 847
Pink flowers - 153
The frequency of recessive genotype i.e
[tex]q^ 2 = \frac{153}{1000} \\q^ 2 = 0.153\\[/tex]
Frequency of recessive allele i.e q is equal to
[tex]q = \sqrt{0.153} \\q = 0.391[/tex]
As per hardy Weinberg's first equilibrium equation -
[tex]p + q = 1\\p = 1-q\\p = 1-0.391\\p = 0.609[/tex]
Frequency of purple homozygous species
[tex]= p^2\\= 0.609^2\\= 0.371[/tex]
Number of purple homozygous species [tex]= 0.371 * 1000= 371[/tex]
Number of pink homozygous species [tex]= 0.153 * 1000= 153[/tex]
Heterozygous species is equal to
[tex](1-0.371-0.153)* 1000\\= 0.476 * 1000\\= 476[/tex]
Answer:
a. purple allele (C) = 0.609, pink allele (c) = 0.391
b. purple homozygotes = 371, purple heterozygotes = 476
Explanation:
According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
p + q = 1
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
where, p = frequency of dominant allele
q = frequency of recessive allele
p² = frequency of dominant homozygous genotype
2pq = frequency of heterozygous genotype
q² = frequency of homozygous recessive genotype
a. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,
frequency of pink flowers (cc) = q² = 153/1000 = 0.153
frequency of pink allele c = q = √0.153 = 0.391
p + q = 1 where p = frequency of dominant allele
So, frequency of purple allele C = p = 1-0.391 = 0.609
b. Purple homozygotes = CC = p² * total population =
(0.609)² * 1000 = 370.88 = 371
Purple heterozygotes = Cc = 2pq * total population =
2 * 0.609 * 0.391 * 1000 = 476.23 = 476
__________ enter the lymph and need transport carriers to circulate in the bloodstream.
Answer:
Long-chain fatty acids
Explanation:
Answer:
Long-chain fatty acids is right
Explanation:
The family of a deceased victim protests having an autopsy of their loved one due ro religious beliefs. The medical examiner will honor their wishes unless:
Answer:
In case of involvement of crime or in case if autopsy is a threat to public health
Explanation:
There can be two cases where a medical practioner will not perform the autopsy as requested by family member of the patient –
a) If the death of the person involves any criminal link
b) If the patient has no abnormal disease which on autopsy could become a public threat
In all other scenarios, the doctor can undergo autopsy on the request of family member. Autopsy is basically performed to test the determine the exact cause of death. In case of natural death, there is not point of doing autopsy.
Adjustments are made to ensure that:
A. Expenses are recognized in the period in which they are incurred
B. Revenues are recorded in the period in which the performance obligation is satisfied
C. Balance sheet and income statement accounts have correct balances at the end of an accounting period
D. All the above
Answer:
D. All the above
Explanation:
Adjustments are made to ensure that
A. Expenses are recognized in the period in which they are incurred✔
B. Revenues are recorded in the period in which the performance obligation is satisfied✔
C. Balance sheet and income statement accounts have correct balances at the end of an accounting period✔
Choose all the right answers.
Insects and amphibians:
have six legs
are both vertebrates
go through a metamorphosis
are both invertebrates
do not look like their parents at birth
Answer:
go through a metamorphosis
Explanation:
METAMORPHOSIS is the change in the form and often habits of an animal after the embryonic stage during normal development.
For Example: the transformation of a caterpillar into a butterfly, OR a tadpole into a frog.
Note that the other options given are WRONG because they are characteristics or features of either of them, NOT both.
When a new viral infection appears in a population, scientists usually try to develop a vaccine against the virus. Which substances would most likely be contained in the new vaccine?A. live bacteria that ingest virusesB. white blood cells from an infected individualC. weakened viruses associated with the infectionD. a variety of microbes that will attack the virus
Answer: option C) weakened viruses associated with the infection
Explanation:
A vaccine is a derived from a disease-causing organism, and administed to uninfected people in order to induce the release of antibodies and set up immunity against such disease.
Therefore, weakened viruses associated with the infection, is used by scientists to develop vaccine.
Option C is the answer
Which of the following statements about acid precipitation is NOT true?
a) An increase in the use of buses and trains decreases the effects of acid precipitation.
b) Acid precipitation forms when sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides combine with atmospheric moisture to create sulfuric acid and nitric acid.
c) A decrease in the use of cars would mean fewer nitrogen oxides would pour into the air and less acid precipitation would form.
d) Most nitrogen oxides that cause acid precipitation come from factories.
The correct answer is D :)
A _____ is the surgical fixation of a prolapsed rectum to an adjacent tissue or organ.
Answer: Proctopexy
Explanation:
A Proctopexy is the surgical fixation of a prolapsed rectum to an adjacent tissue or organ.
Proctopexy is a medical procedure that involves the joining/sewing of a PROTRUDING rectum to a nearby tissue or organ like the Sacrum
So, Proctopexy is the answer
Robert's mother is usually meticulous in her presentation. When picking her up for a family dinner, he noticed that her make-up was only applied to the right side of her face. Her hair was also brushed on the right side, but on the left it was matted and uncombed. He immediately took her to the hospital after she was unaware of any problems. She was diagnosed with __________, which is evidenced by damage to the association areas of the right hemisphere.
Answer: HEMISPATIAL NEGLECT
Explanation This is a neuropsychological condition which arise from injury( mostly from strokes) to the right cerebral hemisphere.
The damage leads to loss of attention and awareness of one side of vision in the damaged side of the hemisphere.
The patient failed to initiate and perceive stimuli one side of the body relative to the environment; despite receiving sensory stimulation from that part of the body, and the environment.
→Treatment involved Rehabilitation trying to bring the patient to the right
→Wearing of glasses with prism lens to pull the patient vision towards the left side.
Disturbances cause a decrease in carrying capacity for all populations in the disturbed habitat. This statement is:
a. correct; all populations in an area of a disturbance have a temporarily lowered carrying capacity.
b. incorrect; the definition of a disturbance is an event that temporarily lowers carrying capacity.
c. incorrect; although a disturbance may lower carrying capacity for some populations, it may increase carrying capacity for others.
d. incorrect; disturbances have minimal effect on carrying capacity.
e. correct; biotic disturbances increase carrying capacity for all the populations.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder, it "pops back into place." What should your next step be?
Answer:
The options
A. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient.
B. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.
C. Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient.
D. Continue splinting and report the popping sound to the triage nurse when you arrive at the hospital.
The ANSWER IS SURELY B.
B. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.
Explanation:
In assessing Musculoskeletal Injury as in this case, check for Circulation, sensation, and movement, apply a sling and bandage/swathe followed by transporting the patient quickly to the hospital for further checkup
Answer:
pito
Explanation:
panochon
Which of the following statements describes integral membrane proteins?
I. They protect the contents of the cell from chaotropic agents such as urea.
II. They are easily dissociated from the membrane by changes in pH or high salt concentration.
III. They are held tightly in place by hydrophobic effects between the membrane and hydrophobic amino acids.
Integral membrane proteins are essentially permanently attached to the cell membranes due to hydrophobic effects. They are not easily removed and their functions can greatly vary.
Explanation:The term integral membrane proteins refers to proteins that are permanently embedded in the biological membrane. They are tightly held in place by hydrophobic effects between the lipophilic or hydrophobic amino acids of the protein and the fatty acid chains of the membrane lipids, making statement III correct. They are not easily dissociated from the membrane by changes in pH or high salt concentration, contradicting statement II. Statement I about protecting the cell from chaotropic agents such as urea is not generally applicable to all integral proteins as it depends on the specific protein function.
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Integral membrane proteins are firmly embedded in the biological membrane due to hydrophobic interactions, and are not easily dissociated by changes in pH or high salt concentration. They are not specifically responsible for protection against chaotropic agents like urea.
Explanation:Integral membrane proteins are a type of protein that is permanently attached to the biological membrane. Among the statements provided, the one which accurately describes integral membrane proteins is III: 'They are held tightly in place by hydrophobic effects between the membrane and hydrophobic amino acids.' This is due to their structure, which typically includes a hydrophilic 'head' and a hydrophobic 'tail', allowing them to interact with both the interior of the lipid bilayer and the aqueous environment outside the cell.
However, the statements I and II are not entirely accurate. While integral membrane proteins do play a role in the cell's defenses (statement I), including against certain types of toxins, they aren't specifically designed to protect against chaotropic agents like urea. For statement II, it is misleading, because integral membrane proteins are not easily dissociated from the membrane simply by changes in pH or high salt concentration – these proteins are firmly embedded in the membrane due to the hydrophobic interactions between the protein and the lipid bilayer.
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Those arguing for the inclusion of a neutral option on an interval scale believe that some respondents do not have opinions formed on that item, and they must be given the opportunity to indicate their ambivalence.
Answer:
True .
Explanation:
An argument may be defined as the series of the statements that are known as premises. The individual can be involved in the argument to prove the strength of the true statement.
The interval scale is also involved in the arguing. Some arguers or responders might do not have same thinking on the same items. Each individual must given a chance to prove their thinking or feelings.
Thus, the answer is true.
True or false? Pathogens include viruses, bacteria, ticks, fungi, and parasitic worms. (2 points)
Answer: False
Explanation:
A pathogen is a anything which can cause disease in a living being. A pathogen is an infectious agent or a germ. Infectious microorganism like bacteria, virus, viroids, protozoa and fungus are pathogenic in nature. Plants, animals and certain worms are also pathogen in nature.
Among the options given ticks and parasitic worms cannot be consider as pathogens as these can live as parasite in the body of the host organism by sucking blood and deriving nutrients but they do not cause any disease to them.
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by __________, whereas anorexia nervosa is characterized by __________.
Answer: excessive eating; food starvation
Explanation:
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by excessive eating, whereas anorexia nervosa is characterized by food starvation.
Both bullimia nervosa and Anorexia nervosa are EATING DISORDER with different root cause; the former involving excessive eating followed by forceful ejection of ingested food DUE to FEAR of gaining weight, WHEREAS the latter is characterized by FOOD STARVATION due to fear of gaining weight.
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors,
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating, followed by compensatory behaviors like self-induced vomiting, fasting, or excessive exercise to avoid weight gain. It often involves a preoccupation with body shape and weight. Treatment typically includes therapy and nutritional counseling.
Bulimia nervosa is characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by attempts to compensate for the excessive amount of food that was consumed. On the other hand, anorexia nervosa is characterized by the maintenance of a body weight well below average through starvation and/or excessive exercise. Individuals with anorexia nervosa often have a distorted body image and view themselves as overweight even though they are not.
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You identify an RFLP in mice by digesting genomic DNA with HindIII enzyme and radiolabeling a piece of probe DNA. Southern blot analysis shows that the probe detects a 2-kb fragment in one strain of mice and a 4-kb fragment in another strain of mice. The two mice strains are crossed to produce an F1 generation. Two F1siblings are mated to produce a dozen F2 progeny. You isolate genomic DNA from several F1 and F2 individuals, digest with HindIII, and perform a Southern blot with the same probe.How many bands would be seen in the Southern blot of an F1 individual?A. twoB. fourC. one or twoD. oneE. three
Answer:
Part 1 = (A) Two
Part 2 = (B) Cleavage of X-gal
Explanation:
Part 1: As probe detects a 2-Kb fragment in one strain of mice and a 4-kb fragment in another strain of mice.Thus 2 bands would be seen in the Southern blot of an F1 individual.
Part 2: The antibiotic & Xgal markers provide a selection scheme for recombinant bacterial colonies, as follows. First, only bacterial colonies that contain a plasmid-borne antibiotic-resistance gene can grow at all. Second, of those that grow, only those whose plasmids carry a functional LacZ in the poly-linker can metabolize Xgal.