Answer:
The correct answer will be-0.145 kcal/serve.
Explanation:
The Carbohydrates on oxidation produces 4 calories per gram, the proteins provide 4 calories per gram and the Fats provides 9 calories per gram.
If one serve of crackers contains
1. Carbohydrates- 22 g, will produce calories- 22 x 4= 88 calories
2. Proteins- 3 g will produce calories- 3x4= 12 Calories
3. Fats- 5 g will produce calories- 5 x 9= 45 calorie
Therefore, the total calories in a single serve will be 88 +12 + 45
Total calorie = 145 calorie
OR
Kilocalorie= 145/1000 = 0.145 kcal/serve.
Thus, 0.145 kcal/serve is the correct answer.
Answer:
145 total kilocalories.
Explanation:
The condition that occurs when too much water is consumed and/or too much sodium is lost in sweating, resulting in abnormally low levels of sodium in the blood, is called___________.
Answer:
hyponatremia
Explanation:
There are clinical situations in which when performing blood tests, natremia values are detected that are less than normal, which are not really correct since, when making more precise determinations, the amount of sodium is normal, they are the false hyponatremia or pseudohyponatias. Drinking plenty of water is a piece of advice that we listen to doctors and friends every day, but like everything else, the limit and sanity need to be imposed, because while it is true that drinking too little is bad, drinking it too much. When consulting various health sites we find that it is valid to divide the body weight taken in kilos by 30. Thus, if a person weighs 70 kilograms, they should drink at least 2.3 liters of water a day. At its maximum risk level, overhydration can cause brain inflammation due to too much fluid access to the brain, and among the symptoms that stand out are lethargy, (tendency to sleep, decreased ability to react), agitation, seizures, all symptoms that can be confused with those of dehydration and lead us erroneously to drink more.
Hyponatremia is diagnosed with a blood test, but we need to do more studies to identify its cause. The diagnostic process begins with a detailed history and examination to look for symptoms and signs of diseases related to hyponatremia (edema in heart failure, blood pressure figures, mucosal turgor, etc.). A blood test will be performed and urine to be included: determination of Na (to confirm hyponatremia), blood biochemistry (urea, creatinine, glucose, ions, total proteins and triglycerides), blood count with formula and leukocyte count, urine biochemistry (with Na in urine), plasma and urinary osmolarity, acid-base balance. The algorithm summarizes this diagnostic process and how with four analytical parameters the etiology of hyponatremia can be determined: Plasma and urinary osmolarity and concentrations of Na and K in urine. Through urinary osmolarity and the concentration of Na in urine we can assess the response to treatment.
Answer:
Hyponatremia
Explanation:
Hyponatremia occurs when your blood sodium level goes below 135 mEq/L. When the sodium level in your blood is too low, extra water goes into your cells and makes them swell.
Hepatitis with the presence of autoantibodies and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is
a. hepatitis db. autoimmune hepatitisc. hepatitis ad. hepatitis b
Answer:
B - Autoimmune Hepatitis
Explanation:
Autoimmune hepatitis is a liver inflammation disease. Its exact cause is not yet certain but researchers suspect that it occurs as a result of a combination of environmental and genetic factors. It causes the body's immune system to recognize the liver cells and tissues as foreign invaders and attack them in a manner akin to Lupus.
If it is untreated, it can cause permanent scarring of the liver leading to cirrhosis and eventually liver failure.
Hepatitis characterized by the presence of autoantibodies and positive ANAs is known as autoimmune hepatitis. It is an immune system-mediated condition distinct from viral-induced hepatitis.
Hepatitis with the presence of autoantibodies and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is indicative of autoimmune hepatitis.
Unlike the hepatitis viruses A, B, C, D, and E, which are caused by viral infections, autoimmune hepatitis is a condition where the body's immune system attacks liver cells, leading to inflammation and damage.
The presence of ANA is a marker commonly associated with autoimmune disorders, such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
However, since ANA can be present in other autoimmune diseases, it is important to perform further diagnostic tests for a definitive diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis
In a discussion of heart failure, the nursing instructor is explaining preload and afterload. Which of the following statements regarding preload and afterload is accurate?a) Preload is related to the filling of the left ventricle, and afterload is related to the filling of the right ventricle.
b) Preload is related to the filling of the right ventricle, and afterload is related to the filling of the left ventricle.
c) Preload is related to the ejection of blood from the ventricle, and afterload is related to the filling of the ventricle.
d) Afterload is related to the ejection of blood from the ventricle, and preload is related to the filling of the ventricle.
Answer:
Afterload is related to the ejection of blood from the ventricle, and preload is related to the filling of the ventricle.
Explanation:
Heart may be defined as the organ that pumps the blood in the whole body. Humans separate the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the body and blood helps in the arteries and veins.
The improper blood flow and problem in the heart might result in the heart failure. Two main loading are afterload and preload. Afterload is the pressure that are mainly associated with the blood ejection from the ventricle. Preload is the pressure associated with the filling of the ventricle.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Charles Spearman believed that _____ was/were responsible for overall performance on mental ability tests.
Answer:Charles Spearman believed that
general intelligence, or the G FACTOR
was/were responsible for overall performance on mental ability tests.
Explanation:Charles Spearman was an English psychologist known to propose the theory of intelligence. He proposed that an underlying factor of general intelligence exists that forms the foundation out of which all intellectual abilities rise( the G factor).
Active individuals involved in moderate intensity exercise do not benefit from nutritional supplementation to reduce susceptibility to illness.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
One of the main premises in the study of the immunology of exercise is the possible role that exercise or physical activity may have in both prevention and cure of diseases; and, specifically, in the chronic and acute responses of the immune system to exercise.
Martha, who has just turned 90, has been experiencing some respiratory distress. Her doctor has told her that she has a cluster of abnormal cells in her left lung. Since she has never smoked, she asks her doctor what might have caused the abnormal cells. In response, her doctor explains that the number of body cells experiencing abnormalities increases as we age. This explanation reflects which theory of aging?
Answer:
Hayflick theory
Explanation:
According to Hayflick theory aging process is controlled by a biological clock which lie within each living cell. According to this theory human cells have a limited life span.
this theory explain the mechanisms behind cellular aging. It suggests that a normal human cell can only replicate and divide arount forty to sixty times before it cannot divide anymore, and will break down by programmed cell death or apoptosis due to which number of body cells experiencing abnormalities with age.
The use of fossil fuels to produce, process, and transport food contributes to __________.
Answer:
Green house effects
Explanation:
This is when gases are trapped in the earth's atmosphere and make the earth warmer
Jody is taking a nutrition class and has been assigned to evaluate a popular diet plan. She finds a description of a plan for her assignment in a magazine at the grocery store. Which of the following statements in the magazine would suggest that this plan is an unsound, fad diet?
A. "On this plan, you can lose up to 1 pound per week!"
B. "Once you complete this 6 month plan, you'll never have to diet again"
C. "Keep fresh fruit and carrot sticks in the fridge at work so you won't be tempted to raid the vending machine for a snack"
D. "Starting an aerobic exercise plan may seem daunting, but you can start out with shorter, easier sessions and then build up to 3+ hours a week"
Answer:
its letter B
Explanation:
Once you complete this 6 month plan, you'll never have to diet again will suggest that this plan is an unsound, fad diet.
What is a diet plan?A diet plan is a set of guidelines for the types and amounts of food that an individual should consume in order to achieve a specific health goal, such as weight loss, weight gain, or maintenance of current weight. Diet plans often include specific recommendations for daily intake of nutrients, such as the amount of carbohydrates, protein, and fat that should be consumed. Some diet plans may be based on specific foods or food groups, while others may place more emphasis on the overall balance of nutrients in the diet.
Diet plans can be formulated by healthcare professionals, such as registered dietitians, or they can be found in books or online resources. It's important to choose a diet plan that is appropriate for an individual's needs and goals, and that is based on sound scientific evidence.
Learn more about diet plan, here:
https://brainly.com/question/17167344
#SPJ5
Consistently eating too many high-protein foods can lead to a higher risk for ________.
A) marasmusB) type 1 diabetesC) kwashiokorD) heart disease, kidney problems, and calcium loss from bones
Answer Heart disease, kidney problems, and calcium loss from bones
Explanation:
High protein diet does not have any effect on healthy kidney, but have a significant effect on damaged kidney. This is because of the high workload in removing excess urea and nitrogen contained by- products produced from the metabolized protein in the kidney, by the already inefficient Nephron..
Trimethylamine N-oxide (TMAO) is a chemical compound produced in the gut. It is linked to heart diseases. Consumption of red meat for a long period of time increases the concentration of these chemical compound in the gut; with high incidence of coronary diseases.
High protein diet increases the acid levels of the blood plasma. the low body pH causes rapid withdrawal of calcium from the bone to neutralize the acidity leading to low bone calcium concentration, and therefore Osteoporosis.
Tessa and Noah are looking to buy their first house. Their real estate agent takes them to one house that strongly smells of cigarette smoke and cat urine. They both are disgusted by the smells and immediately exit the house. If the electrical activity of the brain were measured while they were having this negative emotion, then:
Answer:
If the electrical activity of the brain were measured while they were having this negative emotion, then their right prefrontal cortex are more electrically active.
Explanation:
The brain controls many of the actions that people do. It is regarded as the most important organ in a person. When it comes to the positive and negative emotions of a person, the "prefrontal" part of the brain plays a vital role. The right prefrontal cortex governs negative behaviors and feelings while the left prefrontal cortex governs positive behavior and feelings.
It is clearly stated that Tessa and Noah were immediately disappointed by the strong smell of cigarette smoke and cat urine in the house, that they decided to leave. This means that they were having a negative emotion, which in turn proves that the right prefrontal cortex is more electrically active at that moment.
It is common to have an unbalanced electrical activity between the right prefrontal cortex and the left prefrontal cortex. However, in some cases, one side is very active while the other is super inactive. An example of this is a depressed individual. A depressed person will have a super active right prefrontal cortex and a super inactive left prefrontal cortex.
Final answer:
When Tessa and Noah were disgusted by the smells in the house, their negative emotion would have been associated with increased activation of the amygdala in their brains.
Explanation:
When Tessa and Noah were disgusted by the smells of the house, their negative emotion would have been associated with increased activation of the amygdala in their brains. The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions, especially fear and aversion. This reaction is similar to what has been observed in animal research, where odor cues paired with negative experiences lead to aversion and increased amygdala activation. Therefore, in this situation, the electrical activity of Tessa and Noah's amygdala would have been heightened.
If at all possible, maneuver to avoid a ________ collision which involves extreme force upon impact and is statistically more likely to result in injury or death.
Answer:
Head-on.
Explanation:
Maneuver warfare may be defined as a type of the military strategy that advocate the attempt to defeat the opposite team. The enemy can be incapacitating by shock and disruption.
The enemy can be completely killed by the maneuver techniques. The head on collision during the maneuver is quite dangerous. Proper techniques are required to reduce the head on collision as this collision might result in the death of an individual.
Thus, the answer is head on.
To avoid significant injury or death, it is crucial to maneuver to prevent a head-on collision, characterized by a direct and forceful impact. The impulse and resulting forces from a collision can be lessened through safety features like airbags, which prolong the duration of impact and reduce the force felt by occupants.
Explanation:If at all possible, maneuver to avoid a head-on collision, which involves extreme force upon impact and is statistically more likely to result in injury or death. A head-on collision is one where the angle between the initial velocity vectors is close to zero, indicating the objects are moving directly towards each other. Collisions in general are complex events where bodies exert a high magnitude of force on each other for a very short period, possibly leading to deformation or even decomposition of the bodies involved.
The impulse experienced during collisions can be mitigated by extending the time over which the force acts, such as the use of airbags in cars. Materials like plastics allow cars to crumple upon impact, which increases the time of collision, thereby reducing the force experienced by occupants. In any collision scenario, the goal is to reduce the force experienced by the occupants, and thereby reduce the injuries sustained.
Having a clear understanding of the physics involved in traffic collisions can greatly help in designing safer vehicles and in educating drivers on the importance of avoiding such dangerous situations as head-on collisions.
Avulsions are caused by a scraping away of the skin's surface and are susceptible to infection.
True or False?
One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with would occur as follows:A fracture or crush injury causes bleeding and swelling within the extremity. Pressure and swelling caused by the bleeding within the muscle compartment become so great that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure. Cellular damage occurs and causes additional swelling. Blood flow to the area is lost. The limb itself may be lost if the pressure is not relieved.What is this condition called?
A. Compartment syndromeB. Perfusing syndromeC. Crushing syndromeD. Fracture syndrome
A client comes to the emergency department because of minimal urinary output despite drinking adequate fluid. The client's blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg. For what additional clinical manifestation associated with this data should the nurse assess the client?
1. Thirst
2. Weight gain
3. Urinary retention
4. Urinary hesitancy
Answer:
Weight gain.
Explanation:
The humans can be classified as the underweight, normal weight or over weight. The individual might gain weight due o his daily life style and some times improper functioning of the body.
The weight gain problem can leads to the different disease in the humans. As given in the question, the urine is not excreting out from the body. This means the excess product is stored in the body and this might result in the weight gain of the individual. The poisonous substance may also accumulate in the body.
Thus, the answer is option (2).
A 19th-century explorer crossing a desert has run out of water. He has the best chance of surviving if he can finda. a rain shadow.b. an ephemeral stream.c. an oasis.d. a playa.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. an oasis.
Explanation:
An oasis is a geographical area or unexpected natural water source that is present in the desert. These water resources provides the very much needed relief by providing water to the organisms, animals and help in growing vegetation in the desert and dry area.
It can provide water and relief from sun and heat by providing shade and needed water as it offers not just water but a shelter to the animals, if it is a large enough for human settlements and crop nearby it.
Thus, the correct answer is option C. an oasis.
Answer:
C. An oasis
Explanation:
An oasis is a cultivated area in a desert or semi-desert environment.
The students are discussing the electrolytes in the body. What should the students know has the greatest influence on potassium loss from the body?
A)Aldosterone
B)Antidiuretic hormone
C)Renin
D)Carbonic anhydrase
Answer:
Aldosterone
Explanation:
It plays a central role in the homeostatic regulation of blood pressure, plasma sodium (Na+), and potassium (K+) levels. It does so primarily by acting on the mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron. It influences the reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium (from and into the tubular fluids, respectively) of the kidney, thereby indirectly influencing water retention or loss, blood pressure and blood volume.In many adrenal disorders, such as Cushing syndrome, the adrenal glands produce too much aldosterone, a hormone that causes the kidneys to excrete large amounts of potassium.
Alicia's goal is to become a world-class endurance athlete. She trains aerobically for at least 90 minutes daily. She weighs 60 kg. Based on this information, what is the minimum number of kilocalories she needs to consume daily to maintain her body weight while in training?
Answer:
2700
Explanation:
It is important to maintain healthy eating when exercising, this is because if you lose more calories than you take in, you are at a deficit, meaning you are losing weight. Simultaneously, if you eat the same amount of calories you burn, you will maintain your weight.
(60 kg x 90 minutes/day) / 2
= 5400 / 2
= 2700
Sometimes a medical condition is visible to the naked eye even if it does not involve the skin. A lack of the mineral ______ can cause ______, which is such a disorder.
a) vitamin K; inadequate blood clotting
b) iodine; a goiter
c) potassium; pernicious anemia
d) sodium; hypertension
Answer:
The right answer should be b, but i apologize if i am wrong.
Explanation:
The lack of iodine causes thyroid enlargement and goiter. As the body's iodine levels fall, hypothyroidism may develop because iodine is needed for making thyroid hormone.
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
a. Shark skill test
b. Bench press
c. Davies test
d. Single-leg squat
Answer:
D. Single-leg squat.
Explanation:
Single leg squats are an excellent functional bodyweight training exercise that will develop leg strength, flexibility, improve balance and increase your vertical jump.
The most appropriate assessment for a pregnant client is the single-leg squat, as it measures lower body strength and balance without excessive stress.
Explanation:When working with a pregnant client, the most appropriate assessment from the options provided is the d. Single-leg squat.
This test is a good measure of overall lower body strength and balance without putting excessive stress on the body which could potentially harm both the expectant mother and the baby. It's particularly important when working with pregnant women to consider safety and comfort at all times.
Other tests like the Shark skill test, Bench press or the Davies test could potentially pose risks during pregnancy.
Learn more about Pregnancy Fitness Assessment here:https://brainly.com/question/31828777
#SPJ6
Which sport was derived from the greek word meaning ""to exercise naked""?
Answer:
gymnastics "gymnos"
Explanation:
Answer:
The name comes from the Ancient Greek term gymnós meaning "naked"
Explanation:
The gymnasium in Ancient Greece functioned as a training facility for competitors in public game(s).The name comes from the Ancient Greek term gymnós meaning "naked".
Which method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client’s predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate? A. Peak maximal heart rate (MHR) method B. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method C. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method D. Peak metabolic equivalent (MET) method
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
Karvonen is known for his work on coronary heart disease and epidemiology and giving the formula for calculating the target heart rate zone during the training called 220-age formula.
The formula is based on the age and resting heart rate of the trainer. To measure the heart rate first the resting heart rate of a person is measured every fifteen-minute.
Then find age-predicted maximum heart rate by subtracting the age of the person from 220.
The heart rate reserve is calculated then by subtracting the resting heart rate from the maximal heart rate.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
A laboring client who is positive for Group B Streptococcus is given an initial dose of ampicillin (Omipen) 2 g at 9 am. According to established guidelines for intrapartum management of this client, the next dose should be:__________1. 2 g given at 10 am2. 1 g given at 11 am3. 2 g given at noon4. 1 g given at 1 pm
Answer:
1 g given at 1 PM
Explanation:
Which of the following is not a health-related component of physical fitness?
Since the options are not given the question is incomplete.
Which of the following is not a health related component of fitness?
A). Body composition
B). Flexibility
C). Muscular strength and endurance
D). Stress management
Answer: Stress management
Explanation:
Fitness in terms of health is associated with physical fitness. The physical fitness involves the dynamics of working and functioning of the physical body. This is associated with composition of the body, body shape, weight regulation, flexibility, strength and endurance required to perform a task and other physical attributes.
The stress management is related with mental fitness. It helps in reducing mental stress and improving thinking abilities, which can help in overcoming stress.
Skill-related fitness components such as agility and coordination are not considered health-related components of physical fitness; those relate more to athletic abilities than to basic health.
Explanation:The health-related components of physical fitness typically include cardiovascular endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, and body composition. A factor that is not considered a health-related component of physical fitness would be skill-related abilities such as agility, balance, coordination, power, speed, and reaction time. These skill-related components are associated more with athletic performance rather than basic health. Therefore, an answer to the question 'Which of the following is not a health-related component of physical fitness?' would be any of these skill-related abilities.
Understand that physical exercise plays a critical role in maintaining each of these health-related fitness components. It helps reduce disease risk and improves overall health by increasing cardiovascular and muscular fitness, increasing bone density and strength, improving cognitive function, and assisting in weight management.
Appetite is triggered by:________. a) a physiological drive. b) environmental cues, such as the smell or taste of food. c) pancreatic enzymes. d) stomach enzymes.
Answer: the correct option is B ( environmental cues, such as the smell or taste of food)
Explanation:Appetite is triggered by environmental cues, such as the smell or taste of food. Appetite is defined as the desire to eat food and serves to regulate adequate energy intake to maintain metabolic needs.
Appetite is triggered by a physiological drive and environmental cues, such as the smell or taste of food.
Explanation:Appetite is a complex phenomenon influenced by both physiological and environmental factors. The physiological drive behind appetite involves the intricate interplay of hormones and internal signals that regulate hunger and satiety.
One key hormone involved is ghrelin, often referred to as the "hunger hormone." Ghrelin is secreted by the stomach and stimulates appetite when it's time to eat. On the contrary, leptin, produced by fat cells, plays a role in signaling fullness and reducing appetite. These hormones form a dynamic feedback system to maintain energy balance.
Beyond hormonal regulation, environmental cues significantly impact appetite. The mere sight, smell, or taste of food can trigger a desire to eat, even in the absence of physiological hunger. Our senses play a pivotal role in influencing food choices and meal initiation.
Moreover, social and cultural factors also shape our eating habits. Meal times, portion sizes, and the presence of others during meals can influence our appetite.
In summary, appetite is a multifaceted process. Physiological signals and hormonal regulation interact with sensory and environmental cues, making it a dynamic interplay between our internal state and external influences. Understanding these factors is crucial for maintaining a balanced and healthy approach to eating.
Learn more about Appetite here:https://brainly.com/question/33282428
#SPJ6
An individual with a fasting plasma glucose level of 90 mg/dl and oral glucose tolerance test value of 120 mg/dl would have:
Final answer:
An individual with a fasting plasma glucose level of 90 mg/dl and an oral glucose tolerance test result of 120 mg/dl falls within the normal range for blood glucose levels and does not have diabetes mellitus.
Explanation:
An individual with a fasting plasma glucose level of 90 mg/dl and an oral glucose tolerance test (GTT) value of 120 mg/dl does not show signs of diabetes mellitus. According to the information provided, a normal fasting blood glucose level ranges between 60-90 mg/100 ml and may be up to 80-120 mg/100 ml using reduction methods. The oral glucose tolerance test result for this individual is also within the normal range since blood glucose should rise after consuming glucose and then return to normal levels within about 2 ½ hours, indicating that insulin is being properly secreted and is regulating blood sugar levels.
Since the person has a fasting blood glucose level below 100, which is normal, and the result of the glucose tolerance test does not indicate hyperglycemia, the individual can tolerate glucose well and is not considered to be in the pre-diabetes or diabetes categories.
The _____ is a collection of highly branched neurons scattered throughout the brainstem.
Final answer:
The reticular formation is a network of neurons within the brainstem that filters incoming stimuli and is involved in several bodily functions. Thus the statement is - The reticular formation is a collection of highly branched neurons scattered throughout the brainstem.
Explanation:
The reticular formation is a collection of highly branched neurons scattered throughout the brainstem. Running through the medulla and the pons, its main functions include filtering stimuli from the spinal cord, relaying signals to other brain areas, and playing essential roles in various bodily processes such as walking, eating, sexual activity, and sleeping. Moreover, the reticular formation collects input from higher brain centers and passes it on to motor neurons. The brainstem, consisting of the midbrain, medulla oblongata, and the pons, is extremely significant as it controls vital bodily functions including alertness, arousal, breathing, blood pressure, digestion, heart rate, swallowing, and integrates sensory and motor information.
In general, what can American ethnic minority populations expect concerning their health, as compared to the general population?
Answer:
higher rates of cancer, infant mortality, and alcoholism
Explanation:
Some of the sources say that in the USA, African Americans, Hispanics, Native Americans and other ethnic minorities are the ones with poorest health and usually ones with diseases, injuries, premature deaths and disabilities of many kinds. What does that mean? They usually live shorter than expected, very poor quality of life, many lost opportunities for jobs and wealth, and the constant feeling of injustice.
Which of the following individuals would MOST likely have the lowest basal metabolic rate?
A. a 28-year-old conditioned male athlete
B. a 28-year-old anorexic woman
C. a 28-year-old normal weight male
D. a 28-year-old pregnant woman
Answer:
B. A 28 year old sedentary female
Explanation:
Sedentary females need 1,800 calories daily
You have revised your budget so that your
entertainment expenses have been replaced.
Now, you need to revise your budget to meet your
long-term goal of saving $4.500. You will need to
increase your savings to $300 month.
How will you revise your budget to meet this goal?
Answer: sample
Explanation: I will reduce my discretionary spending to $165 in order to increase my savings budget to $300. This will allow me to meet my long-term goal, while also letting me keep some discretionary spending each month.
Which measure of body composition can provide information on regional fat distribution and can also provide measurement of bone density?
A. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scanB. Air displacement plethysmographyC. Near-infrared spectroscopyD. Bioelectric impedance
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) scan