After installation of a field-piped r-410a split heat pump, the unit should first be:

Answers

Answer 1
After installation of a field-piped R-410A split heat pump, the unit should first be:pressurized with nitrogen then leak checked.Heat Pumps that have been retrofitted from R-22 to R-407C should be leak checked with:pressurized nitrogen.The EPA regulations require that leaking commercial or industrial process refrigeration equipment must be repaired when the leak rate exceeds ______ of the charge per year.35%
Answer 2

Final answer:

The first step after installing a field-piped R-410A split heat pump is to evacuate and properly charge the unit with refrigerant. This ensures proper function and efficiency. Subsequent testing and the use of a programmable thermostat can further enhance the system's efficiency.

Explanation:

After the installation of a field-piped R-410A split heat pump, the unit should first be properly evacuated and then charged with refrigerant according to the manufacturer's specifications. It's important to ensure that all pipe connections are secure and there are no leaks. Once checked for leaks and the system is correctly evacuated, you can proceed with charging the refrigerant, which is a critical step as R-410A is a high-pressure refrigerant. After this, a performance test to check if heat transfer efficiency is optimal would be appropriate.

The process of charging a split heat pump system involves connecting the refrigerant supply to the service port and adding refrigerant until the desired pressure is reached. Precise procedures can vary depending on specific system requirements and manufacturer guidelines. It's essential to use equipment such as gauges and a vacuum pump that is compatible with R-410A. Additionally, the correct type and amount of refrigerant must be verified to match the needs of the system functionality.

Implementing features like a programmable thermostat can enhance efficiency by reducing the operation of the system when not needed. Regular maintenance of the system is also important to ensure that the split heat pump operates at peak efficiency, conserving energy and reducing costs in the long term.


Related Questions

What is Choana Atresia?

Answers

Choanal atresia is a congenital disorder where the back of the nasal passage  is blocked, usually by abnormal bony or soft tissue (membranous) due to failed recanalization of the nasal fossae during fetal development.
Final answer:

Choana atresia is a congenital condition where the choanae (nasal passageways to the throat) are blocked, often by excessive tissue or bone, which can prevent normal nasal breathing in newborns.

Explanation:

Choana atresia is not specifically mentioned in the reference provided. However, it is important to address the student's question. Choana atresia is a congenital condition characterized by the blockage of the choana, which are the passageways that connect the back of the nasal cavity to the throat. It prevents normal breathing through the nose, often requiring immediate medical attention after birth since newborns are obligate nose breathers. The blockage is usually caused by excessive nasal tissue or bone that creates an obstruction. Treatment typically involves surgical procedures to clear the blockage and ensure that the airway is open to allow normal breathing and adequate oxygen intake.

Choana atresia is a medical condition characterized by the blockage or closure of the nasal passages due to the abnormal development of the choanae, which are the posterior openings of the nasal cavities. This condition can be present at birth and can affect one or both of the choanae. It can lead to difficulty in breathing through the nose, recurrent nasal congestion, and a higher risk of respiratory infections.

A 42-year-old male client has a history of smoking for 20 years. the client states he is feeling fine and asks why stopping smoking is necessary. what information might the nurse share with the client about smoking?

Answers

Cigarettes have over 4,000 chemicals in them, when someone stops smoking your body is able to repair itself.

Final answer:

Quitting smoking, even for a 42-year-old who has been smoking for 20 years, provides immediate health benefits such as reduced risk of serious diseases, improved senses, and longer life expectancy. It's critical to support individuals in this process with information and cessation aids, emphasizing that it's never too late to quit.

Explanation:

The information shared with a client about quitting smoking can be crucial to encouraging healthy lifestyle changes. Smoking cessation at any age, including for a 42-year-old who has been a smoker for several years, yields significant health benefits. When a nurse communicates these facts, they draw on substantial research showing the positives of quitting this habit.

Immediate benefits include improved blood circulation, enhanced taste and smell, and increased exercise capacity. Long-term, quitting reduces the risks of serious diseases such as cancer, heart attack, stroke, and lung diseases. These changes begin to occur shortly after quitting, with a sharp decrease in heart attack risk within just a year and stroke risk reduction to that of a non-smoker within 2-5 years.

Furthermore, it's important to highlight that regardless of past smoking habits, those who quit can expect to live longer. Those quitting between the ages of 35 and 44, for example, gain an average of 9 more years. The nurse might also discuss cessation aids, such as nicotine replacement therapies and non-nicotine medications, to help facilitate the quitting process.

Despite the well-known damaging effects of tobacco, quitting can still be a challenging process due to addiction. It's crucial to provide support and information about available resources and cessation programs to increase the chances of succeeding in quitting smoking.

What was the consequence of wealthy elites purchasing large tracts of land after the abolition of serfdom?

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Poor people fled to the cities, creating housing shortages and deteriorated living conditions

What disadvantages of chemotherapy should the patient be informed about prior to starting the regimen?

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A patient should be informed of both during and after treatment effect of chemotherapy. During the treatment, the patient may experience gastrointestinal, musculoskeletal or constitutional symptoms, they can be referred to as frequent vomiting, loss of appetite and diarrhea. Some patients may also experience fevers and feel tired quickly. One of the most seen side effects of chemotherapy is alopecia, wherein the patient's hair falls out. While after the treatment, the patient may not feel any side effects immediately, but after a few months or years, signs of heart or kidney problems may appear, so as lung tissue damage or nerve damage. Patients who undergo chemotherapy may experience infertility, or the state wherein your ability to conceive a child is gone or low and also Chemotherapy has a risk that the cancer may reemerge after some time after treatment. 

Jose has uncontrollable shakes, nausea, and vomiting when he does not drink. he would be classified as

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Jose is Alcohol Dependent!

Hope this helps!
-Madi

Describe 5 ways you can set the stage for effectively gathering information

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•The patient, through interview, observations, and physical examination.
•Family members or significant others' reports and response to interviews.
•Other members of the health care team.
•Medical record information (e.g., patient history, laboratory work, x-ray film results, multidisciplinary consultations).
•Scientific literature (evidence about assessment techniques and standards).

How many known STIs exist today? A. less than 5 B. less than 10 C. less than 20 D. more than 20

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Final answer:

There are more than 20 known STIs today, with genital herpes and trichomoniasis often going unnoticed due to being asymptomatic. While condoms reduce the risk, they cannot completely prevent all STIs.

Explanation:

The question regarding the number of known sexually transmitted infections (STIs) today can be answered with option D, which states there are more than 20 known STIs currently identified. We understand this based on various sources, such as the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, which track and report on the prevalence and types of STIs.

Additionally, it is worth noting that STIs can be asymptomatic, meaning that individuals may not show symptoms. Two STIs that often go unnoticed due to the lack of symptoms include genital herpes and trichomoniasis. Moreover, while condoms can significantly reduce the transmission risk of STIs, it's crucial to state that their proper use cannot completely prevent the transmission of all STIs, which makes education and awareness even more important.

There are more than 20 known sexually transmitted infections (STIs) today. Option D. is correct.

According to the World Health Organization, there are over 30 different STIs. Some of the most common STIs worldwide include genital herpes, HPV, trichomoniasis, chlamydia, gonorrhea, HIV, and syphilis.

A nurse suspects an infant may have a tracheoesophageal fistula or esophageal atresia. what is the most important intervention by the nurse?

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The most important intervention to be made by the nurse if she suspects that an infant may have a tracheoesophageal fistula or esophageal atresia is to administer oxygen needed based on the infant's oxygen saturation level or arterial gas blood result. She should maintain an open pathway for the air to freely come inside.

What court decision established the right of patients to express their desires about medical treatment on advance?

Answers

The answer is Cruzan v. Director, Missouri Department of Health. This was a case during the 1990. It was a milestone in the United States Supreme Court case concerning a young inept adult. This was the first “right to die" case ever heard by the Court, Cruzan was debated on December 6, 1989 and decided on June 25, 1990. In a 5–4 decision, the Court declared the earlier ruling of the Supreme Court of Missouri and ruled in favor of the State of Missouri, finding it was acceptable to require "clear and convincing evidence" of a patient's requests for removal of life support. A significant conclusion of the case was the making of advance health directives.

Answer: Cruzan v. Director, Missouri Department of Health

Explanation: In Cruzan, Missouri was permitted to reject the petition to withdraw life support in this particular case, as the proof about the patient’s wishes, which hadn’t been expressed in writing, didn’t meet the “clear and convincing evidence” standard that Missouri required. (*Based on Cruzan, however, the right of patients to express their wishes directly in an advance medical directive is established*). Patients may decide in advance of suffering from a terminal condition or persistent vegetative state to refuse medical treatment and artificial hydration and nutrition. The details of how the wishes are expressed, however, are a function of state law.

describe some measures you can take to come to improve the nutritional content of meals in fast food restaurants

Answers

Keep portion sizes small

If the fast-food restaurant offers several sandwich sizes, pick the smallest. Bypass hamburgers with two or three beef patties, which can be close to 800 calories. Choose instead a regular- or children's-sized hamburger, which has about 250 calories. And skip the large serving of french fries and ask for a small serving instead. This switch alone can save 200 calories.

Choose healthier side dishes

Take advantage of the healthy side dishes offered at many fast-food restaurants. For example, instead of french fries choose a side salad with low-fat dressing or a baked potato. Or add a fruit bowl or a fruit and yogurt option to your meal.

Other healthy choices include apple or orange slices, corn on the cob, steamed rice, or baked potato chips.

Ramon has been diagnosed with panic attacks and has been prescribed an anti-anxiety drug to help relieve his symptoms. he has most likely been prescribed ________, and he may experience ________ as a side effect. prozac; nausea lithium; addiction valium; drowsiness xanax; seizures back next submit

Answers

Ramon has been diagnosed with panic attacks and has been prescribed an anti-anxiety drug to help relieve his symptoms. He has most likely been prescribed __________, and he may experience __________ as a side effect.

A.Valium; drowsiness

B. Prozac; nausea

C. lithium; addiction

D. Xanax; seizures

Answer:

Valium; drowsiness.

Explanation:

Valium (Diazepam) is a medicine often prescribed for the treatment of Panic Syndrome, as well as other substances in the benzodiazepine class. Drowsiness is an adverse reaction often cited by patients using benzodiazepines, occurring predominantly at the beginning of treatment and usually disappearing with prolonged administration.

Events that cause strong emotional reactions are called _____.

Answers

I believe events that cause strong emotional reactions are called triggers. 

Describe the process by which an environmental protection act is created and enforced

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Responses will vary. A sample response follows: Before a protection act is created, the US Congress must first pass a law to allow its creation. From there, the Environmental Protection Agency creates appropriate regulations for enforcement by state and local authorities.
Final answer:

An environmental protection act is created through the legislative process, approved by the executive branch, and enforced by a government agency such as the EPA.

Explanation:

An environmental protection act is created and enforced through a process that involves the government and various stakeholders. Here are the steps involved:

The need for an environmental protection act is recognized either by the government or by public demand.Legislation is drafted and introduced in the legislative body, such as the Congress.The proposed act goes through the legislative process, including committee hearings, debates, and voting.If the act is passed by the legislative body, it is presented to the executive branch, which can be the president or a relevant government agency, for approval.Once approved, the act becomes a law and is enforced by the responsible government agency, such as the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).The enforcement includes monitoring compliance with the act, conducting inspections and investigations, and imposing penalties for violations.

Overall, the process involves a combination of legislative action, executive approval, and government enforcement to create and ensure the effectiveness of an environmental protection act.

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We commonly believe that benign tumors are not harmful. is this true or false? explain why you made that decision.

Answers

True. Benign is a word defining something is harmless. For example benign moles are moles that are not at risk, while benign tumors are not harmful.

Correct me if Im wrong :)

The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a crisis situation. the nurse recognizes that after feeling a sense of shock, the client will go through a period of recoil in which the client

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Is at the time unconscious and unable to feel what is being done to the body to keep resistance at a minimal.

Which of the following is not a type of psychiatric drug?

A. Antilipemics
B. Antipsychotics
C. Antimanics
D. Antidepressants

Answers

A. Antilipemics you can get all those drugs but antilipemitcs

The family of an 87-year-old female has called 911. she is confused and exhibiting improper and out of character behavior. they inform you that she is a diabetic, but takes pills and not insulin. they also state that he has been complaining of dizziness and has been drinking water nonstop as well as urinating. assessment reveals adequate breathing, skin that is cool, and a radial pulse that is rapid and weak. based on this history, you should be suspicious of and treat her for:

Answers

The family of an 87-year-old female has called 911. she is confused and exhibiting improper and out of character behavior. they inform you that she is a diabetic, but takes pills and not insulin. they also state that he has been complaining of dizziness and has been drinking water nonstop as well as urinating. assessment reveals adequate breathing, skin that is cool, and a radial pulse that is rapid and weak. based on this history, you should be suspicious of and treat her for:
- elevated blood sugar.

Explain how the medical assistant can ensure the identified aspects of quality laboratory testing can be met. Provide specific examples

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Answer - Medical assistant ensure the quality of laboratory testing is by
1. Draw Blood when Doctor orders upon blood work
2. They process samples by making sure the packaging and shipping process get to the right location in proper areas.

Reasoning - These are few of the reasons of what medical assistant do when drawing blood and taking measures towards to securing a safe package to destination of the areas.

Why does huntington's disease have a heritability ratio of 1.0?

Answers

Huntington's disease is inherited autosomal dominantly. Since it dominant gene, you only need one of the alleles to make it expressed. Heritability of Huntington's disease is ranged from 50%-100%
If one of the parents is heterozygous (one defect gene, one normal) then 50% of the child will get it. If both parents are heterozygous (both defective gene) then 75% of the child will get the disease.
If the parent is homozygous (both defective gene) then 100% of the child will get the disease.

In this case, you must mean that the parent is homozygous. The ratio became 100% because the parent certainly give defective gene, and one defective gene is enough for the disease.

Jane is four months pregnant. when describing how her baby is developing, jane is most likely talking about changes that occur during the ________ period

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fetal period I think is the best answer...

Jane is four months pregnant. when describing how her baby is developing, jane is most likely talking about changes that occur during the prenatal period.

What is the Prenatal period?

The prenatal period may be characterized as a type of period that involves the time before the birth of organisms. This period involves the development and growth of the embryo and of the fetus during a viviparous animal's gestation.

According to the context of this question, the nutritional needs of women are high during this time. Because a woman may not know that she is pregnant, she may be poorly nourished.

There are three stages of prenatal development. It includes germinal, embryonic, and fetal. Each of these stages has specifically attributed with respect to the duration and the development of the embryo.

Therefore, Jane is four months pregnant. when describing how her baby is developing, jane is most likely talking about changes that occur during the prenatal period.

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The study of kidney function is an example of __________.

Answers

Organ physiology 
I think this is right

Final answer:

The study of kidney function falls under the branch of medicine known as nephrology, which uses various tests to assess renal function, including urine and blood tests.

Explanation:

The study of kidney function is an example of nephrology, which is a branch of medicine that deals with the diseases of the kidneys. Renal function tests are important in nephrology to determine the state of the kidney and its role in renal physiology. These tests, which include urine samples and blood samples, are essential for assessing how well the kidneys are performing their vital functions. A variety of tests such as concentrating capacity of the kidney, excretion of dyes, and clearances of substances are used to evaluate kidney function. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) and the need for kidney dialysis underscore the importance of understanding renal function. A nephrologist is a specialist who is trained to study these kidney diseases and manage the conditions that arise from them.

The determination of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is crucial for assessing the excretory function of the kidneys. An estimated GFR can help guide the dosing of medications that are primarily excreted by the kidneys to prevent toxic accumulations. Moreover, a simple routine urinalysis can serve as a preliminary screening tool for potential kidney problems, and further tests such as the determination of concentration or the presence of protein in urine can provide more specific diagnoses. The concentration test is a specific example where the ability of kidneys to reabsorb filtered water is measured, indicating function.

Jesse has an internal locus of control if, after being involved in a car accident, he believes the accident was due to

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in this case, Jesse  believes the accident was due to his own lack of concentration.
People with internal locus of control tend to believe that every outcomes that happened to them are something that could be influenced by themselves. People who have an internal locus of control are commonly the people that will be really successful in their career.

If you wanted to identify how glucose (sugar) is metabolized in the brain, which imaging technique would you use?

Answers

The answer is PET (positron emission tomography) scan.  It lets doctors measure a variety of activity including blood flow, blood volume, oxygen usage, tissue pH (acidity), glucose (sugar) metabolism, and drug activity. PET is very beneficial in watching the activity of cancerous tumors. Because malignant cells grow at such a fast degree, they absorb more sugar than normal cells. Sugar can be added to a radioactive substance, and the PET scan can detect the areas of the brain through which the sugar flows. This way the doctor can give a preview into how aggressive a tumor is or how its growth is slowed by treatment remedies.

what is NCLEX-RN examinatrion

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The NCLEX exam, also known as the National Council Licensure Examination, is a standardized exam that each state board of nursing uses to determine whether or not a candidate is prepared for entry-level nursing practice. But your first step is to successfully complete an accredited nursing degree.
its a standardized exam that each state board of nursing uses to determine whether a candidate is ready or not for entry-level nursing practice

It is estimated that it could take up to ____ for your liver to get rid of the alcohol in one standard drink.

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Final answer:

The liver can metabolize the alcohol from one standard drink in about one hour, but this can vary depending on factors like gender. Also, negative effects from heavy drinking are separate from metabolism rates.

Explanation:

It is estimated that it could take up to one hour for your liver to get rid of the alcohol in one standard drink. Alcohol is removed from the bloodstream by a series of metabolic reactions that first transform it into acetaldehyde, which is then metabolized into other products. The removal rate varies depending on many factors such as gender, with women tending to metabolize alcohol slightly slower than men. It's also important to note that the effects and potential damage from heavy or binge drinking are separate from the rate of alcohol metabolism.

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The acute inflammatory response is part of which immune system?

Answers

Innate immune system, generally called the non-specific safe structure or in-conceived insusceptibility framework, is a vital subsystem of the overall immune system that includes the cells and mechanisms that safeguard the host from contamination by different life forms. The cells of the innate system recognize and respond to pathogens in a generic way, but, unlike the adaptive immune system, the system does not provide long-lasting immunity to the host.
Final answer:

The acute inflammatory response is a function of the innate immune system, which acts quickly to combat pathogens with a non-specific defense mechanism.

Explanation:

The acute inflammatory response is part of the innate immune system, which is a critical component of the human body's first line of defense against pathogens. Unlike the adaptive immune system, which creates specific responses tailored to a particular pathogen, the innate immune system provides quick, non-specific responses to a broad range of pathogens. This includes the inflammation mechanism, which works to bring fluids and cells to a site of infection or injury, both to fight against the causative agent, like pathogens, and to promote healing. Inflammation can be acute, a short-term response to an immediate threat, or can become chronic if the underlying cause persists, potentially leading to further health issues.

A client with an allergic disorder calls the nurse and asks what treatment is available for allergic disorders. the nurse explains to the client that there is more than one treatment available. what treatments would the nurse tell the client about?

Answers

Primarily the medicine treatments or shots because over the counter drugs is a last resort if the user shows no progression in this type of case.

Final answer:

Allergic disorders can be treated with antihistamines for mild symptoms, epinephrine for severe reactions like anaphylaxis, and immunotherapy to potentially cure or reduce long-term allergic responses.

Explanation:

Treatments Available for Allergic Disorders-

A variety of treatments are available for managing allergic disorders. For mild allergy symptoms, antihistamines are commonly prescribed. These medications work by reducing or eliminating the effects of histamines, which are responsible for allergy symptoms like sneezing, itching, and runny nose.

In cases where allergies are severe, leading to a condition known as anaphylaxis, immediate emergency medical care is crucial. This typically involves the administration of epinephrine to rapidly reverse the symptoms. Additionally, another treatment option, especially for chronic allergy sufferers, is immunotherapy, also known as allergy shots. This method involves introducing small and then gradually increasing amounts of the allergen to desensitize the immune system over time. For long-term treatment, immunotherapy can be beneficial, particularly for those with allergies to substances like pollen and insect stings. A healthcare provider may order skin tests to determine the specific allergens before initiating immunotherapy.

Carlita works with patients in a healthcare facility. She is overwhelmed with the week’s tasks and can’t seem to figure out what to do first. Further, she finds herself picking up the slack for tasks she is not even responsible for. It gets worse; the credit card machine has been broken for a few days, leaving Carlita manually filling out credit card forms for patients. She realizes that between the credit card forms, the additional tasks and getting behind, she has incorrectly filled a prescription and made an error inputting data. She becomes overwhelmed with emotions.
Carlita stops herself from barging into her supervisor’s office to vent about her frustrations as she realizes that nothing good could from it. Instead, she takes her break a few minutes early, steps outside for some fresh air to calm down and get to the root of her problems before confronting her supervisor. Carlita eventually sits down with her supervisor and the two come up with ideas to resolve her problems.
Discussion Prompt:

What series of events lead to Carlita’s mistake?
What suggestions could you give her?
What challenges are you experiencing that can relate to Carlita’s experience?
Respond to your classmates’ post about the challenges they are facing.
Encourage them by sharing how you believe the challenge can turn into learning opportunities?
Be positive in your feedback and offer additional advice about strategies you believe will help.

Answers

What series of events lead to Carlita’s mistake?
1) Being undermanned. Carlita finds herself picking up the slack for tasks she is not even responsible for.
2) Credit card machine breakdown. Carlita manually has to fill out credit card forms for patients.

What suggestions could you give her?
1) Find people to help her out. Delegate tasks to others who can perform it better or faster.
2) Prioritize jobs according to urgency and importance.
It may seem tedious but she must have a written list on things to do based on urgency and importance. She must cross out tasks that have been completed to avoid redundancy.

Always keep a calm disposition. The more stress you are putting on yourself, the more inefficient you will become. Focus on the task at hand to ensure that you are doing everything correctly without jeopardizing yourself and others. 

Carlita's mistake was due to excessive workload, broken equipment, and undue tasks, highlighting the need for prioritization and clear communication with supervisors. Similarly, Patricia faces isolation at work, signifying a necessity for clarification and support from management. Through proactivity and reflection, both situations present opportunities for personal and professional development.

Carlita's mistake was caused by a combination of excessive workload, the failure of equipment such as the credit card machine, and ancillary tasks beyond her responsibility. The accumulation of stress and high demands contributed to her becoming overwhelmed, leading to errors in prescription filling and data input.

It's crucial in these situations to prioritize tasks, communicate with supervisors about workload and seek support, and implement strategies to prevent mistakes before they occur. Time management and delegation strategies, along with regular breaks, can help alleviate the burden and promote efficiency and accuracy.

Patricia in another scenario faces workplace challenges that include feeling isolated, sidelined, and receiving a lack of support from supervisors. It's vital for Patricia to seek clarification on her work situation, to establish open communication with management, and to explore opportunities for professional development that may be available. Additionally, personal self-care and potentially outside advice, like counseling, could be beneficial.

Miriam's story illustrates the importance of reflective practice and proactive problem-solving over passive responses. By choosing to reflect on the situation and take active steps, Miriam can improve her situation, learn from the experience, and ultimately benefit her academic and professional growth.

In healthcare settings where similar challenges occur, like in the case of Connie the charge nurse, the need for clear communication, thorough knowledge of patients' needs, and being proactive in resolving issues is emphasized. This ensures quality patient care and maintains professional standards.

Andy should say no to the beer in a firm voice and ask for a nonalcoholic drink instead./4164936/6088a56a?utm_source=registration

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

health

the question of how to practice morality falls under the category of

Answers

Psychological health

Answer: Normative Ethics

Explanation: Normative ethics involves determining the moral standards that regulate right and wrong conduct. There are three theories of normative ethics: virtue theory, duty theory, and consequentialist theory. Virtue theory pertains to the character of a person as displayed by the virtues that he or she possesses. Duty theory pertains to a person’s obligations from the standpoint of morality. Consequentialist theory is based on the consequences of people’s actions based on their own ethics and morals. PF

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