After teaching a group of students about drugs used as antianginal agents, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which as a beta-blocker antianginal agent?

Answers

Answer 1
The answer is Nadolol

Related Questions

A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. the client's diabetes mellitus previously had been well controlled with glyburide daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose level has been 180 to 200 mg/dl (10.2 to 11.4 mmol/l). which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

Answers

There are several medicines that when taken will have a side effect such as the increase of blood sugar. These medications if taken by a patient with diabetes will suffer hyperglycemia. Thus, patients with diabetes should inform the physician in charge about the present condition before taking other medicines that will worsen his condition. These drugs include Barbiturates for anxiety control, corticosteroids as an anti-inflammatory, diuretics for water retention, birth control pills, decongestants with beta-adrenergic agents and even it Vitamin B Niacin.

Final answer:

Glyburide may have contributed to the client's hyperglycemia.

Explanation:

The medication that may have contributed to the client's hyperglycemia is glyburide. Glyburide is a medication used to treat diabetes by lowering blood sugar levels. However, in some cases, the effectiveness of glyburide may decrease over time, leading to increased blood glucose levels.

What medical technique uses sound wave pulses and their reflections to map structures and organs inside the body?

Answers

ultrasound is the answer to the question

Answer:

ultrasound

Explanation:

A client admitted to the high-risk unit with a threatened abortion anxiously asks the nurse, "could this have happened because i had the flu?" how should the nurse respond?

Answers

The nurse should always respond in a respectful manner and help the patient understand it was nothing she did. The nurse should explain to the patient that a threatened abortion would happen over having the flu. The nurse should listen to the patient and help her with her fears and then have the doctor come in and explain what has happened. 

Describe why abstinence is the best choice. Be as detailed as possible

Answers

First, I think it's important you know that abstinence means to abstain (or completely refrain from) any sexual activity. 
This is one viewpoint that could easily be argued against.
Here's why a lot of schools of thought would claim its the best choice:
- not having sex is the only way to really guarantee that STDs and unwanted pregnancies won't occur
-STDs combined with pregnancies frequently produces offspring with special needs, and diseases
-condoms still have about a 2% rate of failure, so no matter what, you are still taking a risk by having sexual intercourse
-many religious systems value abstinence seeing it as more holy than engaging in sex

But it may be a good idea for you to address the counter-arguments: sex is frequently considered "good" for mental and physical health, but you could bring up this minor point and then dismiss it saying something along the lines of "while there are certainly benefits to engaging in sexual intercourse, the risks of having sex undoubtedly outweigh the benefits"
Hope that helps!

Abstinence is not the best choice, It teaches young kids in high school and college how to not have sex. Yes it can work to not have pregnancies, and catch disease but it is far from the best choice.

Abstinence is like having driver's ed where the only thing you're taught is "don't drive, and if you drive you will get in a car accident." How is that effective or helpful at all?  

people who are taught abstinence are MORE likely to become pregnant and get a sexually transmitted disease.  

Abstinence most of the time teaches that it is the only way to not get pregnant or catch an STD. However, contraceptives are reliable. Birth control is also something that almost alway prevents pregnancy, and accidents do happen all the time but there is the Plan B pill or the morning after pill if you forget to take birth control or use a condom.

Sexually Transmitted diseases can be acquired, even if those participating are not impregnated. Abstinence is a choice but if you take PrEP which is a once a day pill like a birth control it has proven to almost completely eliminate the chance of getting HIV. Some STDs will go away with treatment, but what many don't know is that many of them linger in your system, and once inside your bloodstream can occur again, or be passed on to others. WHich is why getting tested and open communication with partners is best so you can discuss together what precautions you want to use.  

Many young people also do not discuss past sexual partners which can lead to a slew of onset diseases. Which is perfectly fine not to discuss partners, but getting tested and talking with your partner is very important.  

Abstinence teaches you not to have sex, but it doesn't discuss how to say no to a partner or how to talk with a partner openly about your body or how to find what you want in a sexual partner. Sex has benefits, so teaching abstinence isn't the best choice, but it is a choice.

Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic bp cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm hg. the patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. the emt should:

Answers

The EMT should obtain a manual blood pressure. This is necessary in order to confirm that the initial reading is not a mistake. The accuracy of the automatic BP cuff has to be checked by comparing it to the manual reading. Appropriate steps are to be taken by the EMT depending on the reading obtained in the manual reading. 
Final answer:

When assessing the high blood pressure reading of 204/120 mmHg, the EMT should not ignore the severity and potential risks, and immediate action should be taken to ensure the patient's safety. Assessment of the patient's overall condition, signs and symptoms, and possible complications is crucial. Transporting the patient to a medical facility for further evaluation and management is important.

Explanation:

When assessing a patient's blood pressure with an automatic cuff and obtaining a reading of 204/120 mmHg, it is important to consider the severity of the hypertension and potential risks. The value indicates severe high blood pressure, also known as hypertensive crisis. In this situation, the EMT should not ignore the reading, but rather take immediate action to ensure the patient's safety.

An EMT should assess the patient's overall condition, including signs and symptoms of hypertensive emergency such as severe headache, chest pain, shortness of breath, or visual disturbances. The EMT should also monitor for complications like stroke, heart attack, or kidney failure. It is important to transport the patient to a medical facility for further evaluation and management.

Emergency medical protocols may vary, so it is essential for the EMT to consult their specific guidelines and protocols to determine the appropriate actions.

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Which tool should be used when transferring a patient from a bed to a wheelchair?

Answers

It depends if the patient can move themselves or if the can move themselves but with help of a nurse. The nurse will help the up with the wheelchair by their side and the sit them down, or the patient will use their eating board I forgot what they are called to help themselves up and to move to the chair. I hope this helps.

Public health protects which of the following?
communities

underprivileged individuals

children

the elderly

Answers

It helps communities

Answer:

Its Communities because I took the test Hope this helps and have a good day.

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of torsion of the testes. how should the nurse respond when the client asks, "why do i have to have surgery right now?"

Answers

The patient should be given an explanation that torsion of the testes is an emergency situation. The torsion causing blood vessel flow stopped, therefore causing the testes to not getting any oxygen or food. Not getting oxygen is like holding your breath. If left as it is, the testes cells will start to die.
Faster treatment can prevent the cells from dying.

If you have a bac of .10%, you are _______ times more likely to cause an accident than if you were sober

Answers

You are 7 times more likely to cause  an accident with a BAC  of 10%

Which types of burns require immediate medical care due?

Answers

Second and Third degree burns

Salina was terrified during the san francisco earthquake of 1989 (who wouldn't be!). for a couple of weeks after, she did not sleep well or feel comfortable inside a building. however, gradually the fears diminished, and they disappeared within a month. her reaction to the earthquake would most likely be diagnosed as a(n): panic attack. phobic reaction. acute stress disorder. posttraumatic stress disorder

Answers

The answer would be "Acute Stress Disorder" 

Dave is riding on a straight path. After 5 s, his speed is 3.0 m/s. After 7 s, his speed is 5.0 m/s. After 10 s, his speed is 7.0 m/s. What was his acceleration from 5 s to 10 s? A. 0.67 m/s2 B. 1.0 m/s2 C. 2.0 m/s2 D. 0.8 m/s2

Answers

In this given problem, to solve for the acceleration we have to assume that the acceleration is constant. This assumption helps us understand that the velocity of Dave follows a linear increase and hence we can use the formula below for calculating the acceleration:

a= (Vf – Vi) / t

where

Vf = final velocity = 7.0 m / s

Vi = intial velocity = 3.0 m / s

t = time elapsed = 10 s – 5 s = 5 s

Substituting the known values into the equation:

a = (7.0 m / s – 3.0 m / s) / 5 s

a = 0.8 m / s^2

 

Answer:

D. 0.8 m/s2

the aaron cohen life protection act was created to

Answers

Final answer:

The Aaron Cohen Life Protection Act is not referenced in the context given; instead, the Ryan White CARE Act and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 are highlighted as legislative responses to the AIDS epidemic.

Explanation:

The Aaron Cohen Life Protection Act is not mentioned in the provided information. However, the context pertains to a series of legislative responses to the AIDS epidemic. Following the release of a report by Reagan's Commission on AIDS advocating for the protection and support of individuals with HIV, several important laws were enacted, though not the Aaron Cohen Life Protection Act specifically. The report's recommendations included the expansion of funding and services to combat AIDS and preventive education. In response, Congress passed legislation in 1988 to establish a comprehensive federal program to address AIDS. The tragic death of Ryan White, a teenager with hemophilia who contracted HIV, prompted the creation of the Ryan White CARE Act in 1990, which provided funding for community-based care and treatment services. The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 was another significant piece of legislation, marking the first time federal law offered protection against discrimination for those living with HIV.

Final answer:

The Aaron Cohen Life Protection Act is not directly addressed in the provided context. Instead, it discusses the Ryan White CARE Act and the Americans with Disabilities Act, which were federal laws enacted to support and protect individuals with HIV/AIDS.

Explanation:

The Aaron Cohen Life Protection Act was not directly mentioned in the historical context provided. Instead, the context discusses the progression of federal legislation in response to the AIDS crisis during the late 1980s and early 1990s. The legislation that is specifically mentioned includes the Ryan White Comprehensive AIDS Resource Emergency (CARE) Act of 1990, which provided funding for community-based care and treatment services for those with HIV/AIDS following the death of Ryan White, and the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990, which offered protection against discrimination for those living with HIV.

chief capacity does vitamin K function

Answers

Answer: The chief capacity is which vitamin k functions is blood clotting.

Explanation: Vitamin k is synthesized in the body. It precipitate is the bones' protein synthesis. When a blood vessel is injured, platelets as well as this protein in the plasma create a blood clot to stop the bleeding.

Deficiency in vitamin k can lead to excessive bleeding.

In the event that sexual intercourse occurs without contraception, how might pregnancy be prevented?

A. By obtaining birth control pills

B. By using the "morning after" pill

C. By douching

D. By hormonal methods

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Correct Answer is Option B) By using the "morning after" pill. The most effective method to prevent pregnancy after unprotected sex is using the morning-after pill and is crucial to take it within 72 hours for maximum effectiveness.

In the event that sexual intercourse occurs without contraception, the most effective way to prevent pregnancy is by using the "morning-after pill" (Option B).

The morning-after pill is a form of emergency contraception that works primarily by temporarily preventing ovulation. It is important to take it as soon as possible after unprotected sex, ideally within 72 hours, for maximum effectiveness.Other options mentioned, like douching (Option C), are not effective for preventing pregnancy. Birth control pills (Option A) are not useful in immediate post-intercourse situations, and hormonal methods (Option D) refer to regular contraceptive methods rather than emergency solutions. The only method that is 100% effective at preventing pregnancy is abstinence.

What is a sign that a person may need help for a mental disorder?

Answers

signs of depression, acting out , isolating themselves from others
They are easily spotted or profiled as
Different.

A woman whose fat deposits are primarily in her abdominal area is at less risk for heart disease than her friend who carries more fat on her hips and thighs

Answers

This statement is false.

A medical term for abnormal, involuntary, spasmodic movements is:

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A medical term for abnormal, involuntary, spasmodic movements is dyskinesia.
Any type of involuntary movement falls under the category of dyskineasia - twitches, tics, chorea, slight tremors, or uncontrollable movement of any part of your body. There are many causes of this disorder, and it usually cannot be treated without medications.

A patient is suspected of having a pheochromocytoma and is having diagnostic tests done in the hospital. what symptoms does the nurse recognize as most significant for a patient with this disorder

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A patient is suspected of having a pheochromocytoma and is having diagnostic tests done in the hospital. What symptoms does the nurse recognize as most significant for a patient with this disorder?
- blood pressure varying between 120/86 and 240/130 mmHg

Blood pressure varying between 120/86 and 240/130 mmHg.

The tumor releases hormones that may cause high blood pressure, headache, sweating and symptoms of a panic attack.

What is pheochromocytoma?If someone have a pheochromocytoma, the tumor releases hormones that may cause high blood pressure, headache, sweating and symptoms of a panic attack. If a pheochromocytoma isn't treated, severe or life-threatening damage to other body systems can result.Phaeochromocytomas usually develop in the small glands on top of the kidneys i.e. adrenal glands

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"I understand that you don't want to do this" is an example of what kind of negotiation skill?

A. Trying to make it a win-win
B. Listening to the other person
C. Recognizing objections
D. Suggesting alternatives

Answers

C he is recognizeing they don't wanna do that

"I understand that you don't want to do this" is an example of C. Recognizing objections negotiation skill

What is the meaning of bargaining technology?

Negotiation techniques are the qualities that allow multiple parties to reach a compromise. These are often smooth techniques such as communication, persuasion, planning, strategy establishment, and cooperation. Understanding these skills is the first step toward becoming a stronger negotiator.

Negotiation skills are unique characteristics that help two or more parties to agree on a common logical solution. You may need to demonstrate your negotiating skills in a variety of situations at work, including Negotiating a pay increase with a human resources manager after a promotion.

Bargaining or haggling is a type of negotiation wherein the client and supplier of an awesome or provider dispute the price and the precise nature of the transaction with the intention of coming to a settlement.

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Which of the following statements is NOT true about social changes during adolescence. A. During adolescence, social changes are caused by physical, emotional, and mental changes. B. During adolescence, many teens have greater responsibilities, which can include chores, good grades, and curfews. C. During adolescence, friendship circles change because of romantic relationships. D. During adolescence, friendships become more important, and teens tend to spend more time with their family than their friends.

Answers

D is correct because if friendships are more important then during adolescence teens would spend more time with friends than with family

the statements is NOT true about social changes during adolescence is the following statements is NOT true about social changes during adolescence.

Define Adolescence ?

Adolescence is the period of transition between childhood and adulthood.

Children who are entering adolescence are going via many changes (physical, cognitive, personality, and social developmental). Adolescence begins at puberty, which now occurs , on average, than in the before.

Thus, option "D" is correct.

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A client who is to receive general anesthesia has a serum potassium level of 5.8 meq/l (5.8 mmol/l). what should be the nurse's first response?

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A client who is to receive general anesthesia has a serum potassium level of 5.8 meq/l (5.8 mmol/l). what should be the nurse's first response?
the nurse should notify the anesthesiologist because a serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L places the client at risk for dysrhythmias when under general anesthesia.

The nurse should notify the anesthesiologist because a serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L places the client at risk for dysrhythmias when under general anesthesia.

What is Anesthesia?

It is possible to utilize anesthesia for simple procedures like teeth fillings. It might be applied to procedures like delivery. And both simple and major surgery make use of it.

A dentist, nurse, or doctor might occasionally provide anesthesia to you. You could require an anesthesiologist in other circumstances. This medical professional specializes in administering anesthesia.

An area of the body is made to feel numb via local anaesthetic. It might be applied to a tiny region surrounding a wound that requires suturing or a tooth that needs to be extracted.

Therefore, The nurse should notify the anesthesiologist because a serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L places the client at risk for dysrhythmias when under general anesthesia.

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Which of the following is not an example of a personal attitude toward a conflict

Answers

Future goals is not an example.

The answer to the question is Option C) future goals, as it is an aim rather than a personal attitude toward conflict. Personal attitudes include biases and prejudice. Future goals are not inherited personal viewpoints.

To determine which option is not an example of a personal attitude toward conflict, we need to understand what constitutes personal attitudes.

Personal attitudes include biases, prejudice, and how we perceive the importance of a conflict since these factors stem from personal beliefs and emotions. Future goals, however, are plans and intentions regarding what one hopes to achieve, not an inherent personal viewpoint on a conflict.

Conclusion:

Therefore, the correct answer is C. future goals as it is not a personal attitude but rather an objective that one aims to accomplish.

Complete Question:

Which of the following is NOT an example of a personal attitude toward a conflict

A level of importance

B. biases

C. future goals

D. prejudice

Please select the best answer from the choices provided.

A 34-week gestation pregnant client presents to Labor and Delivery complaining of a sudden onset of intense abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. An ultrasound reveals a partial abruption placentae. List three (3) risk factors for this condition and three (3) priority nursing interventions

Answers

Women who are in high risk of having a partial abruption placentae during their pregnancy are the following:
1) Above 35 years of age
2) have hypertension or pre eclampsia
3) pregrnant with twins or triplets.
4) In their 3rd trimester
5) experienced abdominal trauma

Placenta abruption is the separation of the placenta from its uterine lining. This is a very dangerous situation because the life of the mother and the child is on the line. Partial placenta abruption is the partial separation of the placenta from its uterine lining. 

In any event, constant monitoring is required to ensure that the fetus is not in distress. 
Pregnant women are advised to be on a bed rest. They also have to undergo transfusions and other emergency treatment to ensure the safety of both mother and child. 


Three (3) risk factors for partial abruption placentae:

High blood pressure during pregnancy. This condition also can lead to preeclampsia Infection inside of the uterus during pregnancyCarrying more than one baby. Risk is higher in my mother expecting twin or more.

Three (3) priority nursing interventions

HospitalizedBedrestBlood transfusion for severe bleeding

Further explanation

Placental abruption happens when the placenta partially or completely separates from the inner wall of the uterus before delivery. This can decrease the baby's supply of oxygen and nutrients and cause heavy bleeding in the mother. Placental abruption is most likely happen in the last trimester of pregnancy. Although the cause of this complication mostly unknown but some prevention can be made such as: monitor your high blood pressure during pregnancy, wearing a seat belt and avoid smoking and alcohol

Placental abruption can be a life-threatening either for the mother and the baby, so it is important to know the signs and symptoms of placental abruption. Vaginal bleeding is the main symptoms but some case there is no bleeding because the blood trapped behind the placenta. Other symptoms such as discomfort and back pain, abdominal pain, and uterine contractions. If you experience any of these, seek emergency help.  

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The first stage of labor https://brainly.com/question/4562553

Problem after delivery brainly.com/question/4376967

The second stage of labor brainly.com/question/1599733

Keywords: placenta abruption, pregnancy, complication during pregnancy,

What size laryngoscope blade should be used to intubate a newborn with an estimated gestational age of 30 weeks (estimated birth weight of 1,200 g)?

Answers

Laryngoscope blade that used to intubate a newborn with an estimated gestational age of 30 weeks should be Miller 0 size

Machintos blade is rarely used for child before 1 years old. Don't use the tube balloon since it can damage the newborn trachea.

The size of the laryngoscope blade that should be used to intubate a newborn with an estimated gestational age of 30 weeks (estimated birth weight of 1,200 g) is a size 00 Miller blade.

What is the laryngoscope blade?

The Miller blade is a straight blade that is used to lift the epiglottis and visualize the vocal cords. The size 00 Miller blade is the smallest size of Miller blade and is the most appropriate size for newborns with an estimated gestational age of 30 weeks or less.

If the newborn is larger than 1,200 g, a size 0 Miller blade may be used. If the newborn is smaller than 1,200 g, a size 000 Miller blade may be used.

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During your visual inspection of a 25-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. what should you do?

Answers

What you should do is apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers.
You should do this in order to make sure that the baby will come out slowly and in a controlled manner, without any complications to either the mother or the baby.

Air from the outside is:

warmed, dried and cleaned by the nose and mouth
cooled, dried and cleaned by the nose and mouth
cooled, moistened and cleaned by the nose and mouth
warmed, moistened and cleaned by the nose and mouth

Answers

Correct answer is:

D. Warmed, moistened, and cleaned by the nose and mouth.

Explanation:

Nostrils hairs and they are near very next to Nose and the hairs simply filter air a scarce by catching dust shreds from it. As air moves from the outside atmosphere to the lungs. It is purified in lungs by alveoli. Where a replacement of gases germinates.

What is the main reason that restaurants, offices, and other public places have separate areas for smokers?
to limit nonsmokers' exposure to second-hand smoke
to discourage people from taking up smoking
to deglamorize the use of tobacco
NextReset

Answers

A: To limit no smokers exposure to 2nd hand smoke
I had that question on a test and I said it was A.

A 2012 report from the U.S. Surgeon General stated: "Another common practice is strategically locating tobacco-related marketing materials where young children will be exposed to them. Tobacco industry executives acknowledge that products and advertising should be placed at eye level (Pollay 2007), but in California, 48% of stores had at least one cigarette marketing item at or below 3 feet from the floor (Feighery et al. 2001)." It was also noted that 25% of cigarette displays were next to candy. In addition, a national study found that about one-third of the stores had tobacco ads at low heights. After California banned counter displays, some stores place cigarettes in a see-through display so product brands could still be seen. What is the main reason that states like California ban counter displays of tobacco products?
To decrease opportunities for the shoplifting of these high-revenue items
To discourage underage tobacco use by limiting the advertisement and product placement
To ensure children don't accidentally purchase cigarettes thinking they are candy
To punish cigarette companies by hiding their products from the public

Answers

The correct option is option 3:
To ensure children don't accidentally purchase cigarettes thinking they are candy
That's wrong, it's B:
 To discourage underage tobacco use by limiting the advertisement and product placement.

An injured patron is responsive and bleeding. after summoning ems personnel, obtaining consent and putting on disposable gloves, what is your next care step?

Answers

your next care step should be: Press firmly against the wound with a sterile dressing and bandage
The patron will die if he/she lose too much blood. So, you need to press firmly against the wound in order to slow down the blood's outflow. 
You need a sterile dressing or bandage to do this in order to prevent potential infection from the contact.
Final answer:

After summoning help, obtaining consent, and putting on gloves, the next step for handling a responsive and bleeding patron would be to control the bleeding, potentially using a tourniquet depending on the severity of the injury.

Explanation:

After summoning EMS personnel, obtaining consent, and putting on disposable gloves, the next care step when an injured patron is responsive and bleeding would be to control the bleeding. This generally involves applying direct pressure to the wound, usually with a sterile dressing or clean cloth, and elevating the injury if it's on an arm or leg. Depending on the severity of the bleeding, a tourniquet may need to be used. It's also important to keep the person calm and reassured until EMS personnel arrive.

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