Answer:
The sun
Explanation:
This is because humans are heterotrophs, meaning they source their energy from the other organism by feeding on them. The food chains begin with primary producers that convert the energy from the sun into biomass through the process of photosynthesis. This energy rises up the food chain as the primary producers are fed on by consumers (humans included).
Which of the following is NOT involved in glycogen synthesis?GlycogeninAmylo-(1,4 to 1,6)-transglycosylaseGlycogen phosphorylaseUDP-glucoseGlycogen synthase
The correct answer is: Glycogen phosphorylase UDP-glucose
Steps of glycogen synthesis (glycogenesis) are:
• Glucose conversion into glucose 6-phosphate by the glucokinase enzyme
• Glucose-6-phosphate conversion into glucose-1-phosphate by the phosphoglucomutase enzyme
• Glucose-1-phosphate conversion into UDP-glucose by the enzyme UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase
• Creation of initial short glycogen chains by glycogenin
• UDP-glucose is added to the growing glycogen chain to the 4-hydroxyl group of the glucosyl residue by the glycogen synthase enzyme
• Branches are made by glycogen branching enzyme (amylo-α(1:4)→α(1:6)transglycosylase).
Glycogen phosphorylase is not involved in glycogen synthesis; it is involved in breaking down glycogen. Instead, enzymes like glycogen synthase, glycogenin, and amylo-(1,4 to 1,6)-transglycosylase play key roles in the synthesis of glycogen.
Explanation:The molecule that is NOT involved in glycogen synthesis is glycogen phosphorylase. This enzyme is actually involved in glycogen breakdown, not its synthesis. Glycogen synthesis involves several key enzymes and steps that include the phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate (G6P), isomerization to create glucose-1-phosphate (G1P), and the subsequent formation of UDP-glucose. Glycogen synthase then catalyzes the addition of UDP-glucose to the growing glycogen chain. Glycogenin serves as a primer for glycogen synthase and amylo-(1,4 to 1,6)-transglycosylase, also known as the glycogen branching enzyme, is responsible for introducing branches into the glycogen molecule.
what is carried to the body cells by blood? pick 2
salt
nutrients
oxygen
nitrogen
Hey, it’s Nutrients and Oxygen
Years of smoking and exposure to air pollutants can contribute to the incidence of
Hello there!
Your answer would be lung cancer, chronic bronchitis, emphysema and asthma.
Years of smoking and exposure to air pollutants can contribute to the incidence of lung cancer, chronic bronchitis, emphysema and asthma.
Lung cancer is one of the factors that is caused by smoking and air pollutants. This happens when too much lung cells are being produced in the lungs at once, which causes cancer cells to grow, this would form a tumor in the lung. There are many treatments that could be taken to remove this tumor. This is one of the things that are caused by smoking and air pollutants.
Chronic Bronchitis is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants. This also involves the lungs. Chronic Bronchitis is a disease in the lungs that caused inflammation in them, which is very dangerous to the human body. Growth of mucus, coughing, and etc are symptoms of this. This is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants.
Emphysema is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants. This is a disease that causes the alveoli (a balloon shaped pass way in the raspatory system) to over swell. This mostly causes a shortness of breath to a person. This is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants.
Asthma is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants. This condition is very common to people who have smoked, been around smoke, or has been around places whose air is very polluted. This conditions causes the airways to clog up, which makes it hard to breathe. This is another factor that is caused by smoking and air pollutants.
What kind of habitat did tiktaalik live in?
Tiktaalik roseae was discovered in sediments on Ellesmere Island in Nunavut, Artic Canada (Ahlberg and Clack, 2006). The sediments it was found in are from what is known as the Fram Formation, which is thought to be deposits of lowland streams (Murphy, 2005). hope it helps
What condition should be met for the stellar parallax method to be useful?
A.the star should be situated within the Milky Way
B.the star should be brighter than the Sun
C.the star should be close enough to the Sun to show a measurable parallax
D.the star should be visible with the naked eye
Answer: c
Explanation:
Answer:
The answer is: C. the star must be close enough to the Sun to show measurable parallax.
Explanation:
In the field of astronomy, parallax is called stellar parallax in distant stars.
The stars for which parallax measurements have been made are those that are relatively close to the sun on the galactic scale.
The answer is: C. the star must be close enough to the Sun to show measurable parallax.
What does the Magnuson Stevens Act deal with?
A.
setting up of marine sanctuaries
B.
prevention of overfishing
C.
regulating disposal of materials into the ocean
D.
protection of marine mammals
The main concern of the Act is that it explains the role of regional fishery management councils and describes their functions and operating procedures. The Magnuson Stevens Act was established in 1976 for
B. prevention of overfishing
Answer:
The Magnuson Stevents Act deals with:
B. prevention of overfishing
Explanation:
The Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act is a legal provision that seeks the optimal exploitation of the United States coastal fisheries enacted in 1976. It is oriented to aim for sustainability and the preservation of resources to take care of them so the ecosystems can be recovered and allow exploitation in further times. It is a very good act that secures United States ecosystems to be exploited and maintained.
With regard to the process of neural transmission, a refractory period refers to a time interval in which:
a. a brief electrical charge travels down an axon.
b. an individual reflexively withdraws from a pain stimulus.
c. chemical messengers go across the synaptic gaps between neurons.
d. a neuron recharges before it can fire again.
d. a neuron recharges before it can fire again.
Explanation;Refractory periods are a short phase in time following an action potential where another action potential cannot be generated. It is the period immediately following the transmission of an impulse in nerve or muscle, in which a neuron or muscle cell regains its ability to transmit another impulse. There are two types of refractory period, that is the absolute refractory period and the relative refractory period. Absolute refractory period is the first part of a refractory period during which, the neuron will not fire again no matter how great the stimulation and this only lasts for a short time.Relative refractory period occurs when a stronger than usual stimulus is required to trigger the action potential before the neuron returns to resting state.The refractory period is a time after an action potential when it is difficult or impossible for another to be fired due to the need for the neuron to return to its resting state.The correct option is d.
The refractory period refers to the time interval after an action potential in which a neuron or muscle cell cannot regenerate another action potential. This period is vital for the neuron to return to its resting potential. During the absolute refractory period, no additional action potentials can be initiated regardless of the stimulus because the voltage-gated sodium channels are either open or in an inactivated state. During the relative refractory period, a neuron can in principle fire again, but only by a much stronger stimulus, due to the movement of potassium ions out of the cell which causes hyperpolarization.
Can anyone tell me the answer?
bpwhamburgorchardpark.org Has a short video on it.
Thye answer should be A.)
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in homozygous recessives that causes death during the teenage years. If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease, what are the expected frequencies of the dominant (A1) and recessive (A2) alleles according to the Hardy-Weinberg model? f(A1) = 0.9800, f(A2) = 0.0200 f(A1) = 0.9700, f(A2) = 0.0300 f(A1) = 0.9997, f(A2) = 0.0003 f(A1) = 0.9604, f(A2) = 0.0392
The correct answer is: f(A2) = 0.0300 f(A1) = 0.9997
If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the disease, that means that the frequency of recessive homozygous is 9/10000=0.0009.
According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium p2+2pq+q2=1 (p+q=1) where p2 is frequency of dominant homozygous (only p is dominant allele), 2pq is frequency of heterozygous and q2 is the frequency of recessive homozygous (only q is the frequency of recessive allele). This means that q2=0.0009 and (A2) q=0.03. p (A1)=1-0.03=0.97
he majority of Earth's atmosphere is nitrogen, N2. The percentage of nitrogen in Earth's atmosphere remains constant as prescribed by the law of conservation of matter and because it is a reasonably non-reactive gas. Like carbon, nitrogen is cycled through Earth's spheres. However, nitrogen can be converted into forms usable by plants and animals, either by lightning or bacteria. Once converted to usable forms, nitrogen is able to cycle the rest of the way through the ecosystem. Much like carbon, the recycling of nitrogen through Earth's spheres relies heavily on what type of organism? A) autotrophs B) decomposers C) parasites D) producers
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Decomposers such as Cellulomonas bacteria convert the nitrogen in the dead matter into ammonia while Nitrosomonas bacteria convert the ammonia into nitrites that are absorbed by plants as nutrients. In addition, nitrobacters convert the nitrites to nitrates also absorbed by plants.
What are two main types of posttranscriptional modifications that take place in the mRNA of eukaryotes?The excision of the introns and the addition of a 7-mG cap to the 3' end.The addition of a poly-T sequence at the 5' end of the gene and the addition of a poly-U tail at the 3' end.The addition of a 7-mG cap at the 5' end of the transcript and the addition of a poly-A sequence at the 3' end of the message.The addition of a poly-A sequence at the 5' end and the addition of a 7-mG cap at the 3' end of the RNA transcript.
The correct answer is: The addition of a 7-mG cap at the 5' end of the transcript and the addition of a poly-A sequence at the 3' end of the message
These posttranscriptional processes are called:
• 5’ capping - It protects the mRNA from 5' degradation by exonucleases. Cap is also involved in ribosomal binding.
• Polyadenilation or addition of poly(A) tail – It also protects mRNA from degradation of 3’exonucleases. A long poly(A) tail can also increase translation.
A national caterer determined that 87% of the people who sampled their food said that it was delicious. a random sample of 144 people is obtained from a population of 5000. the 144 people are asked to sample the caterer's food. if modifyingabove p with caretp is the sample proportion saying that the food is delicious, what is the mean of the sampling distribution of modifyingabove p with caretp?
The survey has only 2 answers- yes or no- and these answers are non-numeric, and therefore catigorical. Categorical data cannot be represented by a distribution curve so no, the data cannot have a normal distribution. If on the other hand the people were asked to rate the food on a numeric scale ( say, 1 to 10 or 1 to 100) you could plot the responses and get a distribution curve, which could be normal.
which of these is required for natural selection?
A.)All individuals of a population must be identical.
B.)There must be a small number of individuals in a population.
C.)There must be variation among the members of a population.
D.)A population of individuals must forced out of their natural habitat.
c, variation is the answer
What is the primary driving force for glucose transport into proximal tubule cells?
The correct answer is: sodium gradient
It is very important for glucose to be transported into proximal tubule cells (reabsorbed) because that is the way to prevent it from disappearing from the body through the urine.
Glucose is co-transported with sodium ions into the proximal tubule via the SGLT2 cotransporter. This cotransporter is an example of secondary transport because it uses the energy from downhill sodium ion gradient created by the ATPase pump to transport glucose.
The primary driving force for glucose transport into proximal tubule cells is secondary active transport, involving a Na+/glucose symporter that uses the Na+ gradient created by Na+/[tex]K^+[/tex] ATPase to transport glucose against its gradient.
The primary driving force for glucose transport into proximal tubule cells of the kidneys is secondary active transport. This process utilizes a Na+/glucose symporter, which co-transports sodium ions and glucose molecules across the apical membrane of the proximal tubule cells. The energy for this process comes from the sodium ion gradient established by the Na+/[tex]K^+[/tex] ATPase pump, which maintains a low intra-cellular sodium concentration by actively pumping sodium out of the cell.
Secondary active transport is so named because it relies on the primary active transport mechanism of the ATPase pump to create the sodium gradient necessary for the symporter function. The SGLT proteins use the energy released as sodium moves down its electrochemical gradient to transport glucose against its own gradient into the cell. Once inside, glucose exits the cell into the bloodstream via the basolateral membrane through GLUT transporters, by the process of facilitated diffusion.
When grass is randomly distributed throughout an environment, a population of deer that eats grass is most likely to have a _____ pattern. A) grouped B) uniform C) clumped D) random
Answer:
Random distribution.
Explanation:
The distribution of the population in space across an area is largely driven by the food and other resources in the environment. Uniform, random and clumped are the main distribution pattern.
The grass is distributed randomly in the environment, the population of deer is most likely to have random distribution pattern. Since, the distribution pattern depends upon the food resources so the deer have random distribution in space.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
What are the lengths of the legs of a right triangle in which one acute angle measures 19° and the hypotenuse is 15 units long? A. 9 units, 12 units B. 11 units, 10.2 units C. 4.9 units, 15.8 units D. 4.9 units, 14.2 units E. 5.2 units, 14.1 units
The lengths of the legs of a right triangle is 4.9 units, 15.8 units and one acute angle measures 19° and the hypotenuse is 15 units long.
The answer is C. 4.9 units, 15.8 units
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
Option D, [tex]4.9[/tex] units
[tex]14.2[/tex] units
Explanation:
In a right angled triangle one angle is [tex]90[/tex]° while the sum of other two angle is [tex]90[/tex]°
Now if we go by the geometrical concepts
[tex]Sin (19) = \frac{base}{hypotenuse} \\[/tex]
Base length of the triangle is equal to
[tex]15 * sin 19\\= 4.9[/tex] units
As per the rule of Pythagorean theorem -
[tex](Hypotenuse)^2 = (Base length)^2 + ( Vertical side length)^2\\[/tex]
Substituting the values in above equation, we get -
[tex](15)^ 2 = (4.9)^2 + X^2\\X = \sqrt{(15)^2 - (4.9)^2} \\X = \sqrt{200.99} \\X = 14.2[/tex] units
How did scientists discover that rocks farther away from the mid- ocean ridge were older than those near it?
Scientist discovered that rocks farther away from the mid-ocean ridge were older than those near it by determining the age of rock samples obtained by drilling on the sea floor.
hope that helps
Notice the population of beetles. The allele for color is seen on their backs: green and brown alleles. Over time, through random chance, the gene pool of the beetle population changes. Eventually the gene pool contains only green alleles. This is an example of A) gene flow. B) adaptation. C) genetic drift. D) natural selection.\
The situation where a beetle population's gene pool changes to contain only green alleles through random events is an example of genetic drift, a process where allele frequencies can shift due to chance, leading to gene fixation in some cases. C) genetic drift. is the correct option.
The scenario described in the student's question, where over time, through random chance, the gene pool of the beetle population changes eventually containing only green alleles is an example of genetic drift. Genetic drift can lead to the elimination of alleles from a population purely by chance, as described in Figure 19.2B.1, where a natural event, like a wildfire, may selectively destroy certain individuals regardless of their genetic traits. This can result in significant changes in the allele frequencies in a population, especially in small populations, where chance events can have larger impacts. Similarly, gene fixation can happen when certain alleles become more prevalent solely due to random sampling of organisms that reproduce, as depicted in Figure 19.1 A. 1. This is different from natural selection, which involves traits conferring a survival or reproductive advantage, thereby increasing the frequency of those advantageous alleles over time.
Most farms were once tilled by animals pulling plows. Today, mechanized plows can quickly till large areas of land. How have mechanized plows most likely affected modern agriculture? A. Mechanized plows allow a wider variety of crops to be planted on a farm. B. Mechanized plows help decrease erosion. C. Mechanized plows help improve a farm's soil quality. D. Mechanized plows allow larger areas to be farmed by a single farmer.
Answer:
The correct answer is "Mechanized plows allow larger areas to be farmed by a single farmer."
Explanation:
Mechanized plows allow large areas of land to be plowed quickly. A further benefit is that mechanized plows do not fatigue as people and animals do. Because of this, mechanized plows help contribute to the increasing size of modern farms.
Answer:
Mechanized plows allow larger areas to be farmed by a single farmer.
Explanation:
i did it and got it wright
what is a consequence to the organism if helper-t cells are destroyed by a pathogen, such as HIV?
the immune system wouldn't be able to signal B cells to produce antibiotics and the T cells wouldn't be able to kill infected cells that are targeted.
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the evolutionary relationship between chordates and invertebrates?
a. chordates are most closely related to arthropods
b. chordates evolved from echinoderms
c. chordates are more closely related to echinoderms than to arthropods
d. chordates are most closely related to the tunicate type of echinoderms
The correct answer is: c. chordates are more closely related to echinoderms than to arthropods
The Closest nonchordate relatives to Chordates are Echinodermata. Hemichordates (such as acorn worms) and Echinodermata form the Ambulacraria which is the sister phylum of the Chordates.
Echinoderms and chordates are both deuterostomes, but the differences are that Echinoderm possess bilateral symmetry only as larvae, they have tube feet and their bodies are supported by calcite skeletons.
Answer:
Echinoderms and chordates are found on the same clade.
Explanation:
The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is peristalsis.
True
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Peristalsis is the wave-like motion of the walls of the alimentary canal that allow food to move along the lumen of the alimentary canal towards the posterior (anus). These waves are powered by the contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscles.
what would have happened if we had cut both the jellyfish glo gene and puc18 plasmid with the EcoR1 restriction enzymes
Final answer:
Cutting both the jellyfish glo gene and the pUC18 plasmid with EcoRI would create compatible sticky ends that could be ligated together, allowing jellyfish DNA to be integrated into the plasmid and potentially expressed in E. coli.
Explanation:
If both the jellyfish glo gene and the pUC18 plasmid are cut with the EcoRI restriction enzyme, both DNA samples would have sticky ends. These ends can anneal due to their complementary base sequences, which are specific to the EcoRI cutting pattern. When mixed with DNA ligase, the enzyme responsible for joining DNA fragments, a small number of the jellyfish DNA fragments would integrate into the pUC18 plasmid, creating a recombinant DNA plasmid. This plasmid could then be used to transform E. coli, potentially expressing the traits encoded by the inserted jellyfish DNA, such as bioluminescence if the glo gene is expressed.
Imagine a population of mice living at the beach where there is light-colored sand interspersed with patches of tall grass. In this scenario, light-colored mice blend in with the sand, and dark-colored mice can hide in the grass. Medium-colored mice, on the other hand, would not blend in with either the grass or the sand.
Is this Directional, Stabilizing, or Disruptive selection
C: disruptive selection
Medium-colored mice would not blend in with either the grass or the sand because of the Disruptive selection.
What is Disruptive selection?Disruptive selection may be defined as a type of selection in which individuals of the intermediate phenotype are less fit than those of both higher and lower phenotypes. Due to this, the extremes are favored.
In the question, light-colored mice blend in with the sand, as they get an advantage from light-colored sand while dark-colored mice can hide in the grass and are capable to survive in the ecosystem.
But the medium or intermediate-colored mice would not blend in with either the grass or the sand. As a result of this, they are less fit for surviving in the same condition.
Therefore, medium-colored mice would not blend in with either the grass or the sand because of the Disruptive selection.
To learn more about Disruptive selection, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/15397952
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The food oyramid suggest that a healthy diet consist of a large portion of cheese, butter, olive oil, or breads
I’m not 100% sure but I believe it’s breads since it’s the only food group
Answer:
OLIVE OIL
Explanation:
Although generally not considered to be alive,a _______ is studied alongside other microbes such as bacteria
The answer is virus it is considered to be alive
Cuts are ________ meaning an injury to the skin and the soft tissue underneath it
Cuts are injuries to the skin and underlying soft tissue, often caused by sharp objects, which can lead to infections if pathogens enter the body through the break in the skin.
Cuts are injuries to the skin and the soft tissue underneath it. Because the skin is the part that meets the world most directly, it is highly susceptible to injury. Common causes of skin injuries can be sharp objects, heat, or excessive pressure or friction. When the skin breaks from a cut, such as a paper cut, it allows a pathway for pathogens to enter the body. If untreated, this can lead to an infection, with the innate immune system responding to fight off the invading bacteria.
More severe skin damage can occur below its surface, in the subcutaneous layer known as the hypodermis, where infections like cellulitis can develop, causing redness and painful inflammation.
PLEASE HELP
Plants play an important role in the carbon cycle by producing carbohydrates. Which of the following organelles enables plants to make carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water?
Question options:
A cell wall
A central vacuole
A chloroplast
A nucleus
➷ The correct option would be a chloroplast. A chloroplast. A chloroplast allows light to be taken in to carry out photosynthesis and then form all necessary products.
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Answer:
A chloroplast
Explanation:
Chloroplasts are the cell organelles in which photosynthesis reactions occur, which use light energy to produce organic molecules. These important structures are found in green algae and plants. Chloroplasts are very important organelles for the functioning of the plant organism, through which plants play an important role in the carbon cycle, producing carbohydrates as they allow plants to produce carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water.
sects often have an outsider status in society?
true
false
your answer is true hope this helps
I think true is the correct answer. Hope this helps
Which of the following statements about mutualisms is FALSE? Organisms involved in a mutualism cannot survive without their partner. Mutualisms are subject to natural selection. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in nodules on the roots of soybeans are an example of a mutualistic interaction. The fitness of both species involved in a mutualistic interaction is increased by the interaction. Some mutualisms require a specific partner (one species), while others are less specific (any one of several different species).
False; Organisms involved in a mutualism cannot survive without their partner.
Explanation;Mutualisms are a form of symbiosis in which both symbiotic partners benefit from the interaction, often resulting in a significant fitness gain for either one or both parties.An obligate mutualist cannot survive without its partner while a facultative mutualist can survive on its own. In mutualism the action of natural selection on one species may cause selection to operate in new ways on the other. Mutualistic interactions, such that evolutionary changes in each species benefit the other speciesAnswer:
The correct answer is "Organisms involved in a mutualism cannot survive without their partner".
Explanation:
It is false that organisms involved in a mutualism cannot survive without their partner. A mutualism is defined as a relationship in biology and sociology where both individuals are benefited from it. Most mutualism relationships are facultative, which means that the organisms do not depend its survival from the relationship. For instance, the mutualism relationship between corals and symbiotic algae help both organisms to obtain nutrients, however corals and symbiotic algae can survive for themselves.