Answer:
Severe allergic response causes fluid loss from the blood, breathing difficulty and therefore, is life threatening.
Explanation:
The anaphylactic shock results from the type I allergic reactions during which the presence of an allergen triggers a severe response. It occurs since IgE antibodies are already present in the body. There is a release of histamine and other vasodilators. Vasodilation and increased permeability of the blood capillaries result in the loss of fluid from the blood. Constriction of airways of the lungs causes difficulty in breathing and weakens the heartbeat. Therefore, severe fluid loss from blood and constricted airways make it life-threatening.
Answer:
You will lose blood, and not be able to lead, which could result in death.
Refers to the basic processes by which sensory organs and the nervous system respond to stimuli in the environment, and _________ refers to the meaningful interpretations extracted from it.
Answer:
SENSATION refers to the basic processes by which sensory organs and the nervous system respond to stimuli in the environment, and Perception refers to the meaningful interpretations extracted from it.
Explanation:
The receptors present in the body at different locations sense the changes in inner and outer conditions. A particular receptor is activated by specific stimuli such as thermoreceptors sense the change in the temperatures. This process of detecting the stimuli is followed by the transduction of the stimuli and generation of nerve impulses to send the information to the central nervous system. The whole process is called sensation.
The sensory information sent to the central nervous system is processed and interpreted mainly in the cerebral cortex. This is called perception.
_______ is a technique that, using multiple electrodes on the scalp, measures changes in electrical activity across populations of many neurons in the brain.
Answer:
Electroencephalography (EEG)
Explanation:
EEG is an electrophysiological monitoring or an inferential measurement of brain activity.
It involves placing electrodes along the scalp and measures the voltage fluctuations resulting from ionic current within the neurons in the brain.
It is mostly used for the diagnosis of Epilepsy which is causes abnormal readings on the Electroencephalography. It can also be used to diagnose sleep disorders, coma, stroke and brain dead.
A pea plant is heterozygous (Aa) for seed color and heterozygous (Bb) for seed shape. Which statements are correct according to Mendel's principle of independent assortment? Select all that apply. a. A gamete that contains the dominant allele for seed color is equally likely to contain the dominant or the recessive allele for seed shape. b. A gamete that contains the dominant allele for seed color must also contain the dominant allele for seed shape.c. Possible gamete genotypes are AB or ab; each is equally likely to occur. d. A gamete that contains the dominant allele for seed color must also contain the recessive allele for seed shape. e. Each gamete will contain either a seed-color allele or a seed-shape allele, but not both.
Answer:
A is correct
Explanation:
Mendel's law of independent assortment states that alleles of a gene get separated or sorted into gametes independently of the alleles of
the other gene. In this case, two genes are involved, one coding for seed color (A) and the other for seed shape (B). Alleles A and B are dominant over alleles a and b respectively. Hence, a pea plant heterozygous for both genes will have a genotype AaBb.
According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, alleles A and a will randomly sort into gametes independently of alleles B and b. This will result in the production of four equally likely gametes with genotypes: AB, Ab, aB and ab. This shows that the gamete that receives the A allele will equally be likely to contain either B or b allele. The same applies for a allele as well.
Options B and D are wrong because it is not a must it occurs, it is just a possibility or likelihood that it does.
Option C is wrong because four equally likely combination of gametes are possible not two.
Option E is wrong because it does not conform to the law of independent assortment, in which both genes must be represented in each gamete.
Final answer:
According to Mendel's principle of independent assortment, a gamete that contains the dominant allele for seed color is equally likely to contain the dominant or the recessive allele for seed shape. Possible gamete genotypes are AB or ab, and each is equally likely to occur.
Explanation:
According to Mendel's principle of independent assortment, the correct statements are:
a. A gamete that contains the dominant allele for seed color is
equally likely to contain the dominant or the recessive allele for seed shape.
c. Possible gamete genotypes are AB or ab; each is equally likely to occur.
The principle of independent assortment states that genes do not influence each other with regard to the sorting of alleles into gametes. Therefore, the alleles associated with different traits, such as seed color and seed shape in this case, will sort independently of each other during gamete formation.
Compare and contrast the specific functions of hydrogen bonds in DNA molecules and hydrogen bonds in H2O molecules
Answer: STABILITY OF THE DNA MOLECULE.
MOLECULAR STRUCTURE OF DNA.
EASY SEPARATION OF DNA
HIGH BOILING POINT OF WATER
COHESIVE FORCE HOLDING WATER MOLECULE TOGETHER
Explanation: Although Hydrogen bonds are weak,they help in stabilising the DNA.
Hydrogen Bonds are weak bonds which connects the Nitrogen bases together in a DNA,which gives the structure of the DNA.
They also aids the Easy separation of a DNA molecule.
The Hydrogen bonds are the main factor that ensures that the boiling temperature of water is high.
Hydrogen bonds are cohesive in nature, they bind water molecules together through and cause it to resist heat and high temperature.
For each population description, identify which Hardy-Weinberg assumption is violated?
1. A small and isolated population of seals living in a stable environment with no genetic mutations.
2. A large population of fish where females mate with males based on size.
3. A population of birds with no genetic mutations that often mate with members of neighboring bird populations.
4. A large population of squirrels in a stable environment in which mating is random and the mutation rate is very low but constant.
5. A population of spiders living in an environment that strongly favors larger individuals.
Answer:
4. A large and isolated population of squirrels in a relatively stable environment in which no genetic mutations are occurring and mating between males and females is random.
Explanation:
1. A small and isolated population of seals living in a stable environment with no genetic mutations.❌
1. false
Hardy-Weinberg assumption is not violated for a small population as seen in this case.
2. A large population of fish where females mate with males based on size.❌
false
Hardy-Weinberg assumption is not violated for an instance where mating is not random as seen in this scenario.
3. A population of birds with no genetic mutations that often mate with members of neighboring bird populations.❌
False
Hardy-Weinberg assumption is not violated for where gene flow is seen among population in this scenario.
4. A large and isolated population of squirrels in a relatively stable environment in which no genetic mutations are occurring and mating between males and females is random.✔
True
Hardy-Weinberg assumption is violated for in this situation due to large population size.
5. A small population of spiders living in an environment that strongly favors larger individuals.❌
false
Hardy-Weinberg assumption is violated for a small population and natural selection occurring as its obvious in this case.
There are five primary Hardy-Weinberg assumptions:
A. no mutation,
B. random mating,
C. No gene flow,
D. infinite population size,
E. No selection.
If the assumptions are exempted in a gene, the population of that gene might undergo evolution causing a resultant change in the gene's allele frequencies.
For each population description, the Hardy-Weinberg assumption is violated -
1. Large population size 2. random mating 3. no gene flow 4. no mutation 5. no selection1. A small and isolated population of seals living in a stable environment with no genetic mutations. - According to Hardy-Weinberg population should be a large population size.
2. A large population of fish where females mate with males based on size. - mating should be random mating for the Hardy-Weinberg population.
3. A population of birds with no genetic mutations that often mate with members of neighboring bird populations. - No gene flow is shown here that violates the Hardy-Weinberg population
4. A large population of squirrels in a stable environment in which mating is random and the mutation rate is very low but constant. - No mutation.
5. A population of spiders living in an environment that strongly favors larger individuals. - No selection is due to favor large individuals.
Thus,
For each population description, the Hardy-Weinberg assumption is violated -
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Which statement about enzymes is FALSE? Select one: a. Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature. b. Most enzymes can catalyze millions of reactions per minute. c. Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form. d. Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements.
Answer:
(C) Enzyme does not need to contact with substrate to assume its active form.
Explanation:
a) The activity of an enzyme can be increased upto certain temperature known as optimum temperature after that tepmerature will damage the enzyme.
b) The number of substrate molecule converted by one molecule of enzyme in one second is called its turn over rate, which may varry from 0.5-600000.
C) Enzymes does not need to contact with substrate to assume its active form. They just accelerate the reaction by lowering the activation energy. Enzyme binds to substrate through active stite and both changes structures slightly to best fit.(Induce fit model)
Enzyme + Sbstrate → enzyme substrate complex→ Enzyme + ProductD) Some enzymes are inactive known as apoenzyme and they need a non-protein part such as coenzyme or cofactor to become active which is known as holoenzyme.
The false statement about enzymes is that they require contact with substrate to assume their active form. Actually, enzymes are already in their active form before they encounter a substrate.
Explanation:Among the statements provided, the false statement about enzymes is: 'Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form'. In fact, enzymes are already in their active form before they encounter a substrate. When a substrate makes contact with the enzyme's active site, the enzyme undergoes a slight change in shape to achieve a perfect fit, also referred to as 'induced fit'. However, the enzyme was already in its active form prior to the substrate encounter. For instance, if we look at the disease phenylketonuria, the enzyme suited for phenylalanine degradation doesn't lack the active form; it malfunctions or is not present, leading to health complications due to phenylalanine build-up.
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The area of the lab where testing is performed to detect infectious diseases and the antibodies produced in response to infection is called ___________.Select one or more: a. Immunohematology b. immunology c. microbiology d. virology
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
Microbiology is related to the study of microorganisms that are not visible through naked eyes. While virology is the study of viruses. Hence, both option c and d are incorrect. Immunohematology is associated with the study of antigens and antibodies of RBCs in case of blood transfusion.
However, in immunology, the entire immune system is studied inclusive of antigen and antibody interaction, infectious diseases, transplant issues, hypersensitivity etc.
Hence, option B is correct
Every time Maricella goes to work in the morning, she notices that her dog sulks in the corner of the room and looks very sad. Over several weeks, she notices that the dog gets unhappy when she picks up her car keys, immediately before leaving the house. Which phenomenon of learning best describes the dog's behavior?
a. classical conditioningb. innate learningc. punishment by removald. instinctive drift
Answer:
a. classical conditioning
Explanation:
Classical conditioning is a phenomenon of learning developed by the Russian Psychologist known as Ivan Pavlov. Classical conditioning is a behaviorist theory of learning which describes learning as a process that involves forming of association. In order words, learning is through association.
Maricella’s dog would naturally feel sad by mere seeing Maricella leaving for work in the morning, this response is natural and termed unconditioned response, while her leaving for work is the unconditioned stimulus.
Since Maricella usually picks her when she leaves for work, the dog learns to become sad as it associates her picking of the keys to her leaving for work. Overtime, the picking of the key elicits a sad appearance in the dog even though she isn’t leaving for work. The car keys can be said to be the conditioned stimulus that elicits a conditioned response in the dog making it sad.
This experience of the dog can be referred to as classical conditioning, in which the conditioned stimulus became associated with the unconditioned stimulus, thereby producing the conditioned response of the dog.
A common column material used in size exclusion chromatography is dextran, a polysaccharide of glucose. Which type of interaction most likely occurs between proteins and the dextran column material?
A) aromatic
B) hydrophobic
C) salt bridge
D) hydrogen bonding
Answer:
D) Hydrogen bonding
Explanation:
A hydrogen bond is a kind of electrostatic force of attraction between the hydrogen atom and a more electronegative atom e.g. nitrogen, fluorine, and oxygen.
It is a weak force of attraction.
In size-exclusion chromatography, the attraction that exist between the proteins and dextran is hydrogen bonding.
The several hydroxyl groups thats seen in dextran accounts for why hydrogen bonding exists between dextran column material and the protein.
What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains, rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdom?
Answer:
Molecular evidence
Explanation:
Carl Woese was the scientist who classified life in three domains which are bacteria, archaea, and eukarya. He used molecular evidence to classify prokaryotes into two different domains.
Carl Woese and his teammates compared the ribosomal sequence of several archebacteria with other prokaryotes and eukaryotes and found that the ribosomal sequence of archaea is more similar to eukaryotes than bacteria.
So he divided prokaryotes into two domains archaea and bacteria on this molecular evidence. So the right answer is molecular evidence.
populations around the globe. If you were a scientist studying this fungus and wanted to know if it could infect a new frog species, how would you conduct your experiment? Given the following examples, which represent reasonable or logical control(s) or treatments(s), and which would likely be unnecessary and/or uninformative?
Answer:
Two arm Experiment
Explanation:
They will make two arms or groups. In one group they will introduce the fungus and in another they wont and will observe both group to see if the group that was introduced with fungus get infected or not
Radioactive uranium-235 has a half-life of 704 million years. If it was incorporated into dinosaur bones, could it be used to date the dinosaur fossils?
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Yes, Radioactive uranium-235 has a half-life of 704 million years. If it was incorporated into dinosaur bones, it could it be used to date the dinosaur fossils.
It is worthy to note that after 65.5 million years a little as a tenth of the Uranium-235 undergoes degradation with the remaining ninety percent or part is available for use to date the fossils.
Research on the physiological states accompanying specific emotions indicates that a emotions such as happiness and surprise are accompanied by different blood pressure levels. b the amygdala uses different neurotransmitters in responding to different emotions. c every emotion has precisely the same pattern of limbic system activity. d each emotion has a unique pattern of sympathetic nervous system activity. e different emotions involve activation of different brain circuits.
Option D
Research on the physiological states accompanying specific emotions indicates that each emotion has a unique pattern of sympathetic nervous system activity
Explanation:
Emotions are usually characterized by thinking and sense elements that point our consciousness and control our response. By the sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system, sensitive events followed by excitement feel and actions of the physical acknowledgments are produced.
Emotions enhance especially prominent in leading options when the dilemmas among various complicated and contradictory options confer us with a great measure of contingency and vagueness, proffering a comprehensive cognitive study challenging. Urges are powers that control the action. The cognitive evaluation also enables us to encounter a kind of trivial sensations.
Final answer:
The correct option is "e different emotions involve activation of different brain circuits."
Explanation:
The question pertains to the physiology behind emotions and how they are experienced in the human body. Specifically, the question addresses how different emotions are accompanied by physiological changes, such as variations in blood pressure, different neurotransmitter activity within the amygdala, unique patterns of limbic system or sympathetic nervous system activity, and involvement of various brain circuits.
Affective neuroscience has identified that there are seven basic classes of emotions: Anger, contempt, disgust, fear, happiness, sadness, and surprise. These emotions are linked with different neural circuits within the limbic system, with structures like the amygdala and hypothalamus playing significant roles in the experience and expression of our emotions.
The amygdala, for instance, is central to processing fear and sending signals that activate the sympathetic nervous system—leading to the 'fight-or-flight' response. The hypothalamus engages in regulating the release of stress hormones in reaction to emotional stimuli. Moreover, research has indicated that different emotions can trigger distinct physical reactions almost instantaneously, supporting the theory that there are fast and slow pathways for emotional response—further highlighting the complexity and specificity of emotions regarding our physiological state.
You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the first dye. What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
After the addition of the first dye, the gram-positive bacteria will appear as purple.
Explanation:
The gram-positive bacteria has thecell wall made up of peptidoglycan. In Gram-positive bacteria the purple of crystal violet gram stains is retained by this thick peptidoglycan layer.
After the addition of the first dye (crystal violet) during a Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria would appear purple in color due to their thick peptidoglycan layer readily absorbing and retaining the dye.
Explanation:In the process of performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria, the cells would appear purple after the application of the first dye, which is crystal violet. This is because gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell walls. This layer readily absorbs the crystal violet dye and retains it, even after the decolorization stage (which was not yet performed in your query). Thus, after the first dye, your gram-positive bacteria would be a vibrant violet color.
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Which of these can RAPIDLY pass directly through the phospholipids of the plasma membrane, without the help of a transport protein?
Answer:
Small nonpolar molecules, such as O2 and CO2, are soluble in the lipid bilayer and therefore can readily cross cell membranes. Small uncharged polar molecules, such as H2O, also can diffuse through membranes, but Ions, such as hydrogen ions, and hydrophilic molecules, such as water and glucose, cannot rapidly pass directly through the phospholipids of the membrane. To move rapidly through the membrane, they must pass through membrane transport proteins.
Small, nonpolar molecules like oxygen and carbon dioxide can rapidly pass directly through the phospholipids of the plasma membrane without the help of a transport protein.
Explanation:The molecules that can rapidly pass directly through the phospholipids of the plasma membrane without the help of a transport protein are small, nonpolar molecules such as oxygen (O2), carbon dioxide (CO2), and small hydrophobic molecules like steroid hormones. These molecules can easily diffuse across the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane due to their nonpolar nature.
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Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of.
1. Parlall evolution
2. convergent evolution
3. allopratic speciation
4. gene flow.
Answer:
Convergent Evolution
Explanation:
This is a form of independent evolution where similar features are developed by two species,which are not closely, living in different periods but the same biome.
Due to developing analogous structures they may appear to be similar. Most of these structures were not present in the last common ancestor of both groups. An example is the nature of wings in birds, bats and insects which serves the same purpose which is flight.
Choose the true statement.
a. Steroid hormones are generally made in advance and stored until needed.
b. Autocrine signals are produced by and act upon the same cell.
c. Paracrine signals are used for long-distance communication.
d. Neurotransmitters are a type of neurohormone.
Answer: The true statement is: Autocrine signals are produced by and act upon the same cell
Explanation:
Autocrine signals are made by cells producing hormones or molecules that acts on the same cell that produces it.
Usually, these autocrine hormones bind to receptors positioned in the cells producing them and thereby signal/exert changes in the cell.
Other options contains false statements
- Steroid hormones are produced ONLY when needed, not produced in advance and then stored
- Neurohormones do not help in the transmission of nerve impulses; So, they ARE NOT neurotransmitters
- Paracrine signals exert their effects on nearby cells; thus, they are not for long distance communication.
The ONLY true statement is that 'Autocrine signals are produced by and act upon the same cell.'
True or False: Good graphs should have x- and y-axes labels that include both the variable and the unit of measurement.
True
Explanation:
A graph is used to represent and compare two phenomenons or variables.
It is a simple system that uses x and y coordinates.
A good graph must have properly labelled axis which can be any variable. They must have an origin. A graph must have a suitable scale. They must have a descriptive title. They must convey information in a simple way.learn more:
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A mother who had suffered from chicken pox in her childhood,is now taking care of her child,who had suffered from yhe same disease.What are the chances of her mother having chicken pox?Explain
Answer:
Explanation:
very slim chances, he body wouldve gotten immune to the disease from when she was younger so it would be unlikely for her to catch it again.
Using the law of conservation of energy, describe at least three energy conversions that take place when fossil fuels are used to generate electricity.
Answer: 1) Thermal energy to electrical energy
2) Heat energy to electrical energy
3) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
Explanation: according to the law of conservation of energy, energy changes from one form to another.
The three forms of energy conversions are Chemical energy to heat energy, Heat energy to mechanical energy, and Mechanical energy to electrical energy.
Conversion of energy:The process of generating electricity from fossil fuel undergoes the following energy conversions;
(i) Chemical energy to heat energy:
The natural form of fossil fuel stores chemical energy in it. when it is burned, the chemical energy is converted into heat energy.
(ii) Heat energy to mechanical energy:
The heat energy produced by burning the fuel is used to either directly rotate the blades of the electricity generator, or through producing high-energy steam by heating water which pushes the blades. Thus, heat energy is converted into mechanical energy.
(iii) Mechanical energy to electrical energy:
The rotating blades of the electricity generator are placed in a magnetic field. As the blades rotate, the magnetic flux changes, and as a result, electricity is produced.
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a 30 year old female is 25 weeks pregnant with twins. she has 5 living children. four of the 5 children were born at 39 weeks gestation and one child was born at 27 weeks gestation. two years ago she had a miscarriage at 10 weeks gestation. what is her gtpal?
Answer:
The gtpal of a women is "G7 T4 P1 A1 L5."
Explanation:
GTPAL stands for. Gravidity: sum of periods the woman has been expectant (THIS INCLUDES CURRENT PREGNANCY, FAILURES, ABORTIONS and *twins/triplets count as one). Term Births: sum born (alive or stillborn) at 37 weeks gestation onward (*twins/triplets count as one) Gravida or gravidity defines the whole sum of complete pregnancies that a woman has had, irrespective of the consequence. Para or parity is definite as the sum of deliveries that a woman has had subsequently 20 weeks gestation.
A 50-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis shows the presence of exudative serosanguineous pleural fluid and positive cytology. This finding is most typical for what condition?
Answer:
is it pneumonia
Explanation:
i think it is this but am not sure
Which of the following phenomena is a consequence of Independent Assortment? 1. Pure breeding plants, when mated with each other, produce completely homozygous offspring. 2. For any gene displaying complete dominance, heterozygous individuals exhibit the dominant phenotype. 2. Smooth seed trait is dominant to wrinkled seed trait in peas. 4. The phenotypic ratio among phenotypes produced from an F1 X F1 dihybrid cross is 9:3:3:1.
Answer: The answer is that the phenotypic ratio among phenotypes produced from an F1 X F1 dihybrid cross is 9:3:3:1.
Explanation:
Independent assortment of genes explains how alleles on different chromosomes arrange independently of one another during gamete formation.
So, a dihybrid cross involving TWO characters (e.g Seed color & seed shape) would have its respective alleles DISTRIBUTED whether dominant or recessive, for crossing to occur and yield varying proportion of offspring in the well spread ratio of 9:3:3:1; making it a consequence of independent assortment of genes
A botanist has discovered a new plant species and is trying to classify the plant. Its seed has one cotyledon, it has six flower parts, its leaves have parallel veins, its stem is herbaceous, and the vascular bundles in its stem are scattered throughout the stem. Which best classifies this plant?
A:gymnosperm and dicot
B:gymnosperm and monocot
C:angiosperm and monocot
D:angiosperm and dicot
The best suited group for the mentioned plant is Angiosperms and monocot.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
As mentioned the seed of the plant has one cotyledon and the specific name for these type of plants whose seeds has one cotyledon is called Monocot, Suppose if the seed of the plant has two seeds, It is called dicot.
Hence we can conclude that the mentioned plant comes under monocot and not dicot. On the other hand, Angiosperms refers to the plants that has flowers with it and gymnosperms usually includes plants without flowers and hence we can classify the plant as Angiosperm and monocot.
Answer:
The answer is C
Explanation:
Hormones are chemical messengers that are transported by the bloodstream and stimulate physiological responses in cells of another tissue or organ.A. TrueB. False
Hormones are biological chemical substances that are produced in the body, transported via the bloodstream, and that stimulate physiological responses in cells of other tissues or organs. This statement is factually correct.
Explanation:The statement in the question - 'Hormones are chemical messengers that are transported by the bloodstream and stimulate physiological responses in cells of another tissue or organ' is True.
Hormones are, in fact, chemical substances produced in the body that control and regulate the activity of certain cells or organs. They are part of the endocrine system of the human body. They travel through the bloodstream to different parts of the body in order to send signals and orchestrate longer-term processes, such as growth and development, metabolism, sexual function, and mood regulation.
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Hormones are chemical messengers produced by the endocrine system that, when released into the bloodstream, stimulate responses in specific target cells throughout the body. These responses influence a variety of physiological processes such as growth, metabolism, and fluid balance. An example detailed is insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels.
Explanation:The statement provided is true. Hormones are indeed chemical messengers that are transported by the bloodstream and stimulate physiological responses in cells of another tissue or organ. The endocrine system produces hormones that influence wide-ranging physiological processes such as growth, development, metabolism, fluid and electrolyte balance, and sleep. Hormones act on their respective target cells, which have specific receptors for those particular hormones.
For example, insulin is a hormone released by the pancreas in response to increased blood glucose levels. This hormone travels through the bloodstream to the body's cells, where it binds to insulin receptors and triggers a response that allows the cells to take in glucose, thereby reducing blood glucose levels.
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Match the following.
1 . A chemical energy compound with two phosphate groups found in living cells
2 . An agricultural science that deals with crop production and improvement
3 . A food made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
4 . An atmospheric gas made of one carbon atom for each two oxygen atoms
5 . The green chemical that makes green plants green
6 . Produced by organisms as opposed to nonliving chemical processes
7 . An atmospheric gas; a by-product of the light reaction of photosynthesis
A. organic
B. chlorophyll
C. ADP
D. agronomy
E. carbohydrate
F. carbon dioxide
G. oxygen
Answer:
1. A chemical energy compound with two phosphate groups found in living cells . -ADP(Adenosine Diphosphate)
2 . An agricultural science that deals with crop production and improvement -Agronomy
3 . A food made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen -Carbohydrates
4 . An atmospheric gas made of one carbon atom for each two oxygen atoms -Carbon dioxide
5 . The green chemical that makes green plants green - chlorophyll
6 . Produced by organisms as opposed to nonliving chemical processes -Organic
7 . An atmospheric gas; a by-product of the light reaction of photosynthesis- oxygen
Microbes have played a significant role in the advances of the last century, such as ____________ for cutting DNA and ____________ to better understand the microbes that live on and in our bodies.
Answer:
Restriction enzymes and genome sequencing.
Explanation:
Microbes include all the microscopic organisms that cannot be seen by the naked eye. The microbes can be harmful or beneficial for the living organisms and can be used in medication as well.
The microbes has provided molecular tools and different techniques have been designed to study them. The restriction enzymes also known as molecular scissors used to cut the DNA and further modification of the DNA. The genome sequencing is done to sequence the genomic DNA of the organisms and there used in the medicine.
Thus, the answer is restriction enzymes and genome sequencing.
"Human glucocebrosidase, for treatment of Gaucher's disease, has been successfully produced using carrot cells. What is a major advantage of producing biotherapeutics in plant vs in animal cells?"
Answer:
Human glucocebrosidase is used as a therapeutic drug which is used to treat Gaucher's disease.
The farming of this substances in crops is very helpful for the population. The genetic engineering to insert genes in plants would result in GMOs.
It is more beneficial to use plants for this process as compared to that of animals because it is easily available and easily extracted.
It is more economical and easily accessible by people. It would not harm animals by incorporating the gene in them in laboratory conditions.
Producing biotherapeutics in plant cells rather than animal cells is advantageous because it reduces the risk of contamination by human pathogens, allows for easy and efficient large-scale production, and avoids ethical issues and regulations related to using animal cells.
Explanation:The production of biotherapeutics using plant cells, such as carrot cells, has a few significant advantages over animal cells. A major advantage is the risk of contamination. Animal cells can potentially host human pathogens, including viruses, which can contaminate the drug, making it unsafe. In contrast, plant cells don't share the same pathogens with humans, thereby reducing the risk of contamination. Furthermore, plant cells can be grown in large quantities relatively easily, making the production feasible and efficient. They also don't require the same ethical considerations and regulations as using animal cells.
A major advantage of producing biotherapeutics in plant cells compared to animal cells is the ability to produce large quantities of the desired protein at a lower cost. Plant cells have the ability to grow rapidly and can be easily scaled up for production purposes. Additionally, plant cells are less likely to be contaminated by human pathogens, reducing the risk of product contamination.
For example, the production of human glucocebrosidase in carrot cells allows for a more cost-effective and safer treatment for Gaucher's disease.
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Why do you think scientists call a substitution a ""point mutation""? Why do you think scientists call a deletion (or an insertion) a ""frameshift mutation""?
Answer:
Mutation is the process of the sudden, heritable change in the genome of the organisms. Two main types of mutation are point mutation and the frameshift mutation.
The point mutation may be defined as the change in the single base pair only at a single point. The deletion is known as frameshift mutation because it changes the reading frame sequence of the gene. These mutation may beneficial or harmful for the organisms.
Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: a. low venous oxygen levels. b. a decrease in arterial oxygen levels. c. an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood. d. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.
Answer:
d. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.
Explanation:
Hypoxia is a pathological state in which the body is impoverished with adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and cells. At that state, oxygen is significantly insufficient which can pose a threat or associated with diffusion of oxygen in the lungs to carry out respiratory activities, malfunctioning of the Brain, headaches, nausea,anxiety etc.
Hypoxemia is a decrease in arterial oxygen levels.
Hypoxia, defined as inadequate oxygen supply to the tissues and cells, can occur due to diseases affecting red blood cells or due to abnormal levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide interaction with hemoglobin in blood. The resulting oxygenation level, referred to as 'percent sat', is a key measure in assessing oxygen supply to tissues.
Explanation:Hypoxia is most accurately defined as d. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells. It can occur in various contexts, such as diseases that result in the sickle-shape of red blood cells, reducing oxygen perfusion into the blood. Hemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells responsible for carrying oxygen, plays a crucial role in oxygenation of tissues. The percentage of hemoglobin sites occupied by oxygen in a patient's blood, commonly referred to as 'percent sat', becomes highly significant in cases of hypoxia.
In general, blood in the aorta is oxygenated and ready to be delivered to the tissues. However, if there is insufficient hemoglobin, or if the hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen decreases due to high levels of CO2 (hypercapnia), the tissues may not receive enough oxygen, leading to hypoxia. Conversely, as the percent saturation of hemoglobin decreases (low oxygen levels), its affinity for oxygen increases, driving it to bind more oxygen and potentially correct the hypoxic state.
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