At the time Darwin voyaged on HMS Beagle, the popularly accepted theory in Western culture that explained the origin of Earth's plants and animals held that the various species _____.
a) arose continually from non-living materials by spontaneous generation.
b) had been created by divine intervention a few thousand years before.
c) had evolved from now-extinct organisms.
d) arose from a single species that had survived the biblical flood.
e) are all related to one another.
Answers
Answer:
b) had been created by divine intervention a few thousand years before.
Explanation:
In Darwin’s time, most people assumed that all species were brought into being at the same period or age and it was the usual believe. Therefore, Darwin’s ideas which he got from his voyage brought new understanding to biology.
The Voyage of the Beagle
In 1831, Darwin (22 years old) journeyed for a scientific exposition on the HMS Beagle ship. He observed and collected specimens of plants, animals, rocks, and fossils wherever the expedition was ashore. The Figure attached showed his voyage journey.
Darwin’s Observations
His observations helped him form his theory of evolution. Lets consider:
The great diversity of life.l which was seen in his visit to tropical rainforests and other new habitats where he observed many plants and animals not known to man.
His idea that living things—like Earth’s surface—change over time was from him digging up fossils of gigantic extinct mammals, e.g. the ground sloth proving that organisms differed from their past forms.
The commonly accepted Western theory on the origin of species when Darwin sailed on the HMS Beagle was that species were created by divine intervention a few thousand years ago and remained unchanged (b). Darwin's observations led him to propose the theory of evolution by natural selection, fundamentally challenging this view.
Explanation:At the time Charles Darwin voyaged on HMS Beagle, the commonly accepted theory in Western culture regarding the origin of Earth's plants and animals was the idea of special creation. Answer b) had been created by divine intervention a few thousand years before, encapsulates the predominant view of the time. This perspective aligned with the scriptural accounts implying Earth and its life forms were a mere 6,000 years old and that species were immutable since their creation.
Darwin's observations during his voyage, particularly in South America and the Galapagos Islands, challenged these views. He noticed the unique adaptations in organisms and fossils resembling living species suggested a historical continuity, a concept he termed descent with modification. Eventually, through works like 'Origin of the Species', Darwin argued for evolution by natural selection as the mechanism explaining these changes over time, a revolutionary idea that became one of the foundations of modern biology.
Related Questions
Every sensory neuron is a (an) ______ to the central nervous system, and every motor neuron is a(an) ______ from the central nervous system.
Answers
Answer:
Every sensory neuron is a (an) stimuli to the central nervous system, and every motor neuron is a(an) transmitter from the central nervous system.
If an ethical hacker breaks the limit placed upon a test, there may be sufficient cause for a client to take legal action against the ethical hacker.A. true
B. false
Answers
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Ethics is the moral psychology or philosophy that are used to determine the write or wrong things. The ethics is used in all the subjects and in all the services.
The ethical hacker may be defined as the individual that has hacked the information or break the rules that are against the ethics or moral value. The legal actions must be taken against the ethical hacker so that the ethics cannot be violated next time.
Thus, the correct answer is true.
Proteins are made by:_____________ organelles RNA Ribosomes in plants only Ribosomes in plants and animals in the nucleus of plant and animal cells
Answers
Answer: Ribosomes in plants and animals
Answer:
Proteins are made by: Ribosomes in plants and animals
Explanation:
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100 POINTS!!! Help!!!
A series of coral reefs is located near a coastline. In 3–5 sentences, construct an argument about how people can help prevent erosion to the coastline.
Answers
Answer:
We can prevent erosion by not disturbing the coral reefs and help them build more near the coastline. The structure of the coral reefs helps to prevent the loss of life and it also prevents erosion. The coral reefs act as a barrier against the water flows such as waves or floods. In this way they prevent erosion by serving as natural barriers. Hence, erosion can be prevented if more coral reefs are allowed to grow near the coastline.
To prevent erosion to the coastline near coral reefs, people can avoid using harmful chemicals, implement sewage treatment systems, and create buffer zones of plants or sand dunes.
Explanation:In order to help prevent erosion to the coastline near the series of coral reefs, people can take several actions. First, they can avoid using harmful chemicals and pesticides in their gardens or farms that could contaminate the water and harm marine life. Second, implementing effective sewage treatment systems can prevent the discharge of untreated wastewater into the oceans. Third, creating buffer zones of plants or sand dunes can reduce the impact of waves and protect the coastline from erosion.
Anaphylactic shock is the most severe form of systemic allergic reaction. Immunologically medicated substances are released into the blood, causing vasodilation and an increase in capillary permeability. What physiologic response often follows the vascular response in anaphylaxis?
a. Uterine smooth muscle reactionb. Laryngeal edemac. Broncodilationd. Gastrointestinal relaxation
Answers
Answer:
b. Laryngeal edema
Explanation
Laryngeal edema is a possible physiological response that will follow Anaphylactic shock. The Edema results to the decreased size of the laryngeal lumen.
It presents as respiratory difficulty or post extubation stridor which is presence of inspiratory noise as a result of increased effort in breathing due to narrowing of the airway. Other symptoms include fainting and low blood pressure.
Most sponges are _____________, meaning both sexes occur in the same individual but do not usually self-fertilize because individual sponges produce eggs and sperm at different times.
Answers
Answer:
Hermaphrodites or asexual
Explanation:
A patient's history, physical exam, and pulmonary function testing have culminated in a diagnosis of chronic obstructive bronchitis. The nurse who is providing care for this patient will understand that the effects of the disease are primarily attributable to:A. A reduction in oxygen binding sites on erythrocytes
B. Decreased respiratory drive
C. Autoimmune of alveoli
D. Chronic mucus hypersecretion
Answers
Answer:
The correct option is D.
Explanation:
The chronic obstructive bronchitis is characterized by irreversible and persistent flow obstruction, followed by bronchial inflammation, in response to harmful particles or gases (biomass) exposure. There is an increase in the secretory glands and cells in the submucosa, which causes chronic mucus hypersecretion, which leads to the overproduction of mucus and the production of a particularly thick mucus, aggravated by a bad and inefficient ciliary cleaning function and a cough not treated properly, it weakens the respiratory muscles. The damage in chronic bronchitis is due to excess mucus production, with mucoiciliary dysfunction, secondary to persistent bronchial inflammation. The main responsible for this excessive mucus are the overproduction of secretion originated in the cells and the decrease in the elimination of said mucus.
A scientist wants to perform a test that will indicate whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA. Testing for the presence of which of the following is most appropriate in this situation?
Answers
The options are :
A) phosphate
B) nitrogen
C) guanine
D) uracil
E) thymine
Answer:
The correct answer is E) thymine
Explanation:
DNA and RNA are both made up of nucleotide. There are two major difference between DNA and RNA. In DNA deoxyribose sugar is present and in RNA ribose sugar is present.
The other difference is in DNA thymine nucleotide is present which makes complementary base pairing with adenine but in RNA thymine is replaced by uracil.
Therefore testing for the presence of thymine is most appropriate in this situation to find out whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA.
Final answer:
To determine whether a nucleic acid sample is RNA or DNA, scientists can test for the presence of the sugar ribose or deoxyribose and the base uracil or thymine. Techniques like southern and northern blotting along with nucleic acid probes are utilized to detect specific sequences indicative of RNA or DNA.
Explanation:
A scientist determining whether a nucleic acid sample is composed of RNA or DNA should test for the presence of the sugar ribose or deoxyribose, as these sugars are indicative of RNA and DNA, respectively. Additionally, the presence of the base uracil is characteristic of RNA, while thymine is found in DNA. RNA can easily be distinguished from DNA by testing for uracil, which is not present in DNA.
Methods such as southern and northern blotting are used to detect specific sequences in DNA and RNA samples respectively. For DNA, nucleic acid hybridization or polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used to detect a specific sequence. In the case of RNA, sequencing techniques involve nucleotide-specific cleavage with RNases.
Finally, using nucleic acid probes is another method to distinguish between DNA and RNA. These probes will only bind to nucleic acid samples containing sequences complementary to the probes. Since uracil is unique to RNA, a probe targeting uracil-containing sequences would confirm the presence of RNA in the sample.
"In experiments using T2 viruses to discern the genetic material, certain elements were radioactively labeled. Which radioactive material in T2 viruses was found in bacteria?
Answers
Answer:
Phosphorus-32
Explanation:
Alfred D. Hershey and Martha Chase radiolabelled phosphorus as 32P and sulfur as 35S. This was done to observe if the radio labeled sulfur-containing protein coat or the radio-labeled P containing DNA enters the host cell. They showed that when the bacterial virus T2 infects Escherichia coli cells, the radioactive phosphorus-containing DNA of the viral particle enters the host cells. The host cells do not show the radio-labeled sulfur-containing protein of the viral coat. This proved that DNA, not the proteins is the genetic material.
According to Mathis Wackernagel, ecological overshoot is caused by an overuse of resources. Which of the following practices could contribute to ecological overshoot?1. Switching to renewable energy sources with lower CO2 emissions2. Recycling materials after they are used3. Catching fish more rapidly than the population can sustain4. Replanting trees as timber is harvested
Answers
Answer:
Option (3)
Explanation:
Ecological overshoot usually refers to the condition when the demand of the population within an ecosystem is higher than the capacity of the ecosystem to recycle and regenerate the available resources that have been extracted and obtained. This creates an imbalance in the ecosystem, as a result of which the overshoot occurs in the ecosystem.
From the given options, the catching of more number of fishes than the population requires, causes a dis-balance in the ecosystem, affecting the aquatic system where more fishes are being obtained. This results in ecological overshooting.
Thus, the correct answer is option (3).
According to Leech, the English of direct address advertising tends to be very homogeneous, so that all direct address voiceovers share many linguistic features ling.
A. True
B. False
Answers
Answer: A - True
Explanation:
According to Leech, it remains a generally accepted fact that the English of direct address advertising tends to be very homogeneous, so that all direct address voiceovers share many linguistic features ling.
So the answer is True.
Researchers endeavoring to conduct an on-line study should consider that there are some potential risks of harm to subjects unique to internet-based research. One of these risks is:1. Recruiting, consenting and debriefing subjects takes place on-line, and may require little to no interaction with the subjects.2. People assume pseudonymous on-line identities, such as an avatar in an MMORPG.3. Online studies do not require the documentation of informed consent.4. Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.5. Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.
Answers
Answer:
Answer is 5. Individuals may post private identifiable information about themselves on-line without intending it to be public and available to researchers.
Explanation:
It should be noted that as the internet have many advantages, so also it has disadvantages.
There are so many people known as hackers , who know how to find their ways in accessing information that are not meant for them. This they do in a crooked way.
In this sense, people should avoid posting information that are sensitive online, especially when they are undergoing online lectures or internet based research.
They should adopt other means, if it is compulsory or necessary to pass sensitive information to their online tutor.
Finally, people should understand that anything posted online directly or indirectly is public, that is , seen by many people.
OPTION 4.
Researchers must consider the risk of subjects inadvertently posting private information when conducting online studies, and must uphold ethical standards including informed consent.
Explanation:Researchers in online studies face unique risks of harm to subjects, such as the potential for participants to post private identifiable information online without intending it to become public and available to researchers. Online privacy is of particular concern, as subjects may not be fully aware of who has access to their information. It is imperative that researchers adhere to ethical standards, such as obtaining informed consent, minimizing risks, and ensuring the safety of participants. These protocols are essential to protect the subjects' privacy and ensure the integrity of the research.
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A geyser erupts when pressure is released from a hot spring.
True or False?
Answers
A geyser erupts when pressure is released from a hot spring -True
Mark as BrainliestAnswer: this is true
Explanation: When the surface water reaches boiling point, it errupts and cool down when boiling point becomes low.
Suppose there is a mutation in a lamininbinding integrin gene that causes a loss of function in thecytoplasmic domains of the integrin. Which of the following would you expect to observe as a result ofthis mutation?A.Tissues would be weakened because the integrin could no longer associate with microfilamentsin adherens junctions.B.The integrin would be unable to signal the cytoplasm when it had bound to the laminin.C.Cell adhesion to laminin would decrease, but lamininmediated gene expression would remainthe same.D.The integrin would function normally because the cytoplasmic domain is not responsible forbinding to laminin.
Answers
Answer: The integrin would be unable to signal the cytoplasm when it had bound to laminin. (Option B)
Explanation: Mutation (i.e change/alteration in the genetic sequence) in a laminin binding integrin gene causes a loss of laminin based functions in the cytoplasm.
The integrin will only bind to laminin in the cytoplasm, because there is alteration in the DNA sequence which codes for initiation of action in the cytoplasm.
In many cells, the adhesion to the extracellular matrix through integrins causes the activation of kinases in the cytoplasm. This suggests that:_______________.
Answers
Answer: There is presence of tumor.
Explanation: The adhesion of cells to extracellular matrix (EMC) through integrins ( cell-EMC binding molecules, which are collagens, laminins and fibronectin) causes the activation of kinases in the cytoplasm.
However, kinanes helps in controlling the epithelial cell differentiation and upholding the epithelial tissues. This is done by the addition of phosphate groups to a substrate protein which is termed Protein phosporylation. Then, the kinases direct the affairs of the cell and it's activities. For example, it determines the cell division, anabolic and catabolic activities of the cell, movement of ions between the cell and it's environment (signal transduction), protein functions and etc.
Conclusively, since the activities of the cell like cell division and protein functions is dictated by the kinase, reduction in cell division that gave rise to rapid growth is put on hold. Hence, the tumor is been suppressed.
Note: the binding of cell-EMC is regulated by Transforming Growth Factor (TGF) β.
Phytoplankton use sunlight to gain energy through photosynthesis. As a result of the Law of Conservation of Energy, phytoplankton cannot gain more energy than it consumes. A closed system consisting of an aquarium, phytoplankton, and sunlight is set up. Which of the following methods would best demonstrate the Law of Conservation of Energy? (3 points)
A. Measure the mass and temperature of the water. Then cover the aquarium to block the sunlight and measure the mass of the phytoplankton.
B. Change the closed system to isolated, so that energy can move out of it. Then measure the amount of energy that leaves.
C. Measure the mass of the phytoplankton before and after photosynthesis. Add the mass of the water.
D. Measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton and the amount of light entering the aquarium. Then measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton after exposure to the light and determine the difference
Answers
Answer: D: Measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton and the amount of light entering the aquarium. Then measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton after exposure to the light and determine the difference.
Explanation: This will describe the law as the amount of energy leaving the system will be the same as measured before exposure to light.
True or false: During meiosis, two rounds of DNA synthesis are required to form four gametes from one parent cell.
Answers
Answer:
False
Explanation:
During meiosis two round of cell division occurs after the replication which allow the formation of four haploid cells. Meiosis takes place in gametic cells.
During the first round of meiotic cell division, the homologous chromosome gets separated into two daughter cell and during the second round of meiotic cell division, each sister chromatids gets separated into two new daughter cells.
So during meiosis two round of cell division takes place not two round of replication takes place. Therefore the statement is false.
The claim that two rounds of DNA synthesis are required during meiosis is false; only one round of DNA replication occurs before meiosis I, followed by a second division in meiosis II, resulting in four haploid gametes from one parent cell.
Explanation:The statement that two rounds of DNA synthesis are required during meiosis to form four gametes from one parent cell is false. In meiosis, there is only one round of DNA replication before the first division, known as meiosis I. This is followed by a second round of division, meiosis II, which does not involve further DNA synthesis. The process of meiosis starts with a diploid cell, which after DNA replication, divides twice to produce four haploid gametes, each genetically unique.
Human sperms are indeed haploid, meaning they have half the number of chromosomes of a diploid body cell. Sister chromatids do not separate during meiosis I; instead, they separate during meiosis II. In meiosis I, it is the homologous chromosomes that separate. After a single cell completes meiosis, four cells are produced.
The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines.True / False.
Answers
Answer:
false
Explanation:
The bone of the pelvic girdle which has four bony projections is termed as ilium.The four bony projections present on the ilium are called as iliac spines.The iliac spines acts as points where the muscles and ligaments can attach. The four projections are :Anterior superior iliac spineAnterior inferior iliac spinePosterior superior iliac spinePosterior inferior iliac spineOut of these four spines it is the anterior superior iliac spines that are palpable and are felt while putting hands on the hips.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The anterior superior lilac spine can be palpable with hands on the hips
In many hairy vertebrates, such as apes, dogs, and rats, the involuntary erection of hair acts as an efficient means of thermoregulation. The erect hairs trap an insulating layer of air against the skin, keeping the animal warm. Humans also display hair erection when cold, though humans are not hairy enough for this reflex to have a significant effect on body temperature. Which statement is true regarding this reflex?
1) It reflects the common ancestry of humans with hairy vertebrates.
2) It suggests humans are less evolved than other hairy vertebrates, because they are not adapted to maintain body temperature.
3) The loss of hairy bodies is an evolutionary disadvantage to humans.
4) The reflex is actually a voluntary response humans manifest during infancy.
Answers
Answer:
It reflects the common ancestry of humans with hairy vertebrates.
Explanation:
Evolution is the change in the species with the passage of time. Some species might get extinct and some species might develop the advance character during the evolutionary process.
The evolutionary history of the organisms can be classified on the basis of the paleontological or molecular evidence. The two groups of the organisms can share a common ancestor if they have some similar features with each other. In the given question, it can be concluded that hairy vertebrates and human might have the common ancestor.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Which of the following contributed to the current high prevalence of drug-resistant infectious diseases such at tuberculosis?
Answers
Options:
* Inappropriate supervision of treatment
* Delay in treatment
* Mutation of bacteria
* Virulence variation
* All of the listed choices are correct
Answer : All of the listed choices are correct
Explanation:
Broccoli, cabbages, and brussels sprouts all descend from the same wild mustard and can still interbreed. These varieties were produced by
Answers
Answer: Artificial selection
Explanation:
Artificial selection is the process of intentional breeding of plants or animals by selecting the parents with good features so as to produce new plants that have the qualities of both parents.
Wild cabbage was the uncultivated form of Brassica oleracea. It was chosen a parent plant for growing broccoli, brussel sprouts and cabbage by artificial selection. The variety was chosen to produce plants with large flower buds, edible stems and large leaves through artificial selection.
Broccoli, cabbages, and Brussels sprouts are descendents of the wild mustard plant and were cultivated through selective breeding to produce distinct varieties.
Explanation:Broccoli, cabbages, and Brussels sprouts are all descendents of the same wild mustard plant, Brassica oleracea. These varieties were produced through selective breeding by humans over thousands of years. By selecting and breeding plants with desired traits, such as larger flower buds for Brussels sprouts or compact rosettes for cabbage, humans were able to create these distinct vegetables.
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As a leading microbiologist during the 1800s, _______disproved the theory of_______and completed several studies leading to the germ theory of disease.
Answers
Answer:
Pasteur disproved the theory of abiogenesis
Explanation:
Louis Pasteur was the scientist who disproved the theory of spontaneous generation. Pasteur disproved the theory of abiogenesis by using swan-necked flask. He used two swan-necked flask in which media was present and he heated the media to sterile it.
Then he broke the neck of one flask and observed that after some time the broth in broken neck flask showed growth but the unbroken necked flask remained sterile.
So he concluded that flask with swan-necked do not allowed microbe and air passed to the media while air can easily pass to media in broken neck flask which allowed microbe to grow.
He also gave germ theory of disease which says that disease is caused by microorganisms.
True or False: Meiosis halves the chromosome number, whereas mitosis maintains the same chromosome number.
Answers
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Meiosis is the kind of cell division that results in the production of daughter cells with each cell having half number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Meiosis is the cell division employed by reproductive cells to produce gametes/sex cells. Meiosis occurs in two stages i.e. Meiosis I and II. The chromosome number reduces by half in gametes in order to ensure that after fertilization of both male and female gamete, the resulting organism has the correct set of chromosomes. e.g diploid organism produces haploid gametes which fuses to produce a diploid organism again.
Mitosis is another type of cell division that results in identical daughter cells. They are identical in the sense that they possess the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell that divided. For example, a diploid cell undergoes mitosis to produce two diploid daughter cells.
Transmission of information along the axon takes place via an electrochemical process called the _____.
Answers
Answer: Neurotransmission
Explanation:
The transfer of the information from one neuron to another takes place through the release of the chemical substances from the axon of one neuron to the dendrite of another via synaptic junction.
The chemicals that is transferred between two neurons is known as neurotransmitter and the process is known as neurotransmission.
The brain consists of multiple neurons and this is how the information is transferred across the brain and body.
A scientist, who wants to study the effects of nitrogen on wheat plant growth, sets up an experiment with 4 groups of wheat plants: group A gets 20 pounds per acre, group B gets 40 pounds per acre, group C gets 60 pounds per acre, and group D gets 0 pounds per acre. What is the dependent variable? Select one: C A. the weight of the plants at the end of the experiment B. the amount of sunlight the plants were exposed to C. the temperature the plants were grown in D. the amount of nitrogen given to the plants x ©
Answers
Answer:
The weight of the plants at the end of the experiment.
Explanation:
Since the experiment was set up to study the growth of the wheat plants, weight is a sign of growth. So at the end of the experiment, the weight of the plant will be compared to the amount of nitrogen added.
If a graph is to be plotted, the amount of nitrogen (independent variable) will be on the x-axis and the weight of the plants (dependent variable) will be on the y-axis.
The amount of sunlight and temperature are not included because the question does not say that they are parameters in the experiment.
The planet Mercury is closer to the sun than the planet Venus. However, temperatures on Venus are hotter than temperatures on Mercury. Why would this be the case?A) Mercury has a thicker atmosphere than Venus that blocks heat from the sun.B) Mercury spins more quickly than Venus, so its surface cannot heat up as quickly.C) Venus has a thicker atmosphere than Mercury that traps heat from the sun.D) Venus is cooled by high concentrations of water vapor in its atmosphere.
Answers
Answer:
The answer is B to my own knowledge
A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?
Answers
Answer:
High-protein
Explanation:
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a disease in which there is obstruction of the lungs which makes it difficult for the person to breathe and there is an improper flow of the air in the respiratory tract. The disease management involves a proper diet which should have a high amount of proteins in it. A high protein diet is recommended for the patients as this leads to the strengthening of the muscles involved in the respiration and thus, avoids wasting and slows down the progressive worsening of the disease. Further, the high protein diet also helps to strengthen immunity and prevents infections of the respiratory tract. The proteins also provide more energy as sufferers of the disease also have difficulty performing activities such as walking, running, etc due to shortness of breath.What type of bonds are formed between nitrogenous bases of DNA?*
A. hydrogen bonds
B. glycolic bonds
C. james bonds
Answers
Answer: A. Hydrogen Bonds
Of the dozens of neurotransmitters that have been discovered, how many appear to be especially important in mental disorders?
Answers
Of the dozens of neurotransmitters that have been discovered 4 appear to be especially important in mental disorders.
Explanation:
The signal from one neuron is passed to another neuron with the help of a neuron transmitter. The signal that is produced by one neuron must be responded by another neuron. The receptor of neuron are bounded by the neuron transmitters.
Pre synaptic neurons are those that helps in releasing the neuron transmitters. Postsynaptic neurons are those that are helpful in receiving these neuron transmitter signals. The signals that are also released by neurons in the direct that are in reverse to the above mentioned steps. In metal disorders 4 neuron transmitters are considered to be very important.
A student discovers a mat of green organisms living along the edge of a stream and suspects it is a moss. To confirm that this organism is a moss and not a green alga, he should look for _____.
Answers
Answer:
He should look out for tiny leaf-like structures which mosses possess but algae does not .
Explanation:
In general, moss looks fibrous, feathered or latticed when viewed up close. Carpets of moss are springy to the touch. When germinating, moss puts up thin stems sometimes with leaves on top and reproductive spores. Algae have no threadlike structures or leaves. Instead, algae spread as a clump of living cells. Because algae usually grow in wet environments, they look like a slimy, wet mass, often green in color. Both moss and algae may appear green or brown depending on species and the dryness of the conditions.