B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning. However, Edward C. Tolman suggested a cognitive aspect to learning.
A. Edward C. TolmanExplanation:
Latent learning indicated that there was a subjective segment of discovering that was not identified with molding. Edward C. Tolman first proposed the hypothesis of inert learning in 1930, when his investigations with rodents demonstrated that learning was occurring even without the prompt nearness of a prize. Watson advanced an adjustment in brain science through his location Psychology as the Behaviorist Views it, which was given at Columbia University in 1913.
Edward C. Tolman suggested a cognitive aspect to learning, contrasting with strict behaviorists like B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson who did not believe that thoughts and expectations play a role in learning.
Explanation:Strict behaviorists such as B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson were of the belief that learning could be fully accounted for by the processes of conditioning. They argued that cognition, including thoughts and expectations, had no role in the learning process. Skinner even viewed the mind as a "black box" that could not be understood or studied. Contrasting with this behaviorist perspective, Edward C. Tolman proposed a cognitive aspect to learning. Tolman's experiments with rats showcased that organisms could learn without immediate reinforcement, which implied that some form of mental processes played a part in learning. This idea pointed towards latent learning, where knowledge can be acquired without any obvious reinforcement and later influence behavior when needed.
With respect to permissions for uses and disclosures, HIPAA divides health information into three categories. Into which category do discussions with family members go?
Answer:
Uses or disclosures that require generally oral agreement only.
Discussions with family members about a patient's health information fall into the category of disclosures for treatment, payment, and healthcare operations under HIPAA.
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, healthcare providers and plans are permitted to share relevant health information with family members or friends involved in the patient's care or payment for their care, as long as the patient does not object. This permission can be given explicitly by the patient or inferred if the patient is not present and the provider determines sharing the information is in the patient's best interest.For instance, if a patient is unconscious or in an emergency, medical personnel may inform the patient's family about their condition and the care being administered. Additionally, if a family member helps with picking up prescriptions or managing the patient's healthcare, they can receive pertinent information required to complete these tasks.However, healthcare providers must ensure that they share only the necessary information and observe any restrictions imposed by the patient.What program was established by New Jersey to guarantee access to health coverage for individuals and small employers, regardless of health status, age, claims history, or other risk factors?'
Answer:
Health insurance programs.
Explanation:
The health insurance may be defined as the insurance that provides medical benefits and covers the medical expenses of the client. The health insurance is provided by both the government and private sectors.
The idea of the health insurance program was first started in the New Jersey. The main aim of this insurance is to provide health benefit to the employers and individuals that cannot cover the medical expenses. The health related risk factors are also covered in the insurance.
Thus, the answer is health insurance programs.
A group of nursing students is role playing situations to practice using therapeutic communication techniques. What would the students identify as verbal communication?
Answer: the patients' underlying emotion.
Explanation:
Therapeutic communication techniques are the techniques or methods used in communicate and gain the patients' trust. It is a face-to-face or say, physical process of interactions. Therapeutic communication techniques are used mostly by Nurses(although other profession is health sector do use it as well, but, nurses do have more interactions with their patients that others).
Theerapeutic communication techniques includes (but not limited to) the following;
===> The professionals trying to put the patients' emotions into words.
====> Encouraging comparision.
===> Acknowledgement.
===> Making observations.
Therefore, from the question we can deduce that the students will identify the PATIENTS' UNDERLYING EMOTIONS as verbal communication.
Verbal communication, in the scenario given, would include interactions making use of spoken or written words. Such activities may include asking patients questions, giving orders, or explaining procedures. This form of communication is vital in nursing because it fosters understanding and trust.
Explanation:In the context that is given, the nursing students would identify verbal communication as any interaction that makes use of spoken or written words. This would encompass things such as asking questions, giving orders, and explaining procedures which all require verbal exchange. For example, a nurse explaining to a patient what kind of care their wound requires involves spoken words, thus it is considered verbal communication. On the other hand, a nurse writing a report about a patient’s health status also involves using words, hence it also falls under the category of verbal communication. Verbal communication is crucial in nursing as it helps promote understanding and establish trust between the nurse and the patient.
Learn more about Verbal Communication here:https://brainly.com/question/33980890
#SPJ6
Piaget believed that the __________ fit entirely in a single stage of cognitive development called the __________ stage.
Piaget theorized that children's intelligence fully exists within the Concrete Operational stage of cognitive development. This stage, occurring from ages 7 to 11, involves children understanding concepts through direct physical manipulation and observation. Abstract or hypothetical understanding develops later, in the final stage.
Explanation:Jean Piaget, a Swiss developmental psychologist, proposed a theory of cognitive development that consists of four major stages. According to him, the child's intelligence fits entirely in a single stage of cognitive development called the Concrete Operational stage. This stage typically lasts from ages 7 to 11 and is characterized by the development of logical thought. Children at this stage start to understand concepts like conservation, reversibility, and causality, but their understanding is limited to concrete objects and situations they can physically manipulate and observe. They still struggle with abstract or hypothetical concepts, which Piaget believed come later in the final stage of cognitive development, the Formal Operational stage.
Learn more about Piaget's Concrete Operational Stage here:https://brainly.com/question/32351417
#SPJ6
Piaget believed that the stages of cognitive development fit entirely in a single stage of cognitive development
Explanation:Piaget believed that the stages of cognitive development fit entirely in a single stage of cognitive development called the sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational stage. According to Piaget, each stage represents a distinct shift in how we think and reason as we progress from infancy to adulthood.
Learn more about Cognitive Development here:https://brainly.com/question/31608794
#SPJ6
The Family and Medical Leave Act, described in Chapter 1, is an example of the interaction between the state, the market, and family life. What does this law require large companies to do
The correct answer is; Employees can get twelve weeks of unpaid leave and their job is protected. They also require health care to be continued for workers and any dependents with a serious health issue.
Further Explanation:
The Family and Medical Leave Act is federal law made to protect families in the workplace. This helps employees keep their job position safe when they can't be at work. A doctor will need to fill out some forms for the employer and the employer will decide if the employee is covered by this law. This only takes a few days at the most.
Some of the things that the Family and Medical Leave Act covers are;
Having a new baby in the home.Care of a child within the first year of life.Placement of a child by adoption.Care for an employee's husband, child, or family member that is seriously ill.The employee has a health issue that does not let the employee perform their job requirements. Covers an issue of a family member that is in the service.Learn more about the Family Medical Leave Act at https://brainly.com/question/2418314
#LearnwithBrainly
Alendronate sodium is prescribed for an older adult client. which statement by the client to the nurse indicates that teaching about the medication is successful?
Answer: 2)."I will sit and read a book for half an hour after I take it."
Explanation:
Alendronate sodium is a medication which inhibits bone resorption. Its mode of administration is as followed; I). it should be taken on awakening and on an empty stomach for at least thirty (30) minutes before the first food, beverage or other medication of the day is taken. II). It should be taken with a full glass of plain water (8 oz) to rinse the esophagus.
iii). The patient must remain uprightly seated for at least thirty (30) minutes in order to facilitate absorption of the medication and alse decrease esophageal irritation.
The greatest barrier that impedes pregnant women from receiving early prenatal care in Vermont is the lack of accessibility to health insurance, not the lack of education.True/false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The rate of women who are pregnant and are receiving pre-natal care in Vermont was about 80 to 85 percent from year 2000 to 2010. This is below the set target by the Department of Health in Vermont for 90% of women to receive prenatal care. It was thought that lack of education was the main cause of these women not accessing prenatal healthcare, but after assessing Vermont healthcare current state, it is clearly seen that a lack of accessibility to health insurance is the major barrier for these women.
A multipara client who had a cesarean delivery states that whenever she breastfeeds her baby, she experiences uterine cramping at a pain level of 6-7. The appropriate nursing action will teach the client that:__________
a. oxytocin, which causes the uterus to contract, is released when the baby suckles at the breast.
b. the cramps will diminish if she massages her uterus before nursing her baby.
c. she has cramps because she had a cesarean delivery.
d. the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated when the baby breastfeeds.
Answer:
Option-A
Explanation
Oxytocin hormone is released during labour which helps contract the uterus after the delivery. The oxytocin hormone thus helps the labour process and healing of the body as it reduces the blood loss.
The oxytocin hormone is also released when the newborn baby or infant suckles at mothers nipples which help the milk to let down for the baby and promotes child bonding but it also causes menstrual-like cramps in the uterus.
Thus, Option-A is the correct answer.
_____ health refers to both the emotional and mental states of a person-that is, to feelings and thoughts.
Explanation:
Psychological is the correct answer!
Psychological
hope this helps
What psychological strategy allows an athlete to gain control over the thought process, changing negative thoughts to more productive positive thoughts?
Answer:concentration
Explanation:
The cooperative social interaction in which one person responds to another's suggestions, which in turn can produce changes in perception, memory, thoughts, and behavior, is called _______.
Answer:
Hypnosis
Explanation:
Hypnosis refers to a mental state in which the person experiences a trance-like state with higher concentration and focus. An average person enters the hypnotic stage twice during a day in which the person feels relaxed and focussed.
The hypnosis therapy is provided to the person with the soothing verbal communication and mental imagery which relaxes the mind and can transform the mind of the patient. The transformation could be in the form of their perception, thoughts, memory and behaviour.
Thus, Hypnosis is the correct answer.
Answer:
Hypnosis.
Explanation:
Hypnosis may be defined as the psychological condition in which humans are in the state of extreme focus attention. The individual is more aware to respond to the different suggestions.
The hypnosis is a kind of psychological social interaction between the people and mainly linked with the suggestions. This kind of interaction can change the memory, behavior and thinking perspective of an individual. The individual is more concentrated for the particular thing.
Thus, the answer is hypnosis.
The nurse manger is discussing self- awareness during a staff meeting. Which statement(s) by the staff nurse best depicts self-awareness? Select all that apply.
A- I'm tired and hungry. I need to take a break and get something to eat.
B- I asked to be transferred because the nurses on this unit are critical and make me feel inadequate when I work with them.
Answer:
A- I'm tired and hungry. I need to take a break and get something to eat.
B- I asked to be transferred because the nurses on this unit are critical and make me feel inadequate when I work with them.
Explanation:
Both the statements depict self-awareness and consciousness of the nurse manager. The nurse staff is very well aware of her physical and mental needs. She feels that taking care of her diet and eating first while hungry is a self-awareness of her physical needs. Second statement shows that she is self-aware of her potential as a nurse and wants a positive working environment to protect her mental peace. Therefore, she asked for transfer because she feels inadequate professionally due to over-critical nature of fellow nurses in her unit.
What is the term that Thomas and Chess used to describe babies who have negative moods, are slow to adapt to new situations, and tend to withdraw when confronted with a new situation?a) slow-to-warm babies
b) easy babies
c) difficult babies
d) low intensity babies
Answer:
a) slow to warm babies
Explanation:
Estimation by Thomas and Chess shows that slow to warm babies tends to have difficult temperament which lead to negative mood swings, they are usually slow to adapt to new environment or situations,, their reactions are usually heightened up with intense rate and due to their irregular routines as part of their characteristics tend to withdrawn when they are confronted with a new situation.
The nurse is preparing for the hospital discharge of a client with a history of command hallucinations to harm self or others. The nurse instructs the client about interventions for hallucinations & anxiety & determines that the client understands the interventions when the client states which?
Answer:
The nurse is preparing for the hospital discharge of a client with a history of command hallucinations to harm self or others. The nurse instructs the client about interventions for hallucinations & anxiety & determines that the client understands the interventions when the client states "I can call my therapist when I'm hallucinating so I can talk about my feelings & plans & not hurt anyone."
Explanation:
The nurse is preparing for the hospital discharge of a client with a history of command hallucinations to harm self or others. The nurse instructs the client about interventions for hallucinations & anxiety & determines that the client understands the interventions when the client states "I can call my therapist when I'm hallucinating so I can talk about my feelings & plans & not hurt anyone."
To be eligible under HIPAA regulations, for how long should an individual converting to an individual health plan have been covered under the previous group plan?
Answer:
18 months
Explanation:
According to HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), the individual must have had 18 months of continuous creditable health insurance before applying for individual health coverage. Moreover, you should apply for the individual health coverage within 63 days of losing your previous creditable healthcare coverage under the group plan.
A food label must include five primary components: Statement of identity, the quantity of the food product, list of the ingredients, taste and flavor of the food product, and the nutrition facts 1)A statement of identity
2)Net contents of the package
3)Ingredient list
4)Manufacturer's name and address
5)Nutrition information (Nutrition Facts Panel)
Answer:
umm I think it is Nutrition Information
A food label must include, the components are 1) A statement of identity, 2) Net contents of the package 3) Ingredient list and 5) Nutrition information (Nutrition Facts Panel).
A food label must include five primary components: Statement of identity, the quantity of the food product, list of ingredients, manufacturer's name and address, and the nutrition facts panel. The components are as follows:
Statement of identity: This is the name of the food product, which should accurately describe the true nature of the food item.Net contents of the package: This information indicates the net weight, volume, or number of servings contained in the package.Ingredient list: All ingredients present in the food product must be listed in descending order by weight or proportion.Manufacturer's name and address: The label should include the name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor responsible for the product.Nutrition information (Nutrition Facts Panel): This panel provides detailed information about the nutritional content of the food, including serving size, calories, and amounts of various nutrients like fat, carbohydrates, protein, vitamins, and minerals.The option "taste and flavor of the food product" is not a mandatory component of a food label, as it is subjective and can be perceived differently by individuals.
What is NOT a recognized swimming stoke?
A. Dog paddle
B. Butterfly
C. Breast stoke
D. Backstroke
Answer:
Dog paddle isn't a stroke technically in swimming, though it is used if you don't know how to properly swim.
Answer:
A. dog paddle is not recognized as a swimming stroke
Explanation:
is not recognized as a swimming stroke
What are some early pregnancy symptoms?
Early pregnancy symptoms include changes in the digestive and urinary system, such as nausea, vomiting, heartburn, frequent urination, and weight gain in the abdominal and breast regions. There are dramatic enlargements of the abdominal region, increased blood volume, increased melanin production and possible appearance of skin stretch marks during this period.
Explanation:Early pregnancy symptoms can be noticed primarily due to changes in the digestive and urinary system. Common symptoms include nausea and vomiting, often triggered by an increased sensitivity to odors. This is generally referred to as “morning sickness” but can persist all day. Additionally, decreased intestinal peristalsis may also contribute to this feeling of nausea.
Other noticeable changes include weight gain primarily in the breasts and abdominal region, heartburn, and frequent urination. Pregnancy leads to increases in maternal blood volume and respiratory minute volume, and skin may develop stretch marks and increased melanin production.
In the second and third trimesters, there is a dramatic enlargement of the abdominal region due to the growing fetus and the enlarged uterus, amniotic fluid, and placenta. This period is also marked by increased weight gain due to additional breast tissue and increased blood volume
Learn more about Early Pregnancy Symptoms here:https://brainly.com/question/4329173
#SPJ3
When evaluating a family health tree, a family member who has a heart attack at age 70 raises more genetic concerns than a relative who develops colon cancer at age 28. True or false?
Answer: False.
Explanation:
If a person has a family history of colon cancer, his or her risk of developing the disease is nearly double. The risk further increases if other close relatives have also developed colon cancer or if a first-degree relative was diagnosed at a younger age like 28years old.
A person who develop colon cancer at 28years of age raises more genetic concern.
Match the terms to their definition.
1. chromosome
a genetic characteristic of an individual
2. eukaryote
a specific sequence of DNA nucleotides that carry hereditary traits
3. gene
a cell whose nucleus is not bound by a membrane
4. prokaryote
a cell that has a membrane-bound nucleus
5. trait
tight coils of DNA
Answer/Explanation:
1. chromosome - tight coils of DNA
Before the cell is ready to divide, it replicates the DNA and then condenses the DNA to form structures called chromosomes. These X shaped, tightly coiled structures are divided between two daughter cells, so that each cell has identical genetic information to the parent cell after it has been divided. The human genome is organised into pairs of 23 chromosomes (46 total).
2. eukaryote - a cell that has a membrane-bound nucleus
Eukaryotes are distinct from prokaryotes because their DNA is housed in a membrane-bound organelle called a nucleus. Humans are examples of eukaryotes. Eukaryotes are usually much more complicated organisms than prokaryotes, which is why their DNA requires physical separation from other cell components. Eukaryotes also possess other membrane-bound organelles that are present in a prokaryote.
3. gene - a specific sequence of DNA nucleotides that carry hereditary traits
DNA can (mostly) be divided up into functional units called genes. These genes specify proteins that play important functions in the cell. Variation in the DNA at genes can mean that the structure and function of the protein is affected, producing different traits for different individuals.
4. prokaryote - a cell whose nucleus is not bound by a membrane
Unlikely eukaryotes as described in question 2, prokaryotes lack a membrane bound nucleus. Instead, their DNA is housed in a region of the cytoplasm called the nucleoid. Prokaryotes tend to have much less DNA and it is much less complex. It is usually organised into a single circular molecule
5. trait - a genetic characteristic of an individual
Traits describe a characteristic that is determined by a gene or several genes working together, and can also be influenced by the environment (depending on what the trait is). Phenotypes describe a trait. For example, the pea plant height is a trait, but tall or short is the phenotype.
Answer: DNA traits is one of the best of the best of the best of the bestest of the bestestest and of the bestestestestestestesty
Explanation: no clue
A nurse is caring for a client with sleep apnea. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate to prevent hypoxia in the client?
Answer: To prevent hypoxia in pateint of sleep apnea the nurse should give the pateint direct oxygen administration or maintain the continous positive airway pressure.
Explanation:
Hypoxemia or hypoxia is known as the decreased concentration of the oxygen in blood. Mainly seen in sleep related breathing disorders as in sleep apnea.
When blood oxygen saturation is below 90% then the pateint may experience irregular heartbeats, strokes or heart attack.
To treat the pateint with sleep apnea direct oxygen administration is required or continous positive airway pressure is the treatment otherwise. CPAP is a positive airway pressure ventilator, in which mild air pressure is applied on a continuous basis which keeps the airways continuously open in people who are unable to breathe spontaneously on their own, but need help keeping their airway unobstructed.
The purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV. This purpose statement indicates that this is probably a (n): a. Correlational study b. Descriptive study c. Experimental research d. Quasi experimental research
The statement 'the purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV' indicates that this is probably a descriptive study (Option b).
A descriptive study refers to a type of study where data are collected without producing any change in the environmentIn consequence, in a descriptive study, the environment is not manipulated to obtain data.The main objective of a descriptive study is to provide basic data on the variables analyzed in the dataset.In conclusion, the statement 'the purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV' indicates that this is probably a descriptive study (Option b).
Learn more in:
https://brainly.com/question/25711329
Based on the information given, it can be deduced that it's a descriptive study.
A descriptive study simply means a study where information is collected without changing the environment. It's typically used to describe a particular population.
Since the purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV, this is a descriptive study.
Learn more about descriptive study on:
https://brainly.com/question/4691193
What are nutrients?
Answer:
A nutrient is a substance used by an organism to survive, grow, and reproduce. The requirement for dietary nutrient intake applies to animals, plants, fungi, and protists.
Explanation:
Hope this helped :( ?
Answer:
nutrients is a substance that provides nourishment essential for growth and the maintenance of life
Explanation:
At which stage of sensorimotor intelligence do we see babies engaging in actions to produce novel reactions?
Between 12-18 months
Explanation:
In this stage the infants are considered to be in their tertiary circular reaction stage and the baby will start to explore the objects and they will try the new ways in exploring them and they will start to try to reach out the objects
There are many stages of sensorimotor which will lasts still 24 months and there are also six sub stages in which all the primary the secondary and the tertiary reactions will be coordinated
which strategies have the potential to prevent the spread of disease select the three correct answers
a=earlier intervention
b=closing water purification plants.
c=education through social media
d=the development of new vaccines.
The correct answers are: a) Earlier intervention, c) Education through social media, and d) The development of new vaccines.
The three strategies with the potential to prevent the spread of disease are:
a) Earlier intervention: Early detection and intervention can help contain the spread of diseases by identifying cases promptly and implementing appropriate control measures.
c) Education through social media: Utilizing social media platforms for public health education campaigns can raise awareness about preventive measures, symptoms, and treatment options, thus empowering individuals to take necessary precautions.
d) The development of new vaccines: Vaccines play a crucial role in preventing the spread of infectious diseases by providing immunity to individuals, thereby reducing the likelihood of transmission within communities.
Complete Question:
Which strategies have the potential to prevent the spread of disease? Select the three correct answers.
a) earlier intervention
b) closing water purification plants.
c) education through social media
d) the development of new vaccines.
A child with a few vesicular lesions on her face is brought to the emergency room. She is diagnosed with chickenpox. To prevent transmission of chickenpox through direct contact, the LPN initiates contact precautions. Which of the following should also be initiated to isolate this illness?
a. Reverse isolation
b. Airborne precautions
c. Standard precautions
d. Droplet precautions
Answer:
The correct answer is b. Airborne precaution
Explanation:
Chickenpox is a very contagious disease which is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It can be spread to healthy individual by coming in direct contact with the blister fluid or respiratory secretion of an infected person. Transmission through sneezing and coughing is also possible which comes under airborne transmission.
So as chickenpox virus can spread through direct contact and air therefore with contact precaution, airborne precaution should also be initiated to isolate this illness. So the right answer is b.
Teresa would like to begin eating healthier and she has created a plan of action to help reach that goal. Her study group meets at a fast food restaurant twice a week, and she has asked them to meet at the library instead. Teresa understands that to meet her goal, she needs to __________
Answer: not walk in expecting it to be easy.
Explanation:
Of course we all want that beautiful body that all of the models have. But I am not going to try and sugar coat it... most of us get told that we are beautiful but often don’t feel that way. Have her Try eating before she goes to the restraint that way she will feel less tempted to eat the greasy poison.
A state of mental balance in which people are not confused because they can use their existing thought processes to understand current experiences and ideas is called _________.
Answer: Cognitive equilibrium
Explanation: Cognitive equilibrium is a state of mental balance between an individual and its environment. People are not confused because they can use their existing thought activities (stored in their memory house) to understand current situations and ideas.
Previous occasions are considered to understand and predicts a series of results of present events encountered.
Kelsey is a research assistant in drug-treatment studies. Her professor said they are using a double-blind procedure to minimize the chance that _____ are responsible for differences between experimental and control conditions.
Answer: Placebo effects.
Explanation:
Placebo effect is also known as Placebo, it is a situation whereby a substance known to have effective performs the wonders of improving the health condition of a patient, this is due to the believe the patient has towards the substance. One of the factors that helps Placebo effect is "Expectation".
A substance is regarded to have placebo effect if it was not designed to have any therapeutic value, Examples of placebo includes disabled water, sugar, sham surgery, inert injection and tablets, etc.
Many of the top ten leading causes of death in the United States have a strong correlation to what a person decides to eat or not eat during his or her lifespan. What are the top two leading causes of death in the United States?
Answer:
Coronary disease and cancer
Explanation:
According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), the top two leading causes of death in the USA in 2019. were coronary disease and cancer, accounting for around 45% of all deaths.
Most common risk factors for coronary disease are: diabetes, food rich in fats, unhealthy diet, smoking cigarettes, stress, physical inactivity, genetic factors, alcohol abuse etc
Most common risk factors for cancer are: cigarette smoking, industrial food, environmental factors, diet low in fruit, vegetables and fibers, genetic factors etc
We can see that common denominators for these two causes of death are unhealthy lifestyles and genetic factors.
Since one can't change its genetics, it is essential to have a healthy diet, avoid cigarettes and alcohol, be physically active etc.