Simplify.

9y+11z+7y−4z

What is the answer?

A. 23yz
B. 2y + 7z
C. 16y + 7z
D. 16y + 15z

If the CPI increased by 8.3%, therefore this means that there was a fractional increase of 0.083. So amount increased is:

CPI increase = 141 * 0.083 = 11.703

Therefore the end of year CPI is the sum of the original and the increase:

end of year CPI = 141 + 11.703 = 152.703

Answer:

152.703

The required algebraic expression for the length of the blade is x = 14 - h.

Given that,

The knife shown below is 14 inches long.
To write an algebraic expression that represents the length of the blade (in inches).

In mathematics, it deals with numbers of operations according to the statements. There are four major arithmetic operators, addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division,

Here let the length of the blade of the knife be x,
length of the knife handle be h
Here the total length of the knife is 14 inches
So,
The total length of the knife = length of the blade + length of the handle
14 = x + h
x = 14 - h

Thus, the required algebraic expression for the length of the blade is x = 14 - h.

Learn more about arithmetic here:

brainly.com/question/14753192

#SPJ2

Ten as 9 hundreds is 9 thousands.

Place value is the value of each digit in a number.

For example 5 in 350 is 5 tens or 50.

The given digit is 9 thousand which can be written as 9,000

It can be written as,

9,000 = 9 x 1000

or,9,000 = 9 x 10 x 100

So, for require 9 hundreds multiplying 9 by 100 in the above expression

9,000 = 10 x 900

which can be described as Ten as 9 hundreds is 9 thousand.

Hence, ten as 9 hundreds is 9 thousands

More about place value :

https://brainly.com/question/108162

#SPJ5

10 as 9 hundreds  is 9 thousands.

Suppose a number 12345 is given this can be written as

10000 + 2000 + 300 + 40 + 5 if we sum up all these we will get back our given number.

Now if we are asked what is the place value of 2 & 4

So, the place value of 2 in the given number is 2000 & the place value of 4 is 40.

Place value is defined as the value based on the position of that number  whether it's in thousand's place or ten's or in 1's place.

In the given question

___ as 9 hundreds is 9 thousand

⇒ ____ as 900 is 9000

if we divide 9000/900 = 10 we will get our answer.

Learn more about Face value here :

https://brainly.com/question/20694589

#SPJ2

Answer:

The y-intercept of f(x) is 3 units below the y-intercept of g(x).

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given,

The functions [tex]f(x)=x-1[/tex] and [tex]g(x)=x+2[/tex].

Now, y-intercept is the point where the graph of the function crosses y-axis.

Substituting x= 0 in the functions, we get,

[tex]f(0)=0-1\\f(0)=-1[/tex] and [tex]g(0)=0+2\\g(0)=2[/tex].

Thus, we get that,

The y-intercept of the the function f(x) is -1.

The y-intercept of the function g(x) is at 2.

Thus, the y-intercept of f(x) is 2-(-1)= 3 units below the y-intercept of g(x) as seen below.

The answer is interval or ratio. In interval level of measurement, the distances between have attributes does have a meaning. The best example to be used here is temperature. The distance from 40-50 is like the distance from 70-80. While in ratio level of measurement, there is constantly an absolute zero that is significant. Meaning, that you can build a meaningful fraction (or ratio) with a ratio variable. 

Answer:

f⁻¹(x) = (1/2)x +5

Step-by-step explanation:

In y = f(x), swap the variables, then solve for y. The expression you get is f⁻¹(x).

... y = 2x -10

... x = 2y -10 . . . . . . swapped variables

... x +10 = 2y . . . . . add 10

... (1/2)x + 5 = y . . . . divide by 2

... f⁻¹(x) = (1/2)x + 5 . . . . . . rewrite using function notation

The probability that a Poisson random variable X equals 2, given that its variance is 3, is approximately 0.2240.

The student asks about finding the probability that a Poisson random variable X takes on a value exactly equal to 2, given that the variance of X is 3. We know for a Poisson distribution, the variance is equal to its mean, which is denoted by λ (lambda). Therefore, λ = 3.

Using the formula for the Poisson probability mass function (PMF), P(X = k) = (e^(-λ) * λ^k) / k!, we can calculate P(X = 2). Substituting λ = 3 and k = 2, we have:

P(X = 2) = (e^(-3) * 3^2) / 2! = (0.0497871 * 9) / 2 = 0.224041.

We can round this probability to four decimal places:

P(X = 2) ≈ 0.2240.

Answer:58 metric ton

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Fifty eight thousand kilogram of solid waste

We need to convert it into metric tons

and we know 1 metric ton is equivalent to one thousand kilogram i.e. 1000 kg

so 58,000 kg is equivalent to 58 metric ton

The value of the 50 divided by 2.5 divided by 0.04 is equal to  500.

To calculate 50 divided by 2.5 divided by 0.04, should follow the order of operations,

which is parentheses, exponents, multiplication and division (from left to right), and finally addition and subtraction (from left to right).

However, there are no parentheses or exponents in this expression, so we can proceed directly to multiplication and division:

50 ÷ 2.5 ÷ 0.04

First, divide 50 by 2.5:

50 ÷ 2.5 = 20

Next, divide the result (20) by 0.04:

20 ÷ 0.04 = 500

Therefore, 50 divided by 2.5 divided by 0.04 equals 500.

learn more about divide here

brainly.com/question/15381501

#SPJ6

To convert grams per cubic centimeter to pounds-mass per cubic foot, you can use the conversion factors. By applying the conversion factors of 1 lb = 454 g and 1 ft³ = (30.5 cm)³, you can calculate that 40 grams per cubic centimeter is equal to 500 pounds-mass per cubic foot.

To convert grams per cubic centimeter to pounds-mass per cubic foot, we need to use conversion factors. Firstly, we need to convert grams to pounds by using the conversion factor 1 lb = 454 g. Then, we convert cubic centimeters to cubic feet by using the conversion factor 1 ft³ = (30.5 cm)³. Finally, we combine the two conversion factors to find the desired unit: pounds-mass per cubic foot.

Given:

Conversion factor:

Calculation:

Simplifying the calculation gives:

Therefore, 40 grams per cubic centimeter is equal to 500 pounds-mass per cubic foot.

Step-by-step explanation: Three consecutive odd integers are represents as follows.

X ⇒ first integer

X + 2 ⇒ second integer

X + 4 ⇒ third integer

Since the sum of these is 87, our equation reads X + X + 2 + X + 4 = 87.

Simplifying on the left, we get 3x + 6 = 87.

Subtracting 6 from both sides, 3x = 81.

Now divide both sides by 3 and x = 27.

Since x, our first odd integer is 27, our next consecutive odd integer will be X + 2 or 27 + 2 which is 29 and X + 4 would be 31.

Eight and one-half years ago the age of Steven was 7 years, then the present age of Steven is 15.5 years.

Mathematical equations with two algebraic symbols on either side of the equal (=) sign are called equation. This connection is illustrated by the left and right expression being equal to one another. The left-hand side equals the right-hand side is a basic, straightforward equation.

Assume the current age of Steven is x years.

From the given information in the question,

8.5 years ago from now,

x - 8.5 = 7 years

x = 15.5 years.

So, the current age is 15.5 years.

To know more about Equation:

https://brainly.com/question/10413253

#SPJ3

The speed of the particle in rpm is 43170.32 rpm.

Given:

The distance of particle (radius) from the axis is [tex]r=6\rm \: cm=0.06\; m[/tex].

The acceleration (centripetal) experienced by the particle is,

[tex]a=125000\rm \; g's\\a=125000\times 9.81 \rm \; m/s^2\\a=1226250\rm \; m/s^2[/tex]

Let ω be the angular velocity of the particle and N be the speed in rpm.

So, ω will be  [tex]\omega=\dfrac{2\pi N}{60}[/tex]

Now, the acceleration of the particle can be written as,

[tex]a=\omega^2r\\a=\left(\dfrac{2\pi N}{60}\right)^2\times 0.06[/tex]

So, the speed of the particle in rpm will be,

[tex]a=\left(\dfrac{2\pi N}{60}\right)^2\times 0.06\\12262550=0.01095N^2\times 0.06\\N=43170.32\rm \; rpm[/tex]

Therefore, the speed of the particle in rpm is 43170.32 rpm.

For more details, refer the link:

https://brainly.com/question/8825608?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

This is FALSE.

Step-by-step explanation:

Writing a check on an account with insufficient funds is never allowed by any bank. This will only lead to check bounce and sometimes can land you up in legal trouble. When a check bounces, you will have to pay your bank the bounce fee also. Hence, we should be careful while writing any check.

The volume of 10 drops of liquid is approximately 0.0001 fluid ounces.

To find the volume of 10 drops of liquid, we can use the given information that the volume of 10000 drops is 10 fluid ounces. Let's set up a proportion to solve for the volume of 10 drops.

Let V be the volume of 10 drops in fluid ounces.

We know that the volume of 10000 drops is 10 fluid ounces, so we can write:

10,000 drops / V = 10 fluid ounces / 10 drops

Now, cross-multiply and solve for V:

10,000 drops * 10 drops = 10 fluid ounces * V

100,000 drops² = 10 fluid ounces * V

Now, divide both sides by 100,000 drops^2 to solve for V:

V = 10 fluid ounces / 100,000 drops^2

V ≈ 0.0001 fluid ounces

Therefore, the volume of 10 drops of liquid is approximately 0.0001 fluid ounces.

Learn about volume here:

brainly.com/question/22886594

#SPJ2