Clampett, Inc., has been an S corporation since its inception. On July 15, 2020, Clampett, Inc., distributed $50,000 to J.D. His basis in his Clampett, Inc., stock on January 1, 2020, was $45,000. For 2020, J.D. was allocated $10,000 of ordinary income from Clampett, Inc., and no separately stated items. What is the amount of income J.D. recognizes related to Clampett, Inc., in 2020

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

$5,000

Explanation:

Given:

Basis distribution = $50,000

Basis stock = $45,000

Ordinary income = $10,000

Computation of Capital gain:

Capital gain = Basis distribution - Basis stock - Ordinary income

Capital gain = $50,000 - $45,000 - $10,000

Capital gain = - $5,000

Computation of J.D. income related to Clampett = Ordinary income + Capital gain

Computation of J.D. income related to Clampett = $10,000 - $5,000

Computation of J.D. income related to Clampett = $5,000


Related Questions

Santos Co. is preparing a cash budget for February. The company has $18,000 cash at the beginning of February and anticipates $66,000 in cash receipts and $116,000 in cash disbursements during February. What amount, if any, must the company borrow during February to maintain a $5,000 cash balance? The company has no loans outstanding on February 1. (Negative cash balances, if any, should be indicated with minus sign.)

Answers

Answer:

$5,000

Explanation:

The computation of Ending Cash balance is shown below:-

Financing

Preliminary cash Balance = Beginning cash balance + Cash receipt - Cash Disbursement + Financing

= $18,000 + $66,000 - $116,000

= -$32,000

Financing = Preliminary cash Balance + Minimum Cash Balance Required

= $32,000 + $5,000

= $37,000

Ending cash balance = Financing - Preliminary cash Balance

= $37,000 - $32,000

= $5,000

onghorn Fabricators Inc. plans to expand its metals-forming facility over the next 5 years. The company will add 20,000 square feet to its 100,000-square-foot plant as it adds robotic welding units, additional laser technology, and automated loading facilities. Construction at the plant is expected to start by the end of next year. The company expects to pay 5 equal payments of $250,000 every 12 months over the 5 year period. What is the future value of the total improvement cost, if the interest rate is 18% per year, compounded every 12 months?

Answers

Answer:

Future value of total improvement cost = $1,788,552.44

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

Regular deposit amount = $250,000

No. of period = 5 years

Interest rate = 18%

Future value = Regular deposit amount × [((1+interest rate per period)^no. of period - 1) ÷ interest rate per period]

Face value = $250,000×[((1+0.18)^5-1) ÷ 0.18]

= $250,000×7.154

= $1,788,552.44

Future value of total improvement cost = $1,788,552.44

Michael's, Inc., just paid $1.85 to its shareholders as the annual dividend. Simultaneously, the company announced that future dividends will be increasing by 4.1 percent. If you require a rate of return of 8.3 percent, how much are you willing to pay today to purchase one share of the company's stock?

Answers

Answer:

$45.85

Explanation:

Price today = Next year dividend / (Rate of return - Dividend growth rate)

Next year dividend = $1.85 * 1.041% = $1.92585

Therefore, we have:

Price today = $1.92585 / (8.3% - 4.1%) = $45.85

Therefore, you will be willing to pay $45.85 today to purchase one share of the company's stock.

Northern purchased the entire business of Southern including all its assets and liabilities for $600,000. Below is information related to the two companies Northern Fair value of assets $1,050,000 $800,000 575,000 Fair value of liabilities 300,000 Reported assets 800,000 650,000 Reported liabilities 500,000 250,000 Net Income for the year 50,000 60,000 How much goodwill did Northern pay for acquiring Southen?
A) $300,000.
B) $200,000
C) $150,000.
D) $100,000

Answers

Answer:

D) $100,000

Explanation:

As per the given question the solution of goodwill is provided below:-

To reach at goodwill first we need to find out the fair value of net assets which is here below:-

Fair value of Net assets = Fair value of assets - Fair value of liabilities

= $800,000 - $300,000

= $500,000

Goodwill = Price paid - Acquired Fair value of net assets

= $600,000 - $500,000

= $100,000

So, we have calculated the goodwill by deducting the acquired Fair value of net assets from price paid.

Chico Company paid $560,000 for a basket purchase that included office furniture, a building and land. An appraiser provided the following estimates of the market values of the assets if they had been purchased separately: Office furniture, $140,000; Building, $460,000, and Land, $110,000. Based on this information, what is the cost that should be allocated to the office furniture? (Round your intermediate percentages to four decimal places: ie .054231 = 5.42%.)

Answers

Answer: $110,432

Explanation:

The cost allocated to the Office furniture is the percentage of total appraised cost * the price paid for the basket purchase because it shows what proportion of the Basket Purchase should be ascribed to the Office furniture.

Total Appraised value = 140,000 + 460,000 + 110,000

= $710,000

Office furniture Proportion = 140,000/710,000

= 0.1971830985

=0.1972

Amount to be allocated to Office furniture = 0.1972 * 560,000

= $110,432

$110,432 should be allocated to the office furniture.

= $110,422.

On January​ 1, 2018​, Plummer Company issued $ 400 comma 000 of 10​%, five​-year bonds payable at 107. Plummer Company has extra cash and wishes to retire the bonds payable on January​ 1, 2019​, immediately after making the second semiannual interest payment. To retire the​ bonds, Plummer pays the market price of 94. Read the requirementsLOADING.... ​(Assume bonds payable are amortized using the​ straight-line amortization​ method.) Requirement 1. What is Plummer ​Company's carrying amount of the bonds payable on the retirement​ date?

Answers

Answer:

Bond carrying value is $422,400

Explanation:

The company's carrying value of bonds payable on retirement date can be deduced from the computation below:

First of all,the bonds were at a premium of 7%,hence cash realized from bonds issue =$400,000*107%=$428,000

     Premium on bond issue= $428,000-$400,000=$28,000

The bond premium amortization=total premium/bond life

bond life is 5 years

bond premium amortization=$28,000/5=$5600 per year

At retirement date,the premium of one year would have been amortized,as result bond carrying value is now cash proceeds minus amortized premium

bond carrying value=$428,000-$5,600=$422,400

32,500 shares of common stock outstanding at a price per share of $80 and a rate of return of 12.95 percent. The firm has 7,350 shares of 7.90 percent preferred stock outstanding at a price of $95.50 per share. The preferred stock has a par value of $100. The outstanding debt has a total face value of $407,000 and currently sells for 111.5 percent of face. The yield to maturity on the debt is 8.11 percent and the bonds have a coupon rate of 5.6 percent. What is the firm's weighted average cost of capital if the tax rate is 40 percent?

Answers

Answer:

WACC = 11.1%

Explanation:

The weighted Average cost of Capital is the average cost of capital for the different sources of long-term capital available to a firm weighted according to the proportion each source of finance bears to the total capital in the pool.

Market of securities

Common stock =  $80 × 32,500=  2,600,000.  

Preferred stock = $95.50 ×  7,350=   701,925.00  

Bond = 407,000/100 × 111.5= 453,805.00  

Cost of each capital type

Common stock= 12.95

Preferred stock = (7.90%× 100)/95.50= 8.3%

Bond= 8.11%× (1-0.4)=4.87%

WACC

Type                      Market Value          Cost           Market value  cost

Common stock   2,600,000.              12.95%         336,700.00  

Preferred            701,925.00              8.3%             58,065.00  

Bond                   453,805.00             4.87%            22,100.30

Total                    3,755,730.00                                416,865.30  

WACC = (416,865.30  / 3,755,730.00) ×  100

       = 11.1%

WACC = 11.1%

You are planning your retirement in 10 years. You currently have $171,000 in a bond account and $611,000 in a stock account. You plan to add $6,900 per year at the end of each of the next 10 years to your bond account. The stock account will earn a return of 11.25 percent and the bond account will earn a return of 7.75 percent. When you retire, you plan to withdraw an equal amount for each of the next 24 years at the end of each year and have nothing left. Additionally, when you retire you will transfer your money to an account that earns 7 percent.How much can you withdraw each year in your retirement?

Answers

Answer :

$194,767.71

Explanation :

As per the data given in the question,

Future value of ordinary annuity = C × [(1+i)^n - 1 ÷ i]

value of bond = $171,000 × (1+0.0775)^10 + $6,900 × ((1+0.0775)^10 - 1) ÷ 0.0775

= $360,718.90 + $98,778.37

= $459,497.27

Now

Future value of stock = $6,11000 × (1+0.1125)^10

= $1,774,358.645

Combined value = $459,497.27 + $1,774,358.645

= $2,233,855.92

After solving this, we need to apply the PMT formula for yearly payment i.e to be shown below

NPER = 24 years

RATE = 7%

PV = $2,233,855.92

FV= 0

The formula is shown below:

= PMT(RATE;NPER;-PV;FV;0)

The present value comes in negative

After applying the above formula, the yearly payment is $194,767.71

The Work-in-Process inventory account of a manufacturing firm shows a balance of $4,090 at the end of an accounting period. The job cost sheets of two uncompleted jobs show charges of $570 and $370 for materials, and charges of $600 and $800 for direct labor. From this information, it appears that the company is using a predetermined overhead rate, as a percentage of direct labor costs, of: Multiple Choice 43%.

Answers

Answer:

125%

Explanation:

The computation of predetermined overhead rate is shown below:-

Manufacturing overhead = $4,090 - ($570 + $370 + $600 + $800)

= $4,090 - $2,340

= $1,750

Total direct labor = $600 + $800

= $1,400

Manufacturing overhead = Predetermined overhead rate × Direct labor

Predetermined overhead rate = Manufacturing overhead ÷ Direct labor

= $1,750 ÷ $1,400

= 125%

Therefore for computing the predetermined overhead rate we simply divide the manufacturing overhead by direct labor.

Martha Gentry won a $16,800,000 lottery and elected to receive her winnings in 30 equal annual installments. After receiving the first 10 installments, Martha and her husband divorced, and the remaining 20 payments became part of the property settlement. The judge who presided over the divorce proceedings awarded one-half interest in the future lottery payments to Martha and the other half to her ex-husband. Following the divorce, Martha decided to sell her interest in the 20 remaining lottery payments to raise the cash needed to open a flower store. An investor has offered Martha $2,555,980.What discount rate did the investor use in calculating the purchase price?

Answers

Answer:

Discount Rate = 9%

Explanation:

Martha won: $16,800,000

Number of installments = 30

The annual payment = amount won/ number of installments

= 16,800,000 / 30 = $560,000

___________________________

Individual share of 50% each = $560,000 * 50% = $280,000

Since the investor offered Martha $2,555,980 which is the future value for the remaining period of 20 years, we have:

Future Value = Present Value x PVAF (I, 20 Years)

$2,555,980 = $280,000 × PVIFA (I, 20 years)

PVIFA (I, 20 years) = 2555980/280000

PVIFA (I, 20 years) = 9.1285

From Present value annuity Tables, the factor value for 20 years 9.1285 is for 9%

Therefore, the discount rate the investor used in calculating the purchase price is 9%

has projected EBIT to be $225,000 for next year. Their tax rate is 21% and there is $`500,000 in equity. Precise Electronics Inc has no debt currently, but the board is considering a loan of $150,000 at 8% interest, which they will use to repurchase shares of their own stock at $50 per share. If there is a recession, EBIT could be only 75% of projected. If there is an expansion, EBIT might be 40% greater than projected. What will their return on equity be under the current structure and under the proposed structure for each scenario

Answers

Answer:

current EBIT = $225,000, net income = $225,000 x 0.79 = $177,750

EBIT under expansion = $225,000 x 1.4 = $315,000, net income = $315,000 x 0.79 = $248,850

EBIT under recession = $225,000 x 0.75 = $168,750, net income = $168,750 x 0.79 = $133,312.50

current equity = $500,000

equity under proposed structure = $500,000 - $150,000 = $350,000

interest expense per year under proposed structure = $150,000 x 8% = $12,000

net income current economy = ($225,000 - $12,000) x 0.79 = $168,270

net income economic expansion = ($315,000 - $12,000) x 0.79 = $239,370

net income economic recession = ($168,750 - $12,000) x 0.79 = $123,832.50

return on equity = net income / total equity

ROE under current structure:

no change in the economy = $177,750 / $500,000 = 35.55%economic expansion = $248,850 / $500,000 = 49.77%economic recession = $133,312.50 / $500,000 = 26.67%

ROE under proposed structure:

no change in the economy = $168,270 / $350,000 = 48.08%economic expansion = $239,370 / $350,000 = 68.39%economic recession = $123,832.50 / $350,000 = 35.38%

. Transmissions are delivered to the fabrication line four at a time. It takes one hour for transmissions to be delivered. Approximately four vehicles are produced each hour, and management has decided that 50 percent of expected demand should be maintained as safety stock. How many kanban card sets are needed?

Answers

Answer:

Two Kanban cards is needed

Explanation:

Solution

The first step to take is to compute the required  Kanban number of card sets.

By applying the formula, we have the following

Kanban cards = DL (1 +S)/C

Where,

L = The lead time to replenish an order is 1 hour

K = The number of kanban cards

D = The average number of demanded unit per a period which is 4

C= the container size which is 4

S = The safety stock represented in percentage of demand 0.50

Now,

We substitute the given values in the above formula and compute the number of kanbabn cards as follows:

Kanban cards =  4 * 1 (1 + 0.5)/4

= 6/4 =1.5

Therefore, the number of Kanban card sets are needed is 1.5

Final answer:

To calculate the number of kanban card sets needed, consider the demand and delivery rate. The average number of vehicles produced each hour is 4, and management wants to maintain 50% of expected demand as safety stock. Therefore, 2 kanban card sets are needed.

Explanation:

To calculate the number of kanban card sets needed, we need to consider the demand and delivery rate. The average number of vehicles produced each hour is 4, and management wants to maintain 50% of expected demand as safety stock. Since transmissions are delivered 4 at a time and it takes 1 hour for delivery, we can calculate the kanban card sets needed.

First, we calculate the expected demand:

Expected Demand = (Number of vehicles produced per hour) + (Safety Stock)

Expected Demand = 4 + (0.5 * 4) = 4 + 2 = 6

Next, we calculate the number of kanban card sets:

Number of Kanban Card Sets = (Expected Demand) / (Number of transmissions delivered per delivery)

Number of Kanban Card Sets = 6 / 4 = 1.5

Since kanban card sets cannot be fractional, we round up to the nearest whole number. Therefore, 2 kanban card sets are needed.

Simon graduated from Lessard University last year. He financed his education by working part-time and borrowing $16,000. During the current year, he pays $1,400 of interest on his student loan. a. If his adjusted gross income is $33,000, Simon can deduct $ of student loan interest. b. If his adjusted gross income is $77,000, Simon can deduct $

Answers

Answer:

a.

$1,400

b.

$280

Explanation:

According to Internal Revenue code the interest expense can only be deductible as adjusted gross income deduction, if the qualified education loan is used only for study credit, higher educational expenses like enrollment in the course, cost of books and accommodation cost.

a.

The maximum allowable interest deduction is $2,500.

Amount of Interest paid on the educational loan $1,400

Allowable deduction is Lesser of

maximum allowable interest deduction of $2,500.Interest Payment on educational loan of $1,400.

b.

Adjusted Gross Income $77,000

Formula

Educational Interest rate = (AGI - $65,000) / $15,000

Placing values in the formula

Educational Interest rate = ($77,000 - $65,000) / $15,000

Educational Interest rate = 1.13 = 0.8%

Allowable interest deduction = [ (lesser of interest deduction or interest payment on the educational loan) x ( 1 - Educational interest rate)

Allowable interest deduction = $1,400 x ( 1 - 0.8 ) = $280

John's 8−year−old Chevrolet Trail Blazer requires repairs estimated at $6,000 to make it road worthy again. His​ wife, Sherry, suggested that he should buy a 5−year−old used Jeep Grand Cherokee instead for $6,000 cash. Nick estimated the following costs for the two​ cars: Trail Blazer Grand Cherokee Acquisition cost $26,000 $6,000 Repairs $6,000 — Annual operating costs ​ (Gas, maintenance,​ insurance) $2,680 $1,700 What should John​ do? What are his savings in the first​ year? Question 3 options: Fix the Trail​ Blazer; $3,980 Buy the Grand​ Cherokee; $7,700 Buy the Grand​ Cherokee; $ 980 Fix the Trail​ Blazer; $680

Answers

Answer:

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Explanation:

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Sheridan Company purchased machinery on January 2, 2015, for $880000. The straight-line method is used and useful life is estimated to be 10 years, with a $82000 salvage value. At the beginning of 2021 Sheridan spent $187000 to overhaul the machinery. After the overhaul, Sheridan estimated that the useful life would be extended 4 years (14 years total), and the salvage value would be $45000. The depreciation expense for 2021 should be

Answers

Answer:

$67,900

Explanation:

For computing the depreciation expense for the year 2021 we need to first find out the depreciation expense for 6 years after that the book value which is shown below:

Depreciation expense for 6 years using the straight line method is

= (Original cost - salvage value) ÷ (estimated useful life)

= ($880,000 - $82,000) ÷ (10 years)

= ($798,000) ÷ (10 years)  

= $79.800

In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life

This is a one year depreciation

So for six years, the accumulated depreciation is  

= $79,800 × 6 years

= $478,800

The six years is calculated from Jan 2, 2015 to 2021

Now the book value is

= Purchase value of the machinery - accumulated depreciation

= $880,000 - $478,800

= $401,200

And, there is an overhaul expense i.e $187,000

So total cost is

= $401,200 + $187,000

= $588,200

The salvage value is $45,000

And the remaining life is 8 years

So, the depreciation expense for 2021 is

= ($588,200 - $45,000) ÷ 8 years

= $67,900

The predetermined overhead rate ($18.50 per direct labor hour) is based on an expected volume of 75% of the factory’s capacity of 20,000 units per month. Following are the company’s budgeted overhead costs per month at the 75% capacity level. 1&2. Prepare flexible overhead budgets for October showing the amounts of each variable and fixed cost at the 65%, 75%, and 85% capacity levels and classify all items listed in the fixed budget as variable or fixed.

Answers

Missing information:

Direct materials (4.0 lbs. x $4.00 per lb.) $ 16.00

Direct labor (2.0 hrs. x $11.00 per hr.) 22.00  

Overhead (2.0 hrs. x $18.50 per hr.) 37.00

Total standard cost $ 75.00

Overhead Budget (75% Capacity)

Variable overhead costs  

 Indirect materials $ 15,000  

 Indirect labor 75,000  

 Power 15,000  

 Repairs and maintenance 30,000  

Total variable overhead costs  $ 135,000

Fixed overhead costs  

 Depreciation--building 25,000  

 Depreciation--machinery 72,000  

 Taxes and insurance 18,000  

 Supervision 305,000  

     Total fixed overhead costs  420,000

Total overhead costs  $555,000

Answer:

I used an excel spreadsheet to calculate the flexible budget because there is no room here. The production levels represent 13,000 units, 15,000 units and 17,000 units respectively. As total output increases, cost per unit decreases.

Final answer:

Creating a flexible overhead budget involves identifying and adding fixed and variable costs at various capacity levels. The result unveils if the firm's average variable cost of production can earn profits when the market price is higher and overlooks fixed costs.

Explanation:

The question refers to the creation of a flexible overhead budget at different capacity levels (65%, 75%, and 85%), classifying each item as variable or fixed cost. Here's a simplified approach: Begin by identifying fixed costs - costs that remain constant regardless of the production volume. In this scenario, the fixed cost is given as $160, which will persist at a zero production level. It also becomes the vertical intercept of the total cost curve.

Next, you add variable costs with production increases because these costs fluctuate based on production volume. To calculate the average variable cost, you divide the variable cost by the total output at each production level. The resulting average variable costs are usually U-shaped.

Once the fixed and variable costs are determined at each capacity level (65%, 75%, and 85% in this instance), they can be combined to get the total cost. For example, at a capacity level of 75%, assuming variable costs were $15,000 and given the fixed costs of $160, the total cost would be $15,160. Repeat the same for other capacity levels.

The overall idea is if the firm's average variable cost of production is lower than the market price, profits would be earned if we overlook fixed costs. The figures and percentages might vary and thus the calculation should be done based on the numbers and percentages provided.

Learn more about Flexible Overhead Budget here:

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Max sells for Whatisits Company. His batting average is by far the highest in the firm – .400. Unfortunately, his average order is the lowest – $3,000. He only saves himself by making a large number of calls per day (5) while working 275 days a year. Which of the following questions is most relevant to a sales manager evaluating Max? As Max's sales manager, before talking with Max what one fact would you like to know?

A) How is his home life?B) The size of the potential accounts in Max's territory.C) Is he using some stimulants?D) What is his work record with the company?E) How old is he?

Answers

Answer:

B) The size of the potential accounts in Max's territory

Explanation:

The question that is most relevant to a sales manager evaluating Max will be the size of the potential accounts in Max's territory because Max sells his batting average is by far the highest in the firm – .400 and his average order is the lowest – $3,000 in which he only saves himself by making a large number of calls per day (5) while working 275 days a year which is why As Max's sales manager, before talking with Max the one fact I would like to know will be The size of the potential accounts in Max's territory.

Using existing plant and equipment, Priceless Moments Figurines can be manufactured using plastic, clay, or any combination of these materials. A figurine can be manufactured by F = 4P + 2C, where P is pounds of plastic and C is pounds of clay. Plastic costs $2 per pound and clay costs $5 per pound. What would be the lowest cost of producing 40,000 figurines? a. $20,000 b. $100,000 c. $60,000 d. $10,000

Answers

Answer:

a) 20,000

Explanation:

F = 4P + 2C, where P is pounds of plastic and C is pounds of clay. Plastic costs $2 per pound and clay costs $5 per pound.

4P + 2C = 60000 units

Now suppose only plastic is used.

so C=0 and we get 4 P = 40000

i.e P = 10000 pounds of plastic to produce 40000 figurine...

COST = 2 P + 5 C

In this case, its only 2 P

i.e 2 x 10000 = $20000

Now suppose only clay is used.

so P=0 and we get 2 C = 40000

i.e C = 20000 pounds of clay to produce 40000 figurine...

COST = 2 P + 5 C

In this case, its only 5 C

i.e 5 x 20000 = $100000

Hence least cost is $20,000 by using only clay to produce 40,000 figurines

If occupational safety laws were changed so that firms no longer had to take expensive steps to meet regulatory requirements, we would expect that a. the demand for products in this industry would increase. b. the market price of products in this industry would decrease in the short run but not in the long run. c. the firms in the industry would make a long-run economic profit. d. competition would force producers to pass the lower production costs on to consumers in the long run. g

Answers

Answer: competition would force producers to pass the lower production costs on to consumers in the long run

Explanation:

Occupational safety law deals with the health and safety of workers at their workplace and safety for activities outside of work. It is the function of employers to take care of their employees safety.

In a case whereby the occupational safety laws are changed so that the firms will no longer take expensive steps in order to meet regulatory requirements, there would be more competition which would lead to reduction on prices as a result of lower production cost which would be eventually passed from the producers to the consumers in the long run.

Final answer:

If occupational safety laws were changed, we would expect an increase in demand, a decrease in the short-run market price, potential decrease in long-run market price, and competition leading to lower prices for consumers in the long run. Option A is correct .

Explanation:

In this scenario, if occupational safety laws were changed and firms no longer had to take expensive steps to meet regulatory requirements, we would expect several outcomes:

The demand for products in this industry may increase because firms would be able to produce goods at a lower cost and potentially offer lower prices to consumers, attracting more buyers.In the short run, the market price of products in this industry may decrease because firms no longer have to incur expensive safety-related costs. However, in the long run, the market price may not decrease significantly as the entry of new firms into the industry and increased competition may stabilize prices.The firms in the industry may not make long-run economic profit. In the long run, the entry of new firms and increased competition may drive down prices and reduce profits.Competition may force producers to pass on the lower production costs to consumers in the long run. As firms are able to produce goods at a lower cost, they may choose to lower their prices to remain competitive and attract more customers.

The Waverly Company has budgeted sales for the year as follows:




Quarter sales in unit


1=12,000

2=14,000

3=18,000

4=16,000


The ending inventory of finished goods for each quarter should equal 25% of the next quarter's budgeted sales in units. The finished goods inventory at the start of the year is 3,000 units. Scheduled production for the second quarter (in units) is:



a.17,500 units.

b.16,500 units.

c.15,000 units.

d.13,000 units.

Answers

Answer:

Production= 15,000 units

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Sales:

Q2=14,000

Q3=18,000

The ending inventory of finished goods for each quarter should equal 25% of the next quarter's budgeted sales in units.

To calculate the production for the second quarter, we need to use the following formula:

Production= sales + desired ending inventory - beginning inventory

Production= 14,000 + (18,000*0.25) - (14,000*0.25)

Production= 15,000 units

The following selected amounts are reported on the year-end unadjusted trial balance report for a company that uses the percent of sales method to determine its bad debts expense. Accounts receivable$434,000Debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 1,360Debit Net Sales 2,210,000Credit All sales are made on credit. Based on past experience, the company estimates 3.0% of credit sales to be uncollectible. What adjusting entry should the company make at the end of the current year to record its estimated bad debts expense

Answers

Answer:

The adjusting entry to be made at the end of the current year to record its estimated bad debts expense will be:

Debit Bad debt expense $67,660

Credit Allowance for doubtful accounts $67,660

(To record bad debt expense)

Explanation:

The company uses the percent of sales method to determine its bad debts expense.

3.0% of credit sales  ($2,210,000) = $66,300

Balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $1,360 Debit

Required bad debt expense = $66,300 + $1,360 = $67,660

The addition of the opening debit balance is necessary in order to reinstate the allowance account to $66,300.

Nathan owns a quick-lube oil service station. He wants to understand whether his customers are sensitive to price and if he should raise or lower his price for some of his services. What should Nathan calculate to make his decision?

Answers

Answer: Elasticity

Explanation:

 According to the given question, Nathan is basically use the elasticity factor for the purpose of calculation that helps in making various types his decisions as elasticity is one of the main factor that helps in measuring the economical price change.    

 Elasticity is one of business degree in which we used to measure the good change in the services and the price of the products. The elasticity is one of the type of ability that helps in understating the change in the demand of the consumer.

 Therefore, Elasticity us the correct answer.

Good Investments Company forecasts a $1.74 dividend for 2017, $1.87 dividend for 2018 and a $1.98 dividend for 2019 for Mountain Vacations Corporation. For all years after 2019, Good Investments Company forecasts that Mountain Vacations will pay a $2.10 dividend. Using the dividend discount valuation model determine the intrinsic value of Mountain Vacations Corporation, assuming the company's cost of equity capital is 7%. Select one: A. $24.48 B. $18.12 C. $27.91 D. $29.37

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is D,$29.37

Explanation:

The intrinsic value of the company is the present value of the dividends plus the present value of the terminal value in year 3

present of dividends=$1.74/(1+7%)+$1.87/(1+7%)^2+$1.98/(1+7%)^3=$ 4.88  

Terminal value=dividend after year /cost of capital

                       =$2.10/7%=$30

present value of terminal value=$30 /(1+7%)^3=$ 24.49  

Note that the discount factor of year 3 is applicable to the terminal value as well.

sum of present value of dividends and terminal value=$ 24.49+$4.88=$29.37

The corporate charter of Llama Co. authorized the issuance of 12 million, $1 par common shares. During 2021, its first year of operations, Llama had the following transactions: January 1 sold 10 million shares at $17 per share June 3 purchased 4 million shares of treasury stock at $20 per share December 28 sold the 4 million shares of treasury stock at $22 per share What amount should Llama report as additional paid-in capital in its December 31, 2021, balance sheet

Answers

Answer:

$168 million

Explanation:

Additional Paid-in-Capital is the amount of capital received on the issuance of stock over its par value. Additional paid-in-capital is normally received against the issuance of common shares, preferred share and treasury share.

In this question Company made the following transaction.

January 1, 2021

As we Know Par value of the share is $1 any amount excess of this value will be added in additional paid-in-capital account.

Additional Paid-in-Capital = 10 million x ( $17 - $1 ) = $160 million

December 28, 2021

Additional Paid-in-Capital = 4 million x ($22-$20) = $8 million

Total Additional Paid-in-Capital = $160 million + $8  million = $168 million

Final answer:

Llama Co. should report $160 million as additional paid-in capital on its December 31, 2021, balance sheet.

Explanation:

In this case, we are asked to determine the amount of additional paid-in capital that Llama Co. should report in its December 31, 2021, balance sheet.

Additional paid-in capital is the excess amount that a company receives when issuing shares of stock above the par value of the stock.

To calculate the additional paid-in capital, we need to determine the total amount received from the sale of the common shares and subtract the par value of the shares. In this case, Llama Co. sold 10 million shares at $17 per share. The par value of each share is $1.

Therefore, the total amount received from the sale is 10 million shares x $17 per share = $170 million.

The par value of the shares is 10 million shares x $1 per share = $10 million.

Therefore, the additional paid-in capital is $170 million - $10 million = $160 million.

(3 points) The management of Balboa Inc. was discussing whether certain equipment should be written off as a charge to current operations because of obsolescence. This equipment has a cost of $825,000 with depreciation to date of $400,000 as of December 31, 2014. On December 31, 2014, management projected its future net cash flows from this equipment to be $390,000 and its fair value to be $365,000. The company intends to use this equipment in the future. Instructions (a) Prepare the journal entry (if any) to record the impairment at December 31, 2014. g

Answers

Answer:

Impairment Loss $35,000 (debit)

Accumulated Impairment Loss $35,000 (credit)

Explanation:

Impairment of an Asset occurs when the Carrying Amount of an Asset exceed its Recoverable Value.

Carrying Amount Calculation

Carrying Amount = Cost - Accumulated Depreciation

                             = $825,000 - $400,000

                             = $ 425,000

Recoverable Value Determination

Recoverable Value of an Asset is the Higher of

Value in use of the Asset and,Fair Value less Cost to sell

Value in Use of the Asset = $390,000

Fair Value Less Cost to Sell = $365,000

Therefore, the Recoverable Amount is $390,000

Impairment Analysis

Carrying Amount, $ 425,000 > Recoverable Amount $390,000.

Therefore the Equipment is Impaired

Impairment loss is $35,000

Journal

Impairment Loss $35,000 (debit)

Accumulated Impairment Loss $35,000 (credit)

Mia Breen Corp. produces and sells wind-energy-driven engines. To finance its operations, Mia Breen issued $22,000,000 of 20-year, 4% callable bonds on May 1, 20Y5, at their face amount, with interest payable on May 1 and November 1. The fiscal year of the company is the calendar year. Journalize the entries to record the following selected transactions: 20Y5 May 1 Issued the bonds for cash at their face amount. Nov. 1 Paid the interest on the bonds. 20Y9 Nov. 1 Called the bond issue at 97, the rate provided in the bond indenture. (Omit entry for payment of interest.) If an amount box does not require an entry, leave it blank. Issued the bonds for cash at their face amount.

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

The Journal entry is shown below:-

Cash Dr, $22,000,000

    To Bonds payable $22,000,000

(Being issuance of bonds is recorded)

2. Interest expenses Dr, $440,000

($22,000,000 × 4% × 6 ÷ 12)

    To cash $440,000

(Being payment of interest is recorded)

3. Bonds payable Dr, $22,000,000

     To Cash $21,560,000

      To Gain on Retirement on bonds, plug $440,000

(Being the retirement of bonds is recorded)

Final answer:

The journal entries for the transactions related to the bonds issued by Mia Breen Corp. involve the bonds issuance, semi-annual bond interest payments, and the bond redemption.

Explanation:

The first part of this problem involves recording the bond issuance. Since Mia Breen Corp issued bonds for cash at face value, we simply recognize cash inflow and liability from bonds. The journal entry would look like this:

Debit: Cash $22,000,000Credit: Bonds Payable $22,000,000

On November 1, 20Y5, the corporation pays the semi-annual interest on these bonds. We know that the annual interest is 4%, so the amount is:

($22,000,000 X 4%) / 2 = $440,000

The journal entry would look like this:

Debit: Interest Expense $440,000Credit: Cash $440,000

Lastly, on November 1, 20Y9, the bonds are being called at 97% of face value. This means the corporation pays back:

$22,000,000 X 97% = $21,340,000

The journal entry would look like this:

Debit: Bonds Payable $22,000,000Credit: Cash $21,340,000Credit: Gain on Redemption of Bonds $660,000

Learn more about Accounting for Bond Transaction here:

https://brainly.com/question/31943598

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List three conditions for perfect competition.Instructions: You may select more than one answer.1. There is only one firm that makes up the entire market.2. There are high barriers to entry.3. Firms’ products are differentiated.4. There are no barriers to entry.5. Both buyers and sellers are price takers.6. Firms engage in strategic decision making.7. Firms’ products are identical.

Answers

Answer:

There are no barriers to entry.

5. Both buyers and sellers are price takers

.7. Firms’ products are identical.

Explanation:

A perfect competition is characterised by many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services. Market prices are set by the forces of demand and supply. There are no barriers to entry or exit of firms into the industry.

In the long run, firms earn zero economic profit. If in the short run firms are earning economic profit, in the long run firms would enter into the industry. This would drive economic profit to zero.

Also, if in the short run, firms are earning economic loss, in the long run, firms would exit the industry until economic profit falls to zero.

A monopoly is when there's only one firm operating in an industry.

I hope my answer helps you

Answer:

4. There are no barriers to entry.

5. Both buyers and sellers are price takers.

7. Firms’ products are identical.

Explanation:

Perfect.competitionnis one in which the lead of demand and supply apply effectively. In this type of competition no one company has monopoly of supply. Instead there are many firms that sell identical products.

These firms need to compete to gain market share. They do this through advertising and trying to differentiate their products from others.

Buyers and sellers are price takers, meaning both of them cannot influence the price of products in the market by their transactions.

Because of the lack of monopoly in this market there are no barriers to entry.

Which of the following variances cannot occur together during the same accounting period? Multiple Choice Unfavorable labor rate variance and favorable labor efficiency variance. Unfavorable labor efficiency variance and favorable material quantity variance. Favorable labor rate variance and unfavorable total labor variance. Favorable labor efficiency variance and favorable material quantity variance. None of the other answers are correct, because all of these variance combinations are possible.

Answers

Answer: None of the other answers are correct, because all of these variance combinations are possible.

Explanation:

All of the above combinations are possible.

A company can have an Unfavorable labor rate variance and a favorable labor efficiency variance meaning that the actual labor rate was more than the budget rate but the budgeted labor Efficiency rate was more than the actual rate.

A company can also have an Unfavorable labor efficiency variance and a favorable material quantity variance meaning that even though labor Efficiency was not satisfactory, less materials were still used than were budgeted for.

There is also a possibility of a Favorable labor rate variance and unfavorable total labor variance and a Favorable labor efficiency variance and favorable material quantity variance can also happen together when actual direct labour and material quantity variance are both less than the budgeted amount.

Vaughn Manufacturing produces corn chips. The cost of one batch is below: Direct materials $17 Direct labor 12 Variable overhead 10 Fixed overhead 14 An outside supplier has offered to produce the corn chips for $27 per batch. How much will Vaughn Manufacturing save if it accepts the offer?

Answers

Answer:

$26.00 per batch .

Explanation:

Consider the costs and savings per batch that arise if Vaughn accepts the offer.

Analysis of Costs and Savings

Purchase Cost            ($27.00)

Savings :

Direct materials            $17.00

Direct labor                   $12.00

Variable overhead       $10.00

Fixed overhead            $14.00

Total Savings               $26.00

Therefore if Fixed overheads are avoidable, the savings would be $26.00 per batch .

Answer:

Vaughn Manufacturing will save $12  if it accepts the offer

Explanation:

We need to calculate the manufacturing cost of the product and then compare it to the purchase price and the fixed cost after purchase.

Manufacturing Cost:

Direct Material         $17

Direct Labor             $12

Variable Overhead  $10

Fixed Overhead      $14

Total cost                $53

Purchasing cost:

Purchase price           $27

Fixed overhead cost  $14  

Total cost                    $41

Saving = Manufacturing cost - Purchase cost = $53 - $41 = $12

As we know that the fixed overhead cost does not vary with the change in the production or sales activity and it cannot be avoided because it has to incurred even the chips is purchase from the outside supplier. Vaughn Manufacturing will save $12  if it accepts the offer.

Caroline is working for a marketing firm making $60,000 per year but considers starting her own marketing company. Caroline has determined that to launch the business, she needs to invest $100,000 of her own funds. The annual cost of running the business will include $75,000 for the rent of the office space, $190,000 for employee wages, and $6,000 for materials and utilities. Caroline plans to manage the business, which means that she will have to quit her current job. Suppose that the interest rate (or rate of return) on investments in the economy is 6%.

Caroline's total implicit cost per year is .

Answers

Answer:

$66,000

Explanation:

The computation of the total implicit cost per year is shown below:

= Given up salary + investment amount × interest rate on investment in the economy

= $60,000 + $100,000 × 6%

= $60,000 + $6,000

= $66,000

We simply added the given up salary and investment amount after considering the interest rate on investment so that the accurate amount could come

Final answer:

Caroline's total implicit costs per year amount to $66,000, which includes her foregone salary of $60,000 and the investment income of $6,000 she would have earned from her $100,000 at a 6% interest rate.

Explanation:

To calculate Caroline's total implicit costs per year, we need to consider the opportunity costs of her decision to start her own marketing firm. Implicit costs are those costs that represent foregone opportunities, such as the income she would have earned if she did not start the business. In Caroline's case, the foregone salary from her current job ($60,000) and the foregone investment income on her own funds ($100,000 invested at a 6% return rate, which equals $6,000) are her implicit costs.

Therefore, Caroline's total implicit cost per year is her foregone salary plus her foregone investment income:

$60,000 (foregone salary) + $6,000 (foregone investment income) = $66,000 (total implicit cost per year)

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