Answer:
Athletic training increases red blood cell count.
A permanent move from sea level to high altitude increases red blood cell count.
Explanation:
Athletic training increases red blood cell count.
An athlete has a comparatively increased muscle mass and requires an efficient oxygen means of transportation to the muscles during the course of the athlete running 4 to 5 miles a day over a period of 6 to nine months training or execrise.
A permanent move from sea level to high altitude increases red blood cell count.
The air is less dense at high altitudes and would posses a reduced amount of oxygen. The body make up for this lower concentration of oxygen in the air by yielding more RBCs to ensure that the same corresponding level of oxygen can be acquired or accumulated and then its transported by the blood.
___________________________
The complete question
Discuss the effect of each of the following factors on RBC count. Consult an appropriate reference as necessary, and explain your reasoning: The long-term effect of athletic training (for example, running 4 to 5 miles a day over a period of 6 to nine months, and a permanent move from sea level to a high-altitude area.
Final answer:
Factors affecting RBC count include blood loss, faulty RBC production, and excessive RBC destruction, which can be analyzed by kinetic or morphological approaches. Polycythemia is a condition where RBC count increases due to various causes.
Explanation:
Effects of Factors on Red Blood Cell (RBC) Count
Changes in the levels of RBCs can significantly affect the body's oxygen delivery system. Factors affecting RBC count can be categorized blood loss, faulty RBC production, or excessive RBC destruction.
For example, blood loss through trauma or internal bleeding would lead to a decreased RBC count as the body loses its cells. On the other hand, inadequate production might be due to bone marrow disorders, nutritional deficiencies, or chronic diseases interfering with hematopoiesis. Excessive destruction of RBCs can occur in conditions like hemolytic anemia or infections.
Diagnostic methods like the kinetic approach analyze the production and removal rates of RBCs, whereas the morphological approach focuses on appearance and size, using metrics like the mean corpuscle volume (MCV). Polycythemia, an increase in RBC count, can be caused by dehydration, living at high altitudes, or bone marrow diseases like polycythemia vera.
The first stage of neural communication, _____, refers to the movement of the signal within a single neuron, while _____ refers to the movement of a signal between neurons.
Answer:
Conduction
Transmission
Explanation:
Neuronal Conduction is the first stage of neural communication in which communication occurs through electrochemical channels. Electrical signals produced via chemical molecules are passed to the cell body via the dendrites and through synapses, bracing and invigorating the neuron to generate their own stimuli as it is being relayed down to the axon terminal of a neuron. The neurons in the electrochemical channels helps to coordinate and monitor the flow of these electrical charges through the membrane mediated channel in order to conduct nerve impulses.
Neuronal transmission talks about the transference of signals or stimuli via the neurotransmitters(signaling molecules). They are relayed down by the axon terminal of a neuron as earlier stated above. At the terminal end, they coupled at receptors site with other dendrites of another neurons to transfer the signal across.
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Which of the following planets has iron oxide in its crust?
Mars
Mercury
Neptune
Venus
Answer:
Mars
Explanation:
These huge canyons were most likely formed by the planet's crust splitting. Mars is also famous for its red color, which is iron oxide (rust) dust that covers the surface of the entire planet.
This iron oxide is primarily responsible for the planet's distinctive reddish color. The planet that has iron oxide in its crust is Mars.
Mars is often referred to as the "Red Planet" due to the presence of iron oxide on its surface, which gives it a reddish appearance.
Iron oxide is a compound made up of iron and oxygen. On Mars, iron-rich minerals in the crust undergo weathering and oxidation processes, causing the iron to combine with oxygen and form iron oxide.
The specific type of iron oxide responsible for Mars' reddish color is called hematite, which is commonly found on the planet's surface.
The reddish hue of Mars is particularly pronounced in certain regions, such as the planet's vast deserts and plains.
These areas contain a high concentration of iron oxide, giving them a distinct rusty appearance.
Thus, the correct option is "Mars".
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It has been discovered that many plants synthesize molecules that destroy the corpora allata, which are the structures responsible for synthesis of juvenile hormone. Insects exposed to these molecules do not molt. Which statement reflects how levels of juvenile hormone disrupt the insect life cycle?
A) Reduced juvenile hormone prevents molting.
B) Exposure to juvenile hormone prevents the larvae from developing into adult insects.
C) Reduced juvenile hormone causes insects to molt prematurely into sterile adults.
D) Exposure to juvenile hormone causes juvenile insects to die.
Answer:
B) Exposure to juvenile hormone prevents the larvae from developing into adult insects.
Explanation:
Given that, Plants synthesize(i.e plant produce a combination of elements) molecules that destroy the corpora allata. The corpora allata are structure responsible for synthesis (production) of Juvenile hormone.
This implies that, Plant produces molecules that destroy the structure responsible for the production of Juvenile hormone.
If we proceed, the question continues by saying Insect exposed to these molecules do not molt.(i.e insect exposed to these molecule do not change in growth)
What is molting?
Molting often called (ecdysis) is the phase of growth and development in insect that comprises of two main activities which are shedding and replacement of their culticular exoskeleton layer in order to make way for new growth and new stage of an insect.
Therefore from the aforementioned, the best statement that reflects how levels of juvenile hormones disrupt the insect liffe cycle is that : Exposure to juvenile hormone prevents the larvae from developing into adult insects.
18. Which types of mutations, positive, negative or neutral, are most likely to be seen in offspring
several generations after the mutation occurred? Explain your reasoning.
19. Consider the following scenarios. State whether the mutation is likely to be passed on to the
offspring of the organism. Explain your reasoning.
a. A single bacteria cell contains a positive mutation in its DNA.
b. A skin cell on a cat contains a positive mutation in its DNA.
C. A sperm cell in a whale contains a positive mutation in its DNA.
Final answer:
Neutral mutations are most common and can become prevalent over time without necessarily affecting fitness. Positive mutations can spread if they are beneficial, while negative mutations are typically removed quickly. The type of cell (germ vs. somatic) containing the mutation determines its likelihood of being passed to offspring.
Explanation:
In terms of which types of mutations—positive, negative, or neutral—are most likely to be seen in offspring several generations after the mutation occurred, neutral mutations are most common. These mutations often have no immediate effect on the organism’s fitness and can become prevalent in a population over time through random processes like genetic drift. In contrast, negative mutations are typically removed from a population quickly because they decrease an organism's fitness. Positive mutations, while less common, can become prevalent if they confer a survival or reproductive advantage.
Regarding the scenarios where mutations can be passed to offspring:
A single bacterial cell: If it contains a positive mutation, it is likely to be passed on to the offspring because bacteria reproduce asexually and any mutations in the parent cell will be inherited by all daughter cells.A skin cell on a cat: This mutation is unlikely to be passed on to the offspring because it is a somatic mutation, which affects only the body cells and is not inherited.A sperm cell in a whale: If it contains a positive mutation, it is likely to be transmitted to the offspring because sperm cells are germ cells involved in sexual reproduction, thus carrying genetic information to the next generation.Mutations in germline cells (sperm or egg) can be inherited by offspring, influencing the genetic composition of future generations. However, somatic mutations are not passed on to offspring and do not affect the species' gene pool over time.
A biologist is studying two organisms, X and Y. She knows that at least one of them is an animal. Organism X only reproduces sexually. Organism Y reproduces both sexually and asexually.
Which conclusion is best supported by the information?
a. Organism X is an animal, and organism Y is not.
b. Organism Y has the benefit of not having to find a mate.
c. Organism X has offspring that are not genetically diverse.
d. Organism Y is a heterotroph, and organism X is not.
Answer: option B) Organism Y has the benefit of not having to find a mate.
Explanation:
Unlike organism X, Organism Y is capable of reproducing it's young ones by undergoing meiosis or in the presence of a mate supply gametes that will then be fused together into a new offspring as characterized in sexual reproduction; AND ALSO in the absence of a mate undergoes mitosis, binary fission etc as characterized in asexual reproduction.
Answer:
B. Organism Y has the benefit of not having to find a mate.
Explanation:
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Mary Morgan has just been brought into the emergency room of City General Hospital. She is perspiring profusely and is breathing rapidly and irregularly. Her breath smells like acetone (sweet and fruity), and her blood glucose tests out at 650 mg/100 ml of blood. She is in acidosis. Which hormone drug should be administered, and why?
Answer:
The insulin must be administered.
Explanation:
In the given question the Mary has the acidosis that is the level of pH in the blood have dropped below 7.
It is also provided that the smell of her breath is fruity due to the accumulation of fruity smell molecules called ketones which could be the result of the ketosis. Ketosis occurs when the cellular respiration uses fat as a substrate instead of the carbohydrate. This shows Mary has a condition called ketoacidosis.
The increased level of the glucose in the blood shows that the glucose is not absorbed by the cell which involves the insulin therefore the doctor should administer the insulin drug to the patient.
Thus, insulin is the correct answer.
Administer insulin to address high blood glucose levels and symptoms of ketoacidosis.
In the case of Mary Morgan's symptoms, with a blood glucose level of 650 mg/100 ml and signs of ketoacidosis, administering insulin is crucial. Insulin helps lower blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose into cells, which can help correct the ketoacidosis and its associated symptoms.
A nursing student has begun a clinical placement at a large hospital that serves a diverse population. The student has consequently acquired a new appreciation for the fact that nursing combines art with science. What is the clearest manifestation of the scientific basis for nursing
Answer:
Answer is Providing evidence - based nursing care.
Explanation:
It should be note noted that, the development of an accumulating body of unique scientific knowledge, which makes it easier to predict the specific nursing interventions that are most likely to produce the expected or desired result, is referred to as the evidence-based practice.
It should be understood that the process of participating in continuing education and mentoring are important and beneficial, but ,they are not considered as the direct manifestation of the scientific basis for nursing.
The evidence-based practice is made possible due to the scientific basis that underlies nursing.
A man is a carrier for Wilson's disease (Aa) and Rotor syndrome (Rr). Assume the genes involved in these two disorders are both on chromosome 13 (a non-sex chromosome). Below are possible representations of his genotype (labeled #1, #2, and #3). Which of them could be correct?
A. #1 only
B. #2 only
C. #3 only
D. #2 and #3 only
E. #1, #2 and #3
Answer:
The correct answer is "#2 and #3 only"
Explanation:
A and a are alleles, and R and r are alleles. Alleles of a gene are found at the same locus on homologous chromosomes. Every pair of the alleles depicts the genotype of a particular gene. Homozygous genotype occurs when two similar alleles at same locus and heterozygous in case of two nonidentical alleles. Due to the alleles there occurs a change in the appearance. An alleles create differences in gene.
Describe your ideas about why indigenous groups of people in different parts of the world have different skin colors from other groups of people and use at least three different types of evidence that supports your ideas. (3pts)
Answer:
The indigenous groups of individuals in distinct parts of the world possess different skin colors from other groups of individuals. Following are the different kinds of evidence, which supports the idea:
1. The individuals would have moved around the globe, however, they would have still kept their skin color DNA.
2. There also would have been more individuals living all over the globe and the skin color of the individuals would have changed gradually with time.
3. Living at higher altitudes would have resulted in more variation as the amount of exposure would have been different from the individuals moving around the world.
Indigenous groups have different skin colors due to evolutionary adaptations to their environments, such as protection against UV radiation. The concept of race is not scientifically justifiable, and perceptions of skin color within racial groups are influenced by colorism.
Explanation:Indigenous groups of people in different parts of the world have different skin colors due to evolutionary adaptations to their environments. Skin pigmentation is an adaptation to ultraviolet (UV) radiation, with different tones offering different advantages. For example, those living at high altitudes in the Andes have higher concentrations of hemoglobin in their blood to compensate for low oxygen levels.
According to biological anthropologists, there is no scientifically justifiable way to divide the human population into racial categories. Any way you draw the lines, there will be more variation within categories than between categories. The concept of race has historically changed across cultures and has become less connected with ancestral and familial ties.
Additionally, the belief that one type of skin tone is superior or inferior to another within a racial group, known as colorism, has influenced societal perceptions of indigenous groups' skin colors. However, it is important to recognize that these perceptions are rooted in prejudice and discrimination, rather than scientific fact.
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Because oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, the water molecule and the covalent bonds that form it are described as __________.
Answer:
Polar/ Hydrophilic
Explanation:
Electronegative atoms is the tendency of an element to attract a pair of electrons to itself.
Since water, H2O is composed of H+ and O2-, oxygen os the most electronegative element and this is because of it incomplete outer shell i.e valence electron is 6 (4 electrons in its p- orbital) and so it needs a pair of electrons to become stable, hence its high affinity for electrons.
Hydrogen on the other hand cannot lose its only electron and it has one electron in its s orbital. So there is sharing of these electrons, hence the definition of covalent bond.
A polar covalent bond is formed because the electronegativity difference between Oxygen a d Hydrogen is not negligible.
The skin is the body's largest organ. It's made up of many different types of cells. Oils, produced by the sebaceous glands, prevent the skin from drying and splitting. The protein melanin, produced by melanocytes in the epidermis, protects the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation. Sweat, released through ducts to the skin surface, helps to cool the body. The types of cells that produce these compounds have different numbers of specific organelles, depending on their function.The oil from the sebaceous glands is produced by which of the following cell organelles?
a) ribosomes
b) brough endoplasmic reticulum
c) cell membrane
d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
e) central vacuole
Answer:
d) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum which is located inside the cytoplasm of an eukaryotic cell is composed of a disklike structure. It role is to integrate lipid production, synthesis of sex hormones e.g steriod hormones. They also produces the oil from the sebaceous glands that are release via the Hair follicles. The main purpose of the oil produced is to put a stop to hair from drying out.
You want to test whether duration of light exposure affects fish reproduction. What would be your control group and experimental group?
Answer and Explanation:
During an experiment, data from an experimental group are compared with the data of a control group. These two sets are identical in all aspects except for the independent variable that the researcher changes in the experimental group to observe how they affect the individuals. This variable keeps constant in the control group.
The experimental group is the one that receives the experimental procedure, with changes in the independent variable. There can be several experimental groups.
In the control group, the variable measured keeps constant, not influencing the results. This isolates the effect of the independent variable on the experiment and helps to find alternative explanations to the different results.
In the exposed example:
Control group: Certain amounts of fishes exposed to a normal number of light hours per day. For example, if under natural conditions in its original environment the species is exposed to 12 hour light, then the control group should be exposed constantly to 12 hours light a day to maintain its normal reproductive levels.Experimental group: Certain amounts of fishes, equal to the control group, exposed to a different number of light hours per day. For example, there might be 5 experimental groups: one of them exposed to 4 hours light, a second group exposed to 8 hours light, the third group exposed to 12 hours light (The same as the control group), the fourth group exposed to 16 hours light, and the fifth group exposed to 20 hours light.Except for light, the rest of the variables should be the same for all the groups.
According to the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR), up to what percentage of your daily calories should be provided by carbohydrate?
The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) recommends that 45-65% of your total daily calories should come from carbohydrates, ideally from healthy sources.
Explanation:According to the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR), it is recommended that 45-65% of your total daily calories be provided by carbohydrates. It's important to note that these should be healthy sources of carbohydrates such as whole grains, fruits, and vegetables, rather than refined carbs and sugars. The AMDR is a range of intake for a particular energy source that is associated with reduced risk of chronic disease while providing essential nutrients.
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The Golgi apparatus...
A. strings together amino acids to produce proteins
B. is the site of carbohydrate breakdown
C. stores, modifies, and packages proteins
D. is composed of stacks of membrnaeous vesicles that are continuous with one another
Answer:
The correct answer is C. stores, modifies, and packages proteins
Explanation:
Golgi apparatus is an organelle that is bounded by a single membrane and it is a part of the endomembrane system. It is made up of 5-8 membrane-bound flattened sac known as cisternae.
Golgi apparatus receives the proteins which are made in the endoplasmic reticulum and it does storage, modification, and packaging of these proteins.
Protein glycosylation, sulfation, phosphorylation are the type of modification that occurs inside the Golgi apparatus. Then these proteins are packaged inside a vesicle and released into the cytoplasm from where they move to their target site. So the right answer is C.
People that have a single allele (gene copy) for sickle cell anemia are typically not sick from the disease and are said to be carriers of sickle cell trait. These people will more often live in the malaria belt of sub-Saharan Africa. The most likely explanation for this is ________.A. malaria is a cause of sickle cell trait
B. the tropical climate attracts people with sickle cell trait
C. sickle cell trait is passed on to the biting mosquitoes as malaria
D. people with sickle cell trait have a better chance of surviving malaria
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3. A pedigree can be used to
a. determine whether a trait is inherited.
b. show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next.
c. determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d. all of the above
4. Blood typing is an example of __________________. This is where there is one gene but that one gene can have several different characteristics
a. multiple alleles
b. dihybrid trait
c. homozygous dominance
d. incomplete dominance
Answer:
3. d
4. a
10. b
Respiration question. b
4. c
9. a
Explanation:
3. A pedigree is a family tree that maps how a trait appears in a family.It maps the inheritance of the trait from generation to generation, and shows scientists features of the trait, for example the pattern of inheritance, whether it is sex linked, and whether it is dominant or recessive
4. There are multiple alleles that cause different blood type phenotypes in humans, but these are all variations of one gene. There are A, B, and O alleles. A and B show codominance, if a person has both of these alleles they will express both as part of the phenotype.
10. The trait is recessive. This can be definitively determined because there are individuals in the youngest generation who have the trait even though neither of their parents have it. This means both parents must be heterozygous for the trait
Respiration question . b. The reactants of photosynthesis are carbon dioxide and water, which, with sunlight, are used to make sugars, which can be used as an energy source for the cell, and oxygen as a by-product. The glucose and oxygen are used in cellular respiration to produce chemical energy, with the release of carbon dioxide and water.
4. The inheritance cannot be sex-linked, because there is an affected male in generation II who must have got his Y chromosome from his affected dad (and therefore his X from his unaffected mother). This is likely autosomal dominant, because all the affected individuals go on to have affected children.
9. The chart shows that the closer the plant is to the light source, the more gas is produced. This gas is oxygen, which is released during photosynthesis. Therefore, the closer the light source, the more chemical energy available to drive photosynthesis and the more photosynthesis that is carried out
A chart illustrating the hereditary pattern of a family and its generation is called a pedigree chart. It represents the characters and illness of a family.
Pedigree is a chart that illustrates the traits inherited in a family and how it gets passed through generations. Also, it represents dominant and recessive alleles.The correct option is Option D. All of the above
A blood group is controlled by multiple alleles and is a non- Mendelian pattern of inheritanceThe correct answer for the blank is Option A. Multiple alleles
The trait is recessive because neither of the parents is diseased and it must be a heterozygous gene in the parent in this case.The correct answer is Option B. Recessive
Cellular respiration yields water and carbon dioxide from glucose in the presence of oxygen. While in photosynthesis the water and carbon dioxide along with solar energy forms oxygen and glucose.The correct answer is Option B. The products of cellular respiration are the reactants of photosynthesis.
This is an autosomal dominant disease caused all the infected individuals produced the infected progenies.The correct option is Option C. Autosomal dominant
The closer placement produces more gas that is oxygen that is produced during the process of photosynthesis.The correct answer is Option A. The closer the light source the higher will be the amount of oxygen.
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Describe the components that should be included in a well-written scientific abstract and what should be excluded.
PLEASE HELP NEED ANSWER ASAP.
Answer:
The components of abstracts that should be included are as follows: " introduction, Description, limitations, conclusion". Other than these components anything else should be excluded.
Explanation:
The various components of an scientific abstract that should be included are as follows:
Introduction: In this part of the abstract it should contain the brief idea about the research.
Description: In the second part it should contain the research and the objective of the research and also about the analytical methodologies that has been applied in the research.
Critical: This is part in which the limitation for the research are present.
Language: The most important factor, the language used should be very formal type.
Conclusion: The things and ideas that had been learnt during the period of research. It should also contain the new findings and the trends that has came out during the research.
After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known asA) rigor mortis.B) tetany.C) treppe.D) oxygen debt.E) depolarization.
Answer:
A) rigor mortis
Explanation:
Rigor mortis is the condition of the partial contraction of muscles when the muscles cannot contract or stretch. It occurs after death as the ATP supply to muscle cells stops. The leaky cellular membranes results in leakage of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. The presence of calcium in sarcoplasm triggers the binding of myosin heads to actin. The myosin heads remain attached to actin and muscles are prevented to be relaxed.
Imagine you genetically engineered a neuron to produce voltage-gated Na" and K channels that opened at the same time in response to a change in voltage. How would that change the recording shown in the figure? eacitation 1 4 Resting potential A) Threshold values would increase B) The peak voltage would be higher. C) The peak would occur over a longer period of time. D) The period of hyperpolarization would be longer. E) No action potential would be generated.
Answer:
E) No action potential would be generated.
Explanation:
As we know the voltage gated Na and K channels has specific roles in the generation of action potential. When both the channels are opened at the same time sodium will move inside and potassium will move outside no action potential would be generated.
At the peak of action potential , area of the neuron is about 40 mV positive. Now when the voltage becomes positive , sodium channels close and the potassium channels open.
When the potassium channels open , they cause the potassium ions to rush out of the cell thus causing the voltage to become negative again.
Hence E) No action potential would be generated is the right answer.
Which of the following is NOT a step used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells?
-Secretion of granzyme
-Recognition of infected host cell using its TCR
-Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein
-Secretion of perforin
Answer: Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein
Explanation: Most cytotoxic T cells express T-cell receptors (TCRs) that can recognize a specific antigen on host cells. This is usually the first step in the destruction of infected host cells. This is followed by the release of two cytotoxic proteins that were earlier formed. First of which is the perforin which creates holes or pores in the membrane of target cells. Next comes the granzymes that induces cell death (apoptosis)
The step that cytotoxic T cells do not use to kill infected host cells is the recognition of infected cells using its CD4 glycoprotein. This is associated with helper T cells, not cytotoxic T cells which use TCR and CD8 protein for recognition. The cytotoxic T cells kill cells by secreting perforin and granzyme.
Explanation:The step that is NOT used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells is the recognition of the infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein. The CD4 glycoprotein is associated with helper T cells, not cytotoxic T cells. Cytotoxic T cells recognize infected cells using the T cell receptor (TCR) and CD8 protein, not the CD4 glycoprotein.
Once recognition has occurred, cytotoxic T cells kill infected cells by secreting special proteins known as perforin and granzyme. Perforin forms pores in the membrane of the infected cell and granzyme enters the cell through these pores, triggering the cell to undergo apoptosis (cell death).
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Six-month-old Eva dropped her teething ring in a fairly rigid way, simply letting go and watching it with interest. This example demonstrates Piaget's belief that at first, schemes are __________.
A) sensorimotor action patternsB) deliberate and creativeC) preoperational thoughtD) disorganized and random
Option A
This example demonstrates Piaget's belief that at first, schemes are sensorimotor action patterns
Explanation:
When a kid is born, he/she begins growing both bodily and cognitively. As newborns improve cognitive abilities, they begin reminiscing about their habits and responding to various provocations such as sounds, action, and tremors. This is termed as the sensorimotor stage.
During this stage, babies acquire a perception of the environment by analysis and fault managing their minds and functions. The chief growth through the sensorimotor stage is the recognition that things exist and incidents happen in the context autonomously of one's individual efforts.
biologists proposed 3 alternative hypothesis about dna replication. which of the three alternative hypothesis has been determined to settle the question about replication and by whom?
The hypothesis of semi-conservative mode of replication has been settled about replication by Watson and Crick.
Explanation:
Earlier for DNA replication, three hypothesis was made those were conservative mode of replication, Semi-conservative mode of the replication and dispersive mode of replication.
Meselson and Stahl used heavy nitrogen isotope in bacterial culture to see the presence of the isoptopes. In their experiment, they found those labelled with 15N had 15 N in their replicated cells and those with 14 N retain the same. With this, the hypothesis of semiconservative mode of replication given by Watson andCrick was accepted. It states that a DNA strand unwinds to form template for the daughter DNA to be formed hence genetic information remain conserved. Each strand synthesized will have one parent strand and the other will be daughter strand.
The nurse reviews the medication history of a postoperative patient, which shows carbidopa-levodopa with selegiline, along with meperidine for pain, with instructions to begin taking entacapone with each dose of carbidopa-levodopa after 10 days. What is the appropriate nursing action?
1
Hold the meperidine and call the health care provider.
2
Administer all medications and monitor blood pressure hourly.
3
Administer the meperidine as ordered and hold the entacapone.
4
Administer the meperidine as ordered and hold the carbidopa-levodopa through the postoperative period.
Answer:
Hold the meperidine and call the health care provider.
Explanation:
Parkinson's disease may be defined as the medical condition in which the movement of the individual gets affected. This is a progressive disorder that might also causes stiffness.
Carbidopa-levodopa and selegiline medication is given to the patient suffering from Parkinson's disease. Selegiline and meperidine can be given together as it may cause disorientation in the patient. The nurse will give meperidine for the proper treatment of the patient. The nurse calls the health care provider to provide emergency and extra medical care to the patient.
Thus, the correct answer is option (1).
You are called for a young man who was diving head first off a dock into a lake. Bystanders say he struck his head on the bottom because the water was too shallow. They said he was not breathing when they pulled him from the water and they have been performing rescue breathing for him. He is awake, but he is unable to breathe on his own. What type of damage or injury does this indicate?
A. Closed head injuryB. Open head injuryC. Damage to C3, C4, or C5D. Damage to his thoracic spine
Answer:
Answer is C. Damage to C3, C4 or C5.
Explanation:
C1 - C7 are used to represent the number of vertebrae found at the cervical region of the vertebrae canal or column. The vertebrae column comprises off various vertebrae that protect the spinal cord,which starts from the neck region to the tail region.
The C3, C4 and C5 are at the midsection of the cervical region of the spine , and they provide support for the neck and the head.
These vertebrae contain nerves which if affected will cause a serious pain. which can actually affect his breathing. Because, the spinal nerves around the spinal cord are linked to the brain.
ATP molecules, which are used for energy by cells, are built during all three stages of cellular respiration.Which stage of cellular respiration generates the most ATP molecules
The Electron transport chain of the cellular respiration generates the most ATP molecules.
Explanation:
The cellular respiration takes place in three phases: glycolysis, Kreb's cycle and Electron transport.
In glycolysis net gain of 2 ATP occurs, Kreb cycle 2 GTPs, ETC 32 ATPs
In Kreb's cycle 2 GTP, 6 NADH, two FADH2 is formed. These are used in the electron transport chain to produce ATP by redox and oxidation reactions.
Each NADH produces 3 ATPs
each FADH2 produces 2 ATP
GTP=ATP
All of the following are desirable qualities in a model organism EXCEPT __________.A.) long life spanB.) ease of growthC.) common genetic mechanisms with other organismsD.) production of many offspring
Answer:
Long life span
Explanation:
A model organism is a non human specie that is used for study in order to understand a particular biological phenomena.
One of the qualities of a model organism is that; It should have a short life span this will make it more amenable to experimental manipulation due to short generational time. Therefor Long life span will not be a desirable characteristic.
Other desirable characteristic includes ease of growth and production of many offsprings.
Also common genetic mechanism with other organisms, they should share some degree relatedness.
Which pair of organisms, if found together in the same well-defined fossil layer, would cause a major rethinking of our current understanding of the fossil record?
The two strands in a DNA helix are described as being antiparallel, or in opposite orientations. If one DNA strand is in the 5' to 3' orientation, the complementary DNA strand is orientated in which direction?
Answer: The answer is 3' - 5' direction
Explanation:
Since the template strand runs in 5' - 3' direction, antiparallel nature of the DNA double helix explains that the complimentary strand (non-template strand) runs in a 3' - 5' direction
Answer:3' to 5'
Explanation:DNA consist of two strands that runs anti-parallel. the first called the leading strand and its runs from 5' to 3' orientation meaning it runs from carbon 5 to carbon 3 while the second strand is called the lagging strand or the ozazaki fragment it runs from 3' to 5' i.e from carbon 3 to carbon 5.
The two strands cannot be replicated in a row hence the need for the break into the leading that replicates towards the replication fork and lagging strand replicates towards the opposite direction.
Neurogenic shock occurs when: Select one: a. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. b. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. c. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. d. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injur
Neurogenic shock is a serious condition where failure of the nervous system leads to widespread vasodilation, or the widening of blood vessels, thereby causing significant drops in blood pressure. It commonly happens after a severe injury or trauma, particularly injuries to the spinal cord.
Explanation:Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a failure of the nervous system causing widespread vasodilation. In simpler terms, this means that the nervous system doesn't correctly regulate blood vessels, leading to their widening (vasodilation), which in turn decreases blood pressure significantly. This situation is different from an issue where there's too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container, massive vasoconstriction occurs after a spinal cord injury, or the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.
When severe enough, neurogenic shock can be life-threatening and it generally happens after some types of severe injury or trauma, especially injuries to the spinal cord.
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Neurogenic shock is a vascular shock that occurs when the nervous system fails, causing widespread vasodilation. This happens due to injuries that damage the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata or the nervous fibers originating from this region. The treatment involves restoring tone to the muscles of the vessels and alleviating the underlying cause of the condition.
Explanation:Neurogenic shock occurs when failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. This type of shock happens due to cranial or spinal injuries that damage the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata or the nervous fibers originating from this region. When this happens, arterioles lose their normal muscular tone and dilate dramatically, causing vascular shock.
Another form of shock is anaphylactic shock - a severe allergic response that causes the widespread release of histamines, triggering vasodilation throughout the body. Observing the cause of the shock is important for proper treatment. Vascular shock, for example, is treated by restoring tone to the muscles of the vessels and eliminating or at least alleviating the underlying cause of the condition. This might include antibiotics and antihistamines, or select steroids, which may aid in the repair of nerve damage.
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The iliacus and the psoas major muscles are collectively known as the ____________ muscle because they share a common insertion on the __________ of the femur. A- iliopsoas; lesser trochanter B- iliopsoas; greater trochanter C- psoasiliacus; greater trochanter D- psoasiliacus; lesser trochanter
Answer:
The correct option is A- iliopsoas; lesser trochanter.
Explanation:
The Iliopsoas muscle is formed by the iliacus muscle and the psoas muscle. The Psoas is located in the abdominal cavity, behind the internal organs and in front of the pubic bone, it is subdivided into psoas major and psoas minor. It originates in the last dorsal vertebra and all lumbar. The Iliacus is a flat and triangular muscle that originates from the inner surface of the sacrum and ilium bone. Both are inserted through a common tendon in the proximal femur. The direction of its fibers is down with a posterior and external twist to reach the femur in its lesser trochanter.
The iliacus and psoas major muscles are collectively known as the iliopsoas muscle, and they share a common insertion on the lesser trochanter of the femur.
Explanation:The iliacus and psoas major muscles are collectively known as the iliopsoas muscle. These two muscles share a common insertion on the lesser trochanter of the femur. So, the correct choice is A- iliopsoas; lesser trochanter.
The psoas major muscle originates from the lower back, while the iliacus arises from the ilium of the hip bone. Both muscles converge in the pelvic region and insert together into the lesser trochanter of the femur. This shared insertion point allows them to work together to provide flexion in the hip joint.
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