Fmri scans showed activity in the cingulate cortex, a region of the brain that is active during

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Answer 1

The activity that an individual is having when an fMRI can had showed an activity in the cingulate cortex, a region of the brain in which is active is when the individual is going through depression in which is a major depressive disorder that makes a person feel loss of interest when doing his or her daily activities or that he or she has an overwhelming feeling of sadness.

Related Questions

What is the largest natural population of organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring? A) Class B) Family C) Genus D) Species

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D speicies is the correct answer

Answer: D) Species

Explanation: Species are the largest group of organisms in which two organisms of the appropriate sexes are capable of interbreeding typically by sexual reproduction to produce fertile offspring.

The element argon has _____ valence electrons. (Input only a whole number, such as 7.)

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18 valence electrons

Answer:

Explanation:

Which of the following is not a product or use of tropical rainforest?

a. Food
b. Medicine
c. Tourism
d. None of the above

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Answer: D

All of the choices are products or uses of the rainforest, therefore, the answer is D

Answer: Option D

Explanation: Rainforest is the most diverse forest. It has a variety of plants and animal species.

This forest provides us with many resources that helps us commercially, domestically and therapeutically.

Rain forest provides food and shelter to various types of animals living there. It also provides human being with many herbs and medicines and can be a source of recreational activities.

hence, the correct answer is option D

In a publishable table format, present your plating results. include expected results and observed results columns in your table. clearly explain why you observe the different colony phenotypes on plates 3 and 4 (transformation b). clearly explain what are the expected colony phenotypes for plate 6 and whether the expected phenotype was observed.

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C. F1 generation is all Yy (let Y be yellow and y be green). Y is dominant to y. The F2 could be YY, Yy, Yy, or yy. 3:1

plants utilize chlorophyll containing chloroplasts and mitochondria. what is the purpose of motochodria when a cell already has chloroplasts?

Answers

B. to turn sugar into energy !!!

Answer:

its b to turn sugars into energy

Explanation:

i got it right

is the spinal cord part of the peripheral nervous system

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No; the spinal cord is NOT part of the "peripheral nervous system (PNS)" .

The brain and the spinal cord are part of the "central nervous system (CNS)" .
______________________________________________________

Drag each tool below into the box corresponding to the step in the dmaic cycle where it is most likely to be used.

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I found the exercise on the internet and the tools are organised below into their corresponding step of the DMAIC cycle.

Define (articulate the problem, objectives, resources, project, etc):

-Quality Circles

-Flow charts

Measure (collection of data, establish base lines for improvement):

-Pareto Charts

-Check Sheets

Analyse (identify, validate):

-Cause-and-effect diagrams

Improve (test and implement solutions):

-Brainstorming

Control (monitoring improvements and ensure continuing success):

-Control Charts for new Process

what lipids make up the cell membrane? how many layers does it hare? what are the functions of the cell membrane?

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phospholipids, 2 layers. The cell membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and controls the movement of substances in and out of cells. The basic function of the cell membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings. It consists of the lipid bilayer with embedded proteins.

The Cell membrane is a continuous double layer of lipid molecules in which membrane proteins are embedded. The cell membrane regulates the transport of materials entering and exiting the cell.

The cell membrane, also known as the plasma membrane, is found in all cells and serves to separate the cell's interior from the outside environment. A semipermeable lipid bilayer forms the cell membrane. The cell membrane controls the flow of materials into and out of the cell.

The cell membrane is mostly made up of lipids, specifically phospholipids. Phospholipids are made up of two hydrophobic (water-repelling) tails and a hydrophilic (water-loving) head. The hydrophilic head has a phosphate group that attracts water, whereas the hydrophobic tails have fatty acid chains that repel water.

The cell membrane primary roles are Selective permeability, Maintaining cell integrity, Cell signaling, Cell adhesion, Cell recognition.

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Identify how a hormone molecule performs its function.

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It's gets the function by creating a hormone

a hormone is any member of a class of signaling molecules produced by glands in multicellular organisms that are transported by the circulatory system to target distant organs to regulate physiology and behavior. hormones have diverse chemical structures, mainly of 3 classes: eicosanoids, steroids, and amino acid derivatives.

I hope this helps

Some plants (grasses) tend to contain a greater concentration of chlorophyll than others (pines). can you develop a hypothesis to explain this? would it be testable?

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I would hypothesize that plants (such as grasses) that are lower to the ground, and thus more likely to be somewhat shielded from sunlight, contain higher concentrations of chlorophyll to assist in the growth and energizing process than do other vegetal organisms (such as pines) which are not blocked from the light of the sun.

.WILL GIVE A BRAINLEST

Large herbivores migrate to find____.

more suitable temperatures

safe breeding grounds

food and water

Answers

Answer: Food and water

Explanation: Every life form on earth survives because of food and water. It is the basic need and cannot be ignored by an organism.

The larger herbivores will migrate to another places in search of food and water. Huge body have huge requirement of energy and hence, this requirement will be fulfilled only food and water.

The idea that species evolve at a slow constant rate is called

Answers

evolution theory

It was elaborated by C Darwin

Answer: The correct answer is -

Gradualism.

Gradualism can be described as an evolutionary theory according to which evolution of organisms/species proceeds continuously at a slow and steady rate that is without any sudden formation of new biological features or sudden formation of new species from one generation to the next generation. The approach in which Charles Darwin proposed the emergence of new species (over many generations) from already existing species is attributed to gradualism.

In other words, species evolving at slow and constant rate is known as gradualism.

Many of the egyptian gods are associated with animals. what are some of these animals? why do you think these particular animals were included in the egyptian myths?

Answers

Cats were thought to be royal

What three events occur during the light reactions of photosynthesis?

Answers

B oxidation of water, reduction of NADP+ , formation of ATP.C oxidation of water, recuction of NADP+ , hydrolysis of ATP.D fixation of carbon dioxide, release of oxygen, synthesis of glucose.E release of oxygen, fixation of carbon dioxide, hydrolysis of ATP.

What is sustainability?

Answers

sustainability is the ability to be maintained at a certain rate or level.

Sustainability is a word that is very difficult to define as it is in constant discussion and used with multi-dimensional purposes. In the most colloquial language it is used to refer to the decisions, actions and dispositions to cover the present needs without leaving out the future generations. In other words it deals with a responsible use of resources in order to maitain them over the years. As the industrial era has passed, humans have realized that most of the resources, although renewable, are desapearing because they do not have time to finish their renovation process. Sustainability deals with the decisions that need to taken in order to assure the supply and standar of life over the next decades.

As someone moves up the managerial hierarchy, which skills become relatively more important?

Answers

As someone moves up the managerial hierarchy, the supervisory skills become relatively more important.
The higher in the managerial hierarchy the bigger the responsibilty to establish goals and lead a team of people to achieve them.
Good supervisory skills include effective communication skills.,planning, problem solving,authority..and are essential for a manager.

What is the expected effect of hyperventilation on heart rate? why does this change occur?

Answers

The heart rate will increase. This is due to the increase in the carbon dioxide levels in the blood associated with faster respiration. To allow more blood to reach the brain, the heart has to speed up to keep up with the rate of movement of the blood.

Which statement is an example of mutualism? Bees sting other organisms when they sense danger. Bees pollinate flowers while obtaining nectar. Bees have black and yellow stripes that warn other organisms of danger. Bees help maintain an ecosystem’s native cacti species through pollination. NextReset

Answers

i think the answer is the first one. mutualism is when two things benefit from each other, hope this helps! :)

2.Bees pollinate flowers while obtaining nectar is the answer

John and sue are expecting a child, but are concerned about a rare autosomal recessive disease that is present in both of their families. in the pedigree below, john is represented as individual iii-11 and sue is represented as individual iii-12. john\'s sister, iii-10, and sue\'s brother, iii-13, both do not show evidence of the disease, but john\'s paternal grandmother and sue\'s maternal grandfather both had the disease. assign the appropriate symbol to each individual in the pedigree.

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Attached is the pedigree. I found the exercise on the internet.

The individuals that are missing a symbol are: II-5, II-6, II-8, III-10, III-11, III-12, III-13.

The individual II-5 would have the half black/half white square. A square because in the introductory text says that it's John's paternal grandmother (I-2) that has the disease. Half black/half white because his mother had the disease so she passed one allele that's necessarily a disease allele, and his father doesn't carry the disease or manifest it which means that from him, John's father (II-5) only received a normal allele.

The individual II-6 would have a question mark in a circle. A circle because she is John's mother once his father is the individual II-5. A question mark because we don't have information as for the manifestation of the disease in her, though we do know that she is either a carrier of the disease or inflicted by the disease because she has a daughter (John's sister) that has the disease meaning that John's sister received two alleles for the disease.

The individual II-8 would have the half black/half white circle. A circle because she is Sue's mother once her father is the individual II-7 (a square). Half black/half white because her father had the disease so he passed one allele that's necessarily a disease allele, and her mother doesn't carry the disease or manifest it which means that from her, Sue's mother (II-8) could only received a normal allele.

The individual III-10 would have a question mark in a circle. A circle because she is John's sister as said in the introductory text. A question mark because we can't affirm whether she is a carrier of one disease allele or does not carry the disease at all. We know by the introductory text that she doesn't have any signs of the disease but she could've have received a disease allele from her father or her mother if her mother is simply a carrier of one disease allele, or would definitely received a disease allele from her mother, and not from her father, if her mother has the disease.

John, the individual III-11 would have a question mark in a square. A square because is John, a male. A question mark because we can't affirm whether he is a carrier of one disease allele or does not carry the disease at all. We gather, by the introductory text, that he doesn't have signs of the disease but he could've have received a disease allele from his father or his mother if his mother is simply a carrier of one disease allele, or would definitely received a disease allele from his mother, and not from his father, if his mother has the disease.

Sue, the individual III-12 would have a question mark in a circle. A circle because is Sue, a female. A question mark because we can't affirm whether she is a carrier of one disease allele or does not carry the disease at all. By the introductory text, we gather that she doesn't have signs of the disease, but she could've have received a disease allele from her mother, once her mother is a carrier of a disease allele, turning her into a carrier as well, or could've received the normal allele from her mother. From her father she only received a normal allele.

The individual III-13 would have a question mark in a square. A square because he is Sue's brother according to the introductory text. A question mark because we can't affirm whether he is a carrier of one disease allele or does not carry the disease at all. We know, by the introductory text, that he doesn't show any signs of the disease, but he could've have received a disease allele from his mother, once his mother is a carrier of a disease allele, turning him into a carrier as well, or could've received the normal allele from his mother. From his father he only received a normal allele.

From this information, John and Sue have a 25% probability (1 in 4) of having a child with the disease (aa), a 50% probability (2 in 4) of having a child who is a carrier (Aa), and a 25% probability (1 in 4) of having a child who is neither affected nor a carrier (AA). This is figured through a Punnett Square analysis of two heterozygous carriers (Aa x Aa).

In this, we are dealing with a pedigree that represents an autosomal recessive disease. Let's first understand the symbols used in a pedigree:

Squares represent males and circles represent females.A horizontal line between a male and a female indicates marriage or mating.Vertical lines connected by a horizontal line indicate siblings.Shaded symbols represent individuals who are affected by the disease.

In order to assign the appropriate symbols to each individual, we need to identify their genotypes. Since the disease is autosomal recessive, it means that the disease allele is represented by 'a', and the normal allele is represented by 'A'. Therefore:

AA (homozygous dominant) means the individual does not have the disease and is not a carrier.Aa (heterozygous) means the individual does not have the disease but is a carrier.aa (homozygous recessive) means the individual has the disease.

Given the information:

John (iii-11) and Sue (iii-12) do not show evidence of the disease but have a family history of it. Therefore, they are likely heterozygous carriers (Aa).John’s sister (iii-10), who does not show evidence of the disease, is likely also Aa, since the disease is present in the family but she herself is unaffected.Sue’s brother (iii-13) also does not show evidence of the disease and is likely Aa for the same reason as John’s sister.John’s paternal grandmother and Sue’s maternal grandfather had the disease, meaning they are aa.

With this knowledge, we can deduce the following genotypes:

iii-11 (John): Aa (heterozygous carrier)iii-12 (Sue): Aa (heterozygous carrier)iii-10 (John’s sister): Aa (heterozygous carrier)iii-13 (Sue’s brother): Aa (heterozygous carrier)John’s paternal grandmother: aa (homozygous recessive)Sue’s maternal grandfather: aa (homozygous recessive)

Which autonomic nerve innervates the urinary bladder, uterus, and external genitalia?

Answers

Autonomic splanchnic nerve innervates the urinary bladder, uterus, and external genitalia, sympathetic nerve that originates from the paravertebral thoracic ganglia, but does not innervate thoracic viscera, but abdominal. There are two splanchnic nerves: greater (of the V-IX ganglia) and minor (of the X and XI ganglia). Sometimes, a third appears, the most caudal, called imo (ganglion XII). All of them end in the celiac plexus.

Answer:

Autonomic splanchnic nerve innervates the urinary bladder, uterus, and outside genitalia, thoughtful nerve that begins from the paravertebral thoracic ganglia, however does not innervate thoracic viscera, but rather stomach.

Explanation:

There are two splanchnic nerves: more noteworthy (of the V-IX ganglia) and minor (of the X and XI ganglia). In some cases, a third shows up, the most caudal, called imo (ganglion XII). Every one of them end in the celiac plexus.Dysautonomia or autonomic brokenness is a condition in which the autonomic sensory system (ANS) does not work legitimately. ... Various illnesses can highlight dysautonomia, for example, Parkinson's malady, HIV/AIDS, different framework decay, autonomic fa

The two main human sources of primary air pollutants are:

Answers

The factory waste ( biohazardous waste)
Carbon dioxide and monoxide

If it is not watered, a tulip plant wilts because it

Answers

It loses Turgor Pressure, hope this helped :)

Final answer:

A tulip plant wilts when it is not watered because it loses turgor pressure and cannot properly perform photosynthesis. Watering restores turgor pressure and enables photosynthesis.

Explanation:

Turgor pressure is the force within the cell that pushes the plasma membrane against the cell wall, and it is chiefly maintained by water. So, when a plant doesn't get enough water, it loses this pressure and starts to wilt.

Moreover, water is crucial for the plant's ability to perform photosynthesis. This process, which involves converting sunlight into chemical energy, requires water. When a tulip plant doesn't have enough water, it will stop photosynthesizing for extended periods until it has adequate water to resume doing so. Thus, watering the wilted plant restores both turgor pressure and its ability to photosynthesize.

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Compression fractures associated with osteoporosis of vertebral bodies can distort the normal thoracic curvature of the vertebral column in a posterior direction. such a distortion is called

Answers

Curvature of the spine can be caused by fractures in people with osteoporosis. Kyphosis is the condition in which the spine curves toward the back. It is also known as 'Dowager's Hump."

Why do people with “inherited cancer” often develop cancer at a relatively young age

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Environmental cancer is usally the result of damage to the cells caused by the environment. This damage accumulates over the life of a person. Inherited cancer is the result of genetic abnormalities present at birth. Since there is no need for damage to accumulate, the cancer develops earlier.

Patellar responses often strengthen with diversion how do you explain this observation

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Final answer:

Patellar responses strengthen with diversion due to the balance of forces in the quadriceps femoris muscle. However, an imbalance can cause the patella to track inappropriately causing pain and potential damage. This can be treated by temporarily ceasing the pain-causing activity and correctly strengthening the muscle to avoid a recurrence.

Explanation:

The observation that Patellar responses often strengthen with diversion can be explained based on the concept of muscle balance in the body. The isolated reflex provoked by tapping the tendon below the kneecap (the patellar response) contracts the quadriceps, creating a diversion which strengthens the response.

However, when the pull created by the medial and lateral sides of the quadriceps femoris muscle is irregular, there might be unusual tracking of the patella towards the lateral side. This could potentially cause pain, damage to the articulating surfaces of the patella and femur, and possibly lead to arthritis in the future.

Treatment usually entails pausing the action causing knee discomfort for some time, followed by a gradual return to the activity. To prevent reoccurrence, it is also essential to strengthen the quadriceps femoris muscle correctly to rectify imbalances.

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Final answer:

The patellar response, a spinal reflex, strengthens with diversion because it bypasses brain processes, enabling faster protection and tissue integrity. The knee reflex is an involuntary reaction to stimulation of the patellar tendon. Muscle imbalances can lead to patellofemoral syndrome, highlighting the role of muscle balance in knee health.

Explanation:

The patellar response often strengthens with diversion because it is a spinal reflex that is designed to be quick and protect tissue integrity by bypassing slower brain processes. When the patellar tendon is gently hit, it triggers the quadriceps to contract much faster than voluntary movements since the reflex does not require brain involvement. This reflex action results in the familiar knee , which is an involuntary kick of the lower leg. Moreover, an imbalance in the muscle pull of the quadriceps femoris muscle can lead to patellofemoral syndrome, which underscores the importance of muscle balance for normal patellar tracking and knee health.

For a particular species of wolf, 55% are female, 20% hunt in medium-sized packs, and 15% are both female and hunt in medium-sized packs. the proportion of wolves that are female but do not hunt in medium-sized packs is

Answers

*Given
Percent of the wolves which are female - 55%
Percent of the wolves which hunt
in medium-sized packs - 20%
Percent of the wolves which are both
female and hunt in medium-sized
packs - 15%

*Solution

Assuming that there is a total of one hundred wolves in the species,

1. Since percent (%) means "per 100" or "for every 100" then,

a. The number of female wolves is

(55 female wolves / 100 wolves) * 100 wolves total = 55 female wolves

b. The number of wolves that hunt in medium-sized packs is

(20 wolves / 100 wolves) * 100 wolves total = 20 wolves

Note that the 20 wolves is a mixture of male and female wolves.

c. The number of female wolves that hunt in medium-sized packs is

(15 female wolves / 100 wolves) * 100 wolves total = 15 female wolves

2. Because there is a total of 55 female wolves in the species, and 15 of these wolves hunt in medium-sized packs, then the number of female wolves that do not hunt in medium-sized packs is,

55 female wolves total - 15 female wolves hunting = 40 female wolves not
in medium-sized packs hunting in medium
sized packs

3. To find the proportion, we can express the answer in terms of percent (%) or in fraction, which is usually how proportions are expressed.

For every 100 wolves, there are 40 female wolves that do not hunt in medium-sized packs. This can be expressed as a proportion of

   40
100

and simplified by dividing both the numerator and denominator by 10, we get,

  40/10
100/10

4
10

When this is expressed in percent, we multiply the fraction or proportion by 100% to get,

       4     x 100% = 40%
10

Thus, the proportion of female wolves that do not hunt in medium sized packs is 4/10 or 0.4. When expressed as percent, this is 40%.

1. Probability of neither female nor hunting in medium-sized packs: 0.40.

2. Probability of female given hunting in medium-sized pack: 0.75.

1. To find the probability of wolves that are neither female nor hunt in medium-sized packs, we can use the principle of complementary probability. We start by finding the probability of wolves that are either female or hunt in medium-sized packs or both, then subtract this probability from 1 to get the probability of wolves that are neither female nor hunt in medium-sized packs.

Probability of wolves that are either female or hunt in medium-sized packs or both:

= Probability of females + Probability of hunting in medium-sized packs - Probability of both

= 55% + 20% - 15%

= 60%

Now, the probability of wolves that are neither female nor hunt in medium-sized packs:

= 1 - Probability of wolves that are either female or hunt in medium-sized packs

= 1 - 0.60

= 0.40

Therefore, the probability of selecting a wolf that is neither female nor hunts in medium-sized packs is 0.40.

2. To find the probability of selecting a wolf that is female, given that it hunts in a medium-sized pack, we use conditional probability. We divide the probability of wolves that are both female and hunt in medium-sized packs by the probability of hunting in medium-sized packs.

Probability of selecting a female wolf given that it hunts in a medium-sized pack:

= Probability of both / Probability of hunting in medium-sized packs

= 15% / 20%

= 0.75

Therefore, the probability of selecting a female wolf given that it hunts in a medium-sized pack is 0.75.

Complete Question :

For a particular species of wolf, 55% are female, 20% hunt in medium-sized packs, and 15% are both female and hunt in medium-sized packs. Answer to 2 decimal places, not as a percent.

1. What is the probability of wolves that are neither female nor hunt in medium-sized packs?

2. What is the probability of selecting a wolf that is female, given that it hunts in a medium-sized pack?

An advantage allowing the seed plant to greatly surpass the seedless vascular plants in colonizing the land was the evolution of:

Answers

An advantage allowing the seed plant to greatly surpass the seedless vascular plants in colonizing the land was the evolution of air-dispersed sperm in pollen grains.Pollen is produced by the gymnosperms (and flowering plants as well) as a package for the dispersal of sperm.

If an individual has the genotype xxx, did non-disjunction occur in their mother or their father (or both) and at which division(s), meiosis i or meiosis ii? check all that apply:

Answers

The mother's genotype is XX and the father's XY. An individual that has the genotype XXX, if any non-disjunction happened, it occur in her mother because only from her mother, she could receive 2 Xs, while form her father, if a non-disjunction was to happen in this chromosomes, it would result in a XXY.
This non-disjunction happened during meiosis I, which is when the two copies of the same chromosome are taken each to a different cell. During this process, the separation did not happen on this two chromosomes being both Xs from the mother taken together to the new haploid cell. The non-disjunction on meiosis II only implies that the two chromatids from a chromosome did not separate and does not result in copies of the same chromosome.

What are the primary components of panera bread's value chain?

Answers

The value chain, Panera Bread's value chain has several component to its value chain, customer service, operating performance, and most important being inbound logistics. The most important for Panera Bread is the Priority on inbound logistics, as it is what differentiates their product from their competitors, which is their most important competitive advantage.

Final answer:

The primary components of Panera Bread's value chain include inbound logistics, operations, outbound logistics, marketing and sales, and service.

Explanation:

The primary components of Panera Bread's value chain are as follows:

Inbound logistics: This involves receiving and storing raw materials, such as ingredients for their menu items. Panera Bread has a centralized supply chain management system that ensures efficient inbound logistics.Operations: This includes activities such as food preparation, cooking, and baking. Panera Bread follows standardized recipes and uses high-quality ingredients to ensure consistency and quality.Outbound logistics: Once the food is prepared, it is packaged and delivered to the different Panera Bread locations. The company also offers takeout and delivery services.Marketing and sales: Panera Bread invests in advertising, promotions, and digital marketing to attract customers. They also have a loyalty program to retain existing customers.Service: Panera Bread focuses on providing excellent customer service. They have well-trained staff and follow strict hygiene and cleanliness standards.

The second stage of prenatal development begins at about two weeks after conception. at this point, the growing bundle of cells is called a(n) __________

Answers

the second stage of prenatal development begins at about two weeks after conception. at this point, the growing bundle of cells is called an embryo.

After conception, the second stage of prenatal development starts about two weeks later. The developing cell bundle is now referred to as an embryo.

What is the second stage of prenatal development?

Prenatal development takes place in three primary stages. The germinal stage is thought to last for the first two weeks after conception.

Followed by the embryonic period from the third to the eighth week, and the fetal period, which lasts from the ninth week until delivery.

Your prenatal development took place in an ordered and delicate sequence, starting as a one-cell structure and ending with delivery.

Therefore, About two weeks after conception, the second stage of fetal development begins. Currently, the growing cell bundle is referred to as an embryo.

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