Answer: False
Explanation:
The boost back seat is used for children which can fit the adult lap along with the shoulder seat belts. Typically when they are 4-5 feet or 8-12 years of age. For children 10-30 pounds this is not suitable they must be 3-4 years of age. They will not fit in adult lap and in shoulder seat belt.
High back booster seats with a 5-point harness are typically for children between 20 and 65 pounds. Kids under 20 pounds should use an infant or rear-facing car seat.
Explanation:The statement is false. High back booster seats with a 5 point harness are typically designed for younger children who weigh between 20 and 65 pounds, not 10-30 pounds. Parallely, an infant car seat or rear-facing car seat is usually recommended for children who weigh up to 20-35 pounds, which would include the lower part of this given range. As the child grows bigger and heavier, they transition from a car seat to a forward-facing seat, and eventually to a booster seat. This ensures their safety in case of an accident.
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Maximizing reimbursement is not permitted because it involves selecting and reporting as principal diagnosis the code that results in the highest level of reimbursement for the facility, whether that diagnosis meets the criteria for selection or not. One aspect of maximizing reimbursement involves
Answer:
One aspect of maximizing reinbursement involves when a patient is admitted as an inpatient at a hospital for the treatment of urosepsis, which is urinary tract infection, UTI. A secondary code has to be assigned to indicate the cause of the infection such as E. coli
Explanation:
Then, the DRG reinbursement rate is approximately $2,300. When an encoder and DRG software grouper are used, the coder may notice that the code for sepsis results in the higher DRG rate of approximately $6, 400. If the code for sepsis is reported as the principal diagnosis, this case would most likely be reviewed by the MAC or the quality improvement organization to verify the accuracy of the reported code.
Final answer:
The discussion focuses on the ethical considerations of coding for reimbursement in health care facilities and contrasts fee-for-service systems with HMOs, addressing the concept of adverse selection in insurance markets and the impact of value-based reimbursement models.
Explanation:
The subject in question pertains to the ethics and practices in coding diagnoses for maximizing reimbursement within health care facilities. In a fee-for-service system, health care providers are reimbursed based on the services performed, but in health maintenance organizations (HMOs), the reimbursement is based on the number of patients. Adverse selection impacts insurance markets by creating a scenario where buyers who are aware of their low risk avoid insurance due to high cost, and high-risk buyers are attracted to it because of perceived benefits. This creates a financial risk for insurance companies. Value-based reimbursement models, such as those used by Medicare, encourage quality care by financially rewarding positive patient outcomes and penalizing hospitals for preventable conditions that occur under their care.
1. A 43-year-old man has had a cough and fever for the past 2 months.. A transbronchial lung biopsy is performed, yielding a specimen with the microscopic appearance shows granulomas. Which of the following chemical mediators is most important in the pathogenesis of this lesion? A Bradykinin B Complement C5a C Interferon-v D Nitric oxideE Prostaglandins 34 2. An 8-year-old girl has had difficulty swallowing for the past day. On examination, her pharynx is swollen and erythematous with an overlying yellow exudate. Laboratory studies show neutrophilia. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus) is cultured from her pharynx. Which of the following substances is most likely to increase in response to pyrogens released by this organism? A Hageman factor B Immunoglobulin E C Interleukin-12 (IL-12) D Nitric oxide E Prostaglandins 3. A 41 -year-old man has had a severe headache for the past 2 days. On examination, his temperature is 39.2 0 lumbar puncture is performed, and the cerebrospinal fluid obtained has a WBC count of 910/ mm3 with 94% neutrophils and 6% lymphocytes. Which of the following substances is the most likely mediator for the fever observed in this man? A Bradykinin B Histamine C Leukotriene B4 D Nitric oxide TNF
Answer:
1. (B) Interferen-V
2.(E)
3.(E)
Explanation:
1.Interferon-V is the most important in the pathogenesis of this lesion because, it promotes the formation of epithelioid cells and giant cells.
2.Immunoglobulin will be increased in response to inflammatory responses with allergins and with invasive parasites.
3.The most likely mediator for the fever is interleukin-1 ( IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor, TNF, which are produced by macrophages and other cell types.
Which statement by the client leads the nurse to believe that the client needs additional instruction regarding the nasal decongestant?
"I will blow my nose before instilling the nasal spray."
"I will report any dizziness, drowsiness, or rapid pulse."
"I will drink 2,000 to 3,000 mL of fluid daily."
"I will use it only when I have nasal discharge."
Answer:
I will use it only when I have nasal discharge.
Explanation:
A nasal decongestant is a medication, and as such its instructions for use must be respected, since a treatment should not be abandoned before a certain number of days, nor can it fall into the overdose due to a massive use of it.
In the U.S., the largest source of funding and guidance for state and local public health programs is provided by?
Answer:
The Federal government and The State government are the largest source of funding and guidance for state and local public health programs.
Explanation:
The Federal government and The State government are the largest source of funding and guidance for state and local public health programs.
In the US, governmental public health agencies are set up to meet and solve the local public health challenges.
The Federal government of the US has the responsibility for creating laws, regulations, policies and expenditure of the resources necessary for the health and safety of the public.
The funds used in financing the health program's are gotten from levies and tax.
What home remedies are effective for mouth dryness and cough? (Select all that apply.)
a) Humidification of the environment
b) Swishing the mouth with astringent mouthwash.
c) Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges
d) Adequate fluid intake
e) Administration of over-the-counter antihistamine
Answer: a). Humidification of the environment
c). Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges
d). Adequate fluid intake
Explanation:
Humidification of the environment: This will prevent the loss of water from the body by sweating and increasing the tendency of thirst. This can prevent the dryness of mouth and associated cough.
Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges: The sucking of candy or lozenges will likely to produce saliva in the mouth which will prevent dryness and associated cough.
Adequate fluid intake: This will fulfill the requirement of water in the body. Hence it will reduce dryness in the mouth and cough.
Effective home remedies for mouth dryness and cough include humidification of the environment, swishing the mouth with astringent mouthwash, sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges, and adequate fluid intake.
Explanation:The home remedies that are effective for mouth dryness and cough include:
Humidification of the environment: Using a humidifier or taking a steamy shower can help moisturize the air and alleviate dryness in the mouth and throat.
Swishing the mouth with astringent mouthwash: Gargling with a mouthwash that contains astringent ingredients like menthol or eucalyptol can provide temporary relief for cough and dryness.
Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges: These can help stimulate saliva production and soothe a dry throat.
Adequate fluid intake: Drinking plenty of water can help keep the mouth hydrated and alleviate dryness.
It is important to note that administration of over-the-counter antihistamine may not be an effective home remedy for mouth dryness and cough, as it may have drying effects instead. Consulting with a healthcare professional is recommended for proper treatment.
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Why is it a myth that muscle turns into fat when someone stops working out? A. Muscle and fat are two different kinds of tissue. B. Muscle grows with physical inactivity. C. Fat converts into muscle but not vice versa. D. Only a small amount of muscle turns into fat. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C
Answer:
A or 1Muscle and fat are two different kinds of tissue.It is a myth that muscle turns into fat when someone stops working out because muscle and fat are two different kinds of tissue. Thus, the correct option for this question is A.
What is Tissue?Tissue may be defined as a level of organization in multicellular organisms that significantly consists of a group or layer of cells that work together to perform a specific function. This level of organization in multicellular organisms lies after the cells.
According to the context of this question, it is a type of myth among people that muscle turns into fat when someone stops working out or prevents physical activity. This basically relies on the fact that muscle and fat are the two distinctive types of tissues that gave to play specific functions within the body of living organisms.
Therefore, it is a myth that muscle turns into fat when someone stops working out because muscle and fat are two different kinds of tissue. Thus, the correct option for this question is A.
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write in your own words
List and describe the components of exercise prescription such as overload principle, type, progression, or specificity.
Answer:
Only particular workouts can improve the goals you are aiming for.
Explanation:
Which hormone initiates the preparation of the endometrium of the uterus for pregnancy?
Answer:
Progesterone
Explanation:
Progesterone is sometimes called the “hormone of pregnancy” and has many roles relating to fetal development. It converts the endometrium to its secretory stage to prepare the uterus for implantation. At the same time, it affects the vaginal epithelium and cervical mucus, making them thick and impenetrable to sperm.
What makes a crisis access hospital (CAH) different from an intensive care unit (ICU)?
Answer:
A crisis access hospital provides temporary care while an intensive care unit provides care for a non-limited time.
Explanation:
A crisis access hospital (CAH) provides approximately 96 hours of care, while an intensive care unit (ICU) provides intensive care for a non-limited time. The professionals in the ICU are highly trained, and their patients would not live without their close monitoring and life support machines.
The diet planning principle of ______describes consuming the right proportion of foods from each of the food groups and the appropriate amounts of calories, macronutrients, vitamins, and minerals.
The diet planning principle that describes consumption of the right portion of foods from each of the food groups and appropriate amounts of calories, macronutrients, vitamins, and minerals is referred to as balance. Balance promotes inclusion of varied nutrients in correct quantities, supporting overall health.
Explanation:The diet planning principle that describes consuming the right proportion of foods from each of the food groups, as well as the appropriate amounts of calories, macronutrients, vitamins, and minerals is known as balance.
Balance means including different food items from each food group into your daily diet to meet nutritional needs. This concept promotes not only the inclusion of nutrients from each category, but also moderation in quantities to prevent over or under-consumption. Balanced diet supports achieving and maintaining a healthy weight, reducing the risk of chronic diseases, and promoting overall health.
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Women younger than 20 and older than 35 are both vulnerable to __________ during pregnancy.
Answer:
Hypertension
Explanation:
During pregnancy, there are lot of risks a female may encounter. Some factors have been identified to increase the chances of several medical complications arising during pregnancy. Age is one of those risk factors that increases the probability of complications to arise during pregnancy.
Research studies have identified hypertension to be one of the medical complications that are related to pregnancy. Age has been identified as a risk factor that increases a female chances of having hypertension during pregnancy. Women below age 20 and women above age 35 have been identified to have a significantly higher risk of developing hypertension .
The two electrolytes most important in enabling nerves to respond to stimuli are sodium and_______.
a.phosphorus
b.iron
c.chloride
d.potassium
Answer:
Potassium
Explanation:
Potassium is a mineral and an electrolyte. It helps your muscles work, including the muscles that control your heartbeat and breathing. Potassium comes from the food you eat. Your body uses the potassium it needs. The extra potassium that your body does not need is removed from your blood by your kidneys.
Answer:
That would be D.potassium.
What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?
Answer:
Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press.
Explanation:
_____ is considered a sign of mental health _____ when people are terminally ill. Fear of death; for all age groups Acceptance of death; in late adulthood Acceptance of death; for all age groups Fear of death; in adolescence
Answer:
Acceptance of death; in late adulthood
Explanation:
The late adulthood of people gives them the acceptance of death because they might as well not consider "wasting anything else".
A terminal illness refers to an incurable or predicting to a death illness such as cancer.
Not all age could accept death. Fear of death can apply for all age but not in terms of terminal illness.
Answer:
Acceptance of death is considered a sign of mental health in late adulthood when people are terminally ill.
Describe several guidelines for saying no in situations when you might feel pressured to do something you don't want to do.
Answer:
1. I will stick to my " no" answer.
Explanation:
Guideliness:
No is no and not yes and so it can't be changed to become yes overnight
What I do not want to do, I do not do.
Pressure cannot make do what I do not want to do.
I say what I mean and mean what I say.
I don't work under respond to to peer pressure.
I don't work under influence.
If you do not have a commercial tourniquet available, what common device found on the ambulance be used as a substitute?
A) Ice packs tied in place with triangle bandage
B) Air or vacuum splint
C) Blood pressure cuff
D) Use a rope tie-down to make a tourniquet
Answer:
c.
Explanation:
If a special tourniquet is not available, such as those that come in first aid kits, it is possible to improvise using soft, strong and flexible material, such as gauze, bandage, clothing or handkerchiefs, in order not to cause damage to the skin, making sure that the tourniquet has a minimum width of one inch to tighten.
Answer:
C. Blood pressure cuff.
Explanation:
A blood pressure cuff is used to take blood pressure. The cuff has an inflatable rubber bladder that is fastened around the arm.
After taking cooking lessons, Thelma bakes a cake for her friend Louise’s birthday. When Louise sees the cake, she says, "Wow, that’s so sweet. My mom always made a special cake for my birthday, and she would decorate it so elaborately." Thelma replies, "Well I’m sorry that I didn’t decorate the cake extravagantly. I guess I still have a lot to learn about cooking." Thelma’s response illustrates:
Answer:
Defensive listening.
Explanation:
Defensive listening may be defined as be defined as when the person might take the innocent comment as an attack against them. This listening might cause misunderstandings between the people.
Defensive listening can create the wrong impression by the simple comments or individuals feels it as a defensive comments. The individual might get upset or depress by taking the simple comments in the negative sense. Thelma tooks the comment as defensive listening.
Thus, the answer is defensive listening.
Guillermo feels compelled to alternate between e-mailing, updating his Twitter status, and using his smartphone to conduct work. He often feels an adrenaline rush and his muscles tense when he is notified of incoming messages or calls. Concentration feels more difficult than in the past. Guillermo's stress is likely a result of ______.
The correct answer is C; technological multitasking.
Further Explanation:
When a person is immersed in their smartphone or computer they can become increasingly stressed. Since the person in the above question is using his smartphone for work and personal use, he is overdoing his time on the device.
Technological multitasking has been researched by numerous universities and scientists. There have been studies that proved the brain of a person multitasking is less flexible. This hurts the person by making it difficult to retrieve any learned information.
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The registered nurse is teaching a nursing student about caring for a client who has difficulty speaking English. Which statement made by the nursing student would cause communication problems with the client?
1 "I will give the client a call bell."2 "I will involve the client's family members as interpreters."3 "I will provide a dictionary to the client if the client can read."4 "I will use boards and pictures to communication with the client."
Answer: 4
Explanation:
The neurotransmission system of the human body is a communication network composed of what?
A) Synapses
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Receptors
D) Antigens
E) Complexes
Answer:
A) Synapses (although B. neurotransmitters and C. receptors are included in this neurotransmission system).
Explanation:
For neurons to send messages throughout the body, they need to communicate with each other to transmit signals. However, neurons are not simply connected to each other. At the end of each neuron is a small space called a synapse, and to communicate with the next cell, the signal must be able to traverse that small space. This occurs through a process known as neurotransmission.
When an electrical signal reaches the end of a neuron, it triggers the release of small sacs called vesicles that contain neurotransmitters. These sacs spill their contents into the synapse, where neurotransmitters move through space toward neighboring cells. These cells contain receptors where neurotransmitters can bind and trigger changes in cells.
Upon release, the neurotransmitter crosses the synaptic gap and binds to the receptor site on the other neuron, stimulating or inhibiting the receptor neuron depending on what the neurotransmitter is. Neurotransmitters act as a key and the receptor site acts as a block. It takes the right key to open specific locks. If the neurotransmitter is able to function at the receptor site, it will cause changes in the recipient cell.
A client is experiencing difficulty in adjusting to a new prosthesis despite conscientious client education by numerous members of the health care team. How should the team respond to the client's lack of learning to this point?A. Revise the education plan that has guided education.B. Explore alternatives to prosthesis.C. Refer the client to outside sources of information.D. Scale back the scope and detail of client education.
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Revise the education plan that has guided education.
After several failed attempts at treating major depressive episodes over the years, Patrick contemplates undergoing ECT. He discusses this with his doctor, who warns him that ECT can lead to _____, which can last for at least 6 months after the procedure is completed.
Answer:
Memory loss
Explanation:
ECT (electroconvulsive therapy) is a medical treatment for people suffering from mental illnesses such as depression or bipolar. The therapy involves the neural stimulation through electrical shocks. This is done while a patient is under anesthesia, and this is used as a "last resort" treatment because of the many things that could go wrong.
A dangerous symptom that can arise from this treatment is memory loss.
Our memories are basically a sequence of certain neural impulses, such as seeing something, is converted to a neural impulse by the eye, so that it can be interpreted by the brain. Any foreign electrical impulse has the potential to overwrite those memories.
The prior medical conditions for which the applicant has received, or should have received, medical advice or treatment within a specified period before the effective date of a policy are called:_______
Answer:
The answer is "pre-existing conditions."
Explanation:
A pre-existing condition is a health condition or illness that existed before someone enters into an agreement or a contract, such as life insurance.
For life insurance companies, it is essential to know a person's pre-existing conditions because they do not wish to provide the coverage for such conditions. As you probably know, it is common that life insurance companies do not provide insurance to people who are terminally ill or about to die. This is the reason why they ask you to provide all necessary medical examinations before entering into the agreement.
However, once the specified period for the pre-existing condition's treatment has elapsed, the insurance company will have to cover the treatment.
Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
A. Inflammation and fibrosis develop at the joints.
B. Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
C. It progresses bilaterally through the small joints.
D. There are no changes in the bone at the affected joints.
Answer:B. Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
Explanation:
Oesteoarthritis is a disease of joint. It result due to the breakdown of underlying bone and cartilage. The symptoms involve the stiffness and pain in joint. The causes includes the injury of joint, limb development and abnormality of joint.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
This is the degeneration of articulating cartilage occuring in the joints. It is the most chronic condition of the joints.
Which of the following is NOT a function of water in the body? a. helps to regulate nervous impulses and muscle contraction b. helps to transport nutrients and oxygen c.helps to excrete waste products d. provides a source of energy to work and play
Answer:
D. Provides a source of energy to work and play
Explanation:
Water does not provide a source of energy to work and play
While conventional wisdom attributes good health and longevity to good nutrition, exercise, sleep, proper sanitation, and avoiding smoking, medical anthropologists consider many other factors when looking at health. One critical aspect of health that is often overlooked is that of
Answer:
inequality
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The nurse is performing the initial assessment of a client in the emergency department.
Which statement by the client most strongly suggests domestic violence?
Signs of domestic violence in the emergency department are: 1. Marks or wounds on the body: they are evidence of physical attacks against the victim, usually the pacients lie about their origin. 2. Hostile or violent attitude towards health personnel: it occurs because of the abuse that they are subjected to. 3. Sense of guilt: during the interrogation they are usually blamed for the facts that involve the violent act. 4. Low weight: loss of appetite of the victim or deprivation of food by the offender. 5. Distraction: the victim focuses so much on his problem that he does not pay attention to external stimuli. 6. Costing nervousness: they lose control easily if an unexpected situation arises before them.
Which of the following is correctly matched to a stage of the Transtheoretical Model? a. Preparation stage: "Stress causes me to crave a cigarette, so I use yoga help me relax." b. Maintenance: "For the last year, my friends and I go golfing every Sunday instead of spending the day drinking beer at the pub." c. Contemplative: "The risk for exposure to chlamydia is highest in my age group, so chances are I am going to get it. There's nothing that I can do about it." d. All of the above are correct examples of the stage.
Answer:
B. Maintenance
Explanation:
"For the last year, my friends and I go golfing every Sunday instead of spending the day drinking beer at the pub."
The correct match to a stage of the Transtheoretical Model is option (b): 'Maintenance: For the last year, my friends and I go golfing every Sunday instead of spending the day drinking beer at the pub.' This statement describes an individual maintaining a behavior change for a year, which is indicative of the Maintenance stage.
Explanation:The Transtheoretical Model, also known as the Stages of Change model, characterizes behavior change as a progression through various stages. The correct answer is (b). The Maintenance stage is characterized by ongoing behavior modification and avoiding relapse. The example statement describes a scenario where an individual has maintained a behavior change for a year (replacing bar drinking with golfing), which is indicative of the Maintenance stage. The statements in options (a) and (c), do not correctly correlate with the stages of the Transtheoretical Model described.
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A list that provides specific details about what a food package contains is called:________
Answer:
The correct answer is- ingredient list
Explanation:
An ingredient list provides specific details about what is present in a food package. According to the FDA, all the food ingredients should be written in decreasing order of their weight present in packaged food.
This means that the ingredient that helps in making most of the product comes first which is followed by the next ingredient and so no. If any ingredient is made up of several ingredients then that is also included in the list below the main ingredient.
If any preservative is added then its function is described in the list. So the correct answer is the ingredient list.
Marta is 22 years of age and weighs 132 pounds. Based on her body weight, her RDA for protein is _____ grams.
Answer: 47.87 grams
Explanation:
The protein is one of the main component of the body as it helps in the main functions of the body.
The Recommended Dietary allowances for protein is around 0.8 grams of protein per kilograms of the body weight.
This amount of protein is required by the body in order to work properly. The person here is 132 pounds which means 59 kilograms and 87 grams.
Hence, the amount of protein required is 59.87*0.8 =47.87 grams of protein.
Final answer:
Based on her body weight, Marta's Recommended Dietary Allowance for protein is approximately 47.9 grams per day, calculated using the guideline of 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight.
Explanation:
The question regarding Marta, who is 22 years of age and weighs 132 pounds, revolves around calculating her Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein. The RDA for protein in adults is generally calculated based on body weight, with the commonly accepted guideline being 0.8 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day.
Since Marta weighs 132 pounds, we first convert her weight to kilograms by dividing by 2.20462 (since 1 kg is approximately 2.20462 pounds), resulting in approximately 59.87 kg. Multiplying this by 0.8 grams results in an RDA of about 47.9 grams of protein per day for Marta.