Answer:
D - increase
Explanation:
Answer: Its frequency increases
Explanation:
Period is the time taken for an object to complete a full cycle or revolution.
It is the inverse of frequency
i.e Period = 1/frequency
Thus, decrease in period is proportional to an INCREASE in frequency
Iron is considered an essential element for many bacteria. Based on the animation, how would lack of iron affect energy production of a bacterium?
Answer:
Leads to low energy yields.
Explanation:
Heme is important to the function of hemoproteins which are involved in the generation of energy, detoxification of the host immune effectors among other processes.
The heme is an iron containing co-factor therefore lack of iron would mean there will be no heme, and thus lower amounts of functioning hemoproteins. Low amount of functioning hemaproteins means there will be lower energy yields.
A man is a carrier for Wilson's disease (Aa) and Rotor syndrome (Rr). Assume the genes involved in these two disorders are both on chromosome 13 (a non-sex chromosome). Below are possible representations of his genotype (labeled #1, #2, and #3). Which of them could be correct?
A. #1 only
B. #2 only
C. #3 only
D. #2 and #3 only
E. #1, #2 and #3
Answer:
The correct answer is "#2 and #3 only"
Explanation:
A and a are alleles, and R and r are alleles. Alleles of a gene are found at the same locus on homologous chromosomes. Every pair of the alleles depicts the genotype of a particular gene. Homozygous genotype occurs when two similar alleles at same locus and heterozygous in case of two nonidentical alleles. Due to the alleles there occurs a change in the appearance. An alleles create differences in gene.
discuss the indications for the placement of provisional coverage for a crown or a fixed bridge preparation?
Provisional coverage, such as a temporary crown or bridge, is used to protect the prepared tooth from further damage, maintain tooth alignment and offer a temporary aesthetic solution while the permanent prosthesis is being crafted. It's especially used in crown or fixed bridge preparations.
Explanation:Provisional coverage, which can be a temporary crown or bridge, is utilized in restorative dentistry during the interim period between tooth preparation and final prosthesis placement. The main indications for the placement of provisional coverage are to safeguard the prepared tooth from damage and sensitivity, maintain the position and relationships of teeth (like the contact point and occlusal vertical dimension), and to provide an aesthetic solution for the patient while the final crowns or bridges are being fabricated. It's used in procedures like crown or fixed bridge preparations.
For instance, if significant tooth structure is removed during a crown preparation, a provisional cover will protect the remaining tooth structure from further damage and bacterial invasion, and also prevent postoperative sensitivity by insulating the exposed dentinal tubules. Also, in a fixed bridge preparation, provisional coverage maintains proper spacing and alignment of prepared teeth to ensure an accurate fit of the final bridge.
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Provisional coverage is used to protect the prepared tooth while the permanent crown or bridge is being made. It is indicated in situations where there is tooth sensitivity, potential aesthetic concerns, or during the healing phase after surgery.
Explanation:Provisional coverage, also known as a temporary crown or bridge, is used to protect the prepared tooth or teeth while the permanent crown or bridge is being fabricated. It serves several important purposes, including protecting the tooth from sensitivity, maintaining aesthetics, and allowing the patient to function properly.
Indications for the placement of provisional coverage include situations where the prepared tooth or teeth are sensitive, where a long fabrication time is expected for the permanent restoration, where there is potential for aesthetic concerns, or where the tooth/teeth need to be protected during the healing phase after surgical procedures.
For example, if a patient undergoes root canal treatment, a provisional crown is often placed to protect the tooth until the final crown is ready. Similarly, if a patient receives a dental implant, a provisional bridge may be placed to provide a temporary solution while the implant integrates with the jaw bone.
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does a cross bridge in a sarcomere of a fast fiber produce the same amount of forces as a cross bridge in a sarcomere of a slow fiber?
Answer:
Cross bridge in a sarcomere of a fast fiber produce higher amounts of force as compared to a cross bridge in a sarcomere of a slow fiber
Explanation:
When a muscle contracts, a cross bridge is formed between actin and myosin. The sarcomere shortens when a muscle contracts by reforming cross bridge. In general a muscle fiber is of three types – a) slow, b) Fast and c) intermediate.
The sarcomere of fast fiber generates high force but for a short period of time. On the other hand, sarcomere of slow fiber generate lower amounts of force but this force lasts for a longer period of time. Due to this difference, fast fibers are the predominant fibers in the body
Drag the correct word from the left into the sentence on the right to complete each sentence. In anabolic reactions that involve the synthesis of a large molecule from smaller precursor molecules, NADH and ATP arewhen they provide the needed electrons or energy. consumed In catabolic reactions that involve the breakdown of a molecule into smaller subunits, such as glucose to pyruvate, NADH and ATP are produced synthesized In the reaction Pyruvate +NADH-Lactate +NAD, pyruvate is being oxidized In the reaction Pyruvate NADH-Lactate +NAD, NADH is being reduced
Answer:
The correct matches are:
In anabolic reactions that involve the synthesis of a large molecule from smaller precursor molecules, NADH and ATP are consumed when they provide the needed electrons or energy.In catabolic reactions that involve the breakdown of a molecule into smaller subunits, such as glucose to pyruvate, NADH and ATP are produced. In the reaction Pyruvate +NADH-Lactate +NAD, pyruvate is being reduced. In the reaction Pyruvate NADH-Lactate +NAD, NADH is being oxidized.Explanation:
Being involved in synthesis, anabolic reactions require energy in the form of energy storing molecules such as NADH and ATP. Anabolic processes utilize energy produced by the catabolism of complex compounds.Catabolic processes produce energy or energy storing compounds by breaking down complex substances into simpler ones. All steps of cellular respiration are catabolic processes since they generate energy in the form of ATP or energy yielding molecules such as NADH and FADH2.Anaerobic respiration takes place during intense physical activity due to which adequate oxygen does not reach the cells. Insufficient oxygen shuttles the pyruvate molecules produced by glycolysis into the lactic acid pathway that reduces pyruvate into lactic acid.Since, NADH is donating its H+, it is being oxidized to NAD+.Anabolic reactions involve the synthesis of large molecules, consuming NADH and ATP, while catabolic reactions break down large molecules producing NADH and ATP. In the reaction, Pyruvate + NADH to Lactate + NAD, pyruvate is being oxidized and NADH is being reduced.
Explanation:In anabolic reactions, large molecules are synthesized from smaller precursor molecules, during which NADH and ATP are consumed as they provide the necessary electrons or energy. A classic example of an anabolic process is the synthesis of proteins from amino acids. On the other hand, catabolic reactions involve the breakdown of a large molecule into smaller subunits. For example, glucose breaks down into pyruvate in a process where NADH and ATP are synthesized or produced.
In the reaction of Pyruvate + NADH -> Lactate + NAD, pyruvate is being oxidized and NADH is being reduced. In simpler terms, pyruvate loses electrons (and is thus oxidized), while NADH gains electrons (hence it is reduced).
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Dr. Jones says that she has a hypothetical explanation about the relationship between the ingestion of caffeine and the experience of anxiety. Which term would BEST describe Dr. Jones's hypothesis?
Answer:
Her hypothesis is a theory
Explanation:
A theory refers to an explanation or hypothesis that is intended to explain something based on the general principles independent of the thing being explained therefore it simply a speculation hence it is unsubstantiated.
Dr. Jones has hypothetical explanation but it has not been tested to determine the relationship between ingestion of caffeine and anxiety. So its is simply a speculation making his hypothesis theory.
_____ include biological processes such as puberty and menopause. They also include sociocultural and environmental processes such as beginning formal education and retirement.
Answer:
normative age-graded influences
Explanation:
Regulatory or normative influences according to age: Refers to influence according to chronological age. Normative means that it happens in most people in the same way. Thus, for example, most children are influenced by the school, around age 5, or during third childhood, most children are influenced by their group of friends of the same sex; during puberty and adolescence they receive influences that have to do with their evolutionary stage,.
Life transitions, such as puberty, menopause, starting school and retirement, are part of the question topic. These are significant changes in a person's life, encompassing biological, social, and environmental aspects of health and well-being.
Explanation:The subject of this question appears to be 'Life Transitions'. Life transitions include biological processes such as puberty and menopause, which are significant changes in a person's physical development. They also include sociocultural and environmental processes like starting to go to school (beginning formal education) and ending a career (retirement). These significant changes affect individuals' lives and their social identities, encompassing biological, social, and environmental aspects of health and well-being.
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Recall that Archaea and Bacteria used to be grouped in the same category. How were archaeons first distinguished from other prokaryotes?
Answer:
By difference in there ribosomal RNA sequence
Explanation:
Both bacteria and archaea lack membrane-bound nucleus and earlier both are considered in the same categories. Carl Woese was the scientist who discovered that bacteria and archaea are not similar.
Carl Woese and his lab members checked the ribosomal RNA in some archaeans and concluded that the archaeans are more closely related to eukaryotes than bacteria. After the study on archean Carl Woese classified the prokaryotes into two domains i.e., bacteria and archaea.
Therefore by difference in the ribosomal RNA sequence archaeons first distinguished from other prokaryotes.
They were distinguished from other prokaryotes through the differences in ribosomal RNA sequences.
• The cell wall composition varies between bacteria and archae. The archae are the single-celled prokaryotes that possess distinct molecular features, which separates them from bacteria and other prokaryotes.
• An American microbiologist named Carl Woese based on the analysis of ribosomal RNA suggested that prokaryotes in reality comprises two distinct lineages, that is, archae and bacteria.
• Carl Woese along with his colleagues examined the ribosomal RNA in some archaeans and discovered that archae are most closely associated with eukaryotes than to bacteria.
Thus, based on Carl Woese ribosomal RNA study experiments he suggested that archaeans vary from other prokaryotes.
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Which of the following is NOT a step used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells?
-Secretion of granzyme
-Recognition of infected host cell using its TCR
-Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein
-Secretion of perforin
Answer: Recognition of infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein
Explanation: Most cytotoxic T cells express T-cell receptors (TCRs) that can recognize a specific antigen on host cells. This is usually the first step in the destruction of infected host cells. This is followed by the release of two cytotoxic proteins that were earlier formed. First of which is the perforin which creates holes or pores in the membrane of target cells. Next comes the granzymes that induces cell death (apoptosis)
The step that cytotoxic T cells do not use to kill infected host cells is the recognition of infected cells using its CD4 glycoprotein. This is associated with helper T cells, not cytotoxic T cells which use TCR and CD8 protein for recognition. The cytotoxic T cells kill cells by secreting perforin and granzyme.
Explanation:The step that is NOT used by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected host cells is the recognition of the infected host cell using its CD4 glycoprotein. The CD4 glycoprotein is associated with helper T cells, not cytotoxic T cells. Cytotoxic T cells recognize infected cells using the T cell receptor (TCR) and CD8 protein, not the CD4 glycoprotein.
Once recognition has occurred, cytotoxic T cells kill infected cells by secreting special proteins known as perforin and granzyme. Perforin forms pores in the membrane of the infected cell and granzyme enters the cell through these pores, triggering the cell to undergo apoptosis (cell death).
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An F1 plant that is homozygous for shortness is crossed with a heterozygous F1 plant. What is the probability that a seed from the cross will produce a tall plant? use a Punnett square to explain your answer and to compare the probable variations in the F2 plants.
Answer:
1/2 or 50%
Explanation:
Let's assume that the allele "T" gives a "tall" phenotype while the allele "t" gives a "short" phenotype to the plants. The genotype of the homozygous short plants would be "tt". The genotype of the F1 heterozygous tall plant would be "Tt". A cross between "Tt" and "tt" would give progeny in following ratio=
Tt x tt = 1/2 tall (Tt): 1/2 short (tt)
Therefore, there is 1/2 or 50% chance that the seeds from the given cross produce a tall plant.
The probability that a seed from the cross will produce a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{1}{2}\)[/tex] or 50%.
Here is the Punnett square for the cross between the homozygous short (tt) plant and the heterozygous (Tt) plant:
Out of these four possible outcomes, three result in a tall plant (since tallness is dominant and only one tall allele is needed for the tall phenotype). Therefore, the probability of getting a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{3}{4}\).[/tex]
However, the question asks for the probability that a seed will produce a tall plant, which means we are looking for the proportion of tall genotypes in the offspring. Since heterozygous tall (Tt) and homozygous tall (TT) are both tall, we count all instances of Tt and TT. In this case, there are no TT offspring, so we only count the Tt offspring.
There are three Tt offspring out of four total offspring, so the probability of a seed producing a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{3}{4}\)[/tex] or 75%.
For the F2 generation, if we were to self-fertilize the heterozygous tall (Tt) plants from the F1 generation, we would expect the following Punnett square:
The expected phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation would be 1:2:1 for homozygous tall (TT), heterozygous tall (Tt), and homozygous short (tt), respectively. This is because there is one TT, two Tt, and one tt outcome in the Punnett square.
In summary, the probability that a seed from the cross between a homozygous short plant and a heterozygous plant will produce a tall plant is [tex]\(\frac{3}{4}\)[/tex] or 75%. The expected phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation from self-fertilizing the F1 heterozygous tall plants is 1:2:1 for TT:Tt:tt.
A mother asks the nurse how to swaddle her newborn because she heard that it helps infants calm down. Which statement will the nurse include in the teaching.
Answer:
The nurse should include the following;
Swaddling is the method of wrapping the baby in cloth e.g blanket, to create comfort, warmth, calmness and to make them feel secured.
Physiologically, peripheral cyanosis is common to new born hands and feets,This is because the baby's circulatory system is not fully developed.This old technique provides warmth for the limbs of the baby to maintain even distribution of heat energy in the body.
Other benefits of Swaddling
It induces sleep in babies
It reduces startle reflex, because baby’s limbs are rap up and immobile therefore no free movement which may promote startle reflex.
How to swaddle a baby
The blanket should be spread out in diamond shape, A corner of the blanket should point upwards, while the top corner should be folded down to the short height of 6 inches.
The baby should be placed in supine position, with the head on the folded top corner, while the remaining body parts occupies the full length of the blanket.
The left side of the blanket should be wrapped over the left arm and chest. while the other part of the blanket should be inserted under the right arm and back . This leaves the baby’s right arm free.
Risk.
The wrapping should not be tight. Enough rooms should be given to the limbs of the baby to allow bending of the limbs. Baby should be able to bend her legs up and stretch out of the hip
.
Explanation:
The purpose of swaddling a newborn is to provide comfort, security, and promote better sleep by mimicking the womb environment.
Comfort: Swaddling provides a sense of security and comfort to newborns. It recreates the feeling of being in the womb, where they were confined and cozy. This can help reduce anxiety and calm a fussy baby.
Reduced Startle Reflex: Newborns have a strong startle reflex that can wake them up from sleep. Swaddling restricts their arm movement, reducing this reflex and allowing for longer, uninterrupted sleep.
Better Sleep: Swaddling can contribute to longer and more restful sleep for both the baby and parents. Babies tend to sleep better when they feel secure and cozy, which can help establish a more predictable sleep pattern.
Safety: When done correctly, swaddling can help keep loose blankets away from the baby's face, reducing the risk of suffocation. It also prevents the baby from accidentally scratching their face.
Thermal Comfort: Swaddling provides a sense of security and comfort to newborns. It recreates the feeling of being in the womb, where they were confined and cozy. This can help reduce anxiety and calm a fussy baby.
It's important to note that while swaddling has its benefits, it must be done safely. The swaddle should allow for hip movement to prevent hip dysplasia, and the baby should be placed on their back to sleep to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).
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Question
What is the purpose of swaddling a newborn?
Cellular slime molds live as individual amoeboid cells when food is plentiful. When food decreases, the cells may come together by the thousand in a form called a slug. This slug possesses cells called sentinel cells, which display a primitive immune function because they Group of answer choices
1. circulate through the slug, engulfing bacteria.
2. inserting spikes into bacteria, causing lysis of the bacteria.
3. will produce antibodies in the presence of a virus.
4. release signal molecules similar to cytokines.
Answer:
1. circulate through the slug, engulfing bacteria
Explanation:
A sentinel cell is a cell of the immune system that is in charge of "eating" any kind of parasite in the body. In this case, it circulates through the slug and whenever it sees a bacterium, virus or foreign object, the sentinel cell engulfs it immediately.
Once the sentinel cell has eaten the bacterium, it produces several enzymes and substances that degrade the bacterium.
What is the abbreviation for an inherited disease characterized by large, fluid-filled cysts that grow within the kidneys and press against kidney tissue?
Answer:
PKD- Polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is an inherited disease in which there is a structural abnormality of the renal tubules of the kidney which results in the formation and the growth of multiple large, fluid-filled cysts in the kidneys. The effect of this disease can be shown at any stage of the development, be it during the infancy or adult stage or in utero. These cysts are nothing but the renal tubules that have become nonfunctional and are filled with fluid.The disease can manifest itself in either autosomal recessive or dominant form and it involves mutations in the genes such as PKD2, PKD1, etc.What would happen to the electron transport system (ETS) and oxidative phosphorylation pathway in the presence of excess NADH if the mitochondrial matrix were not closed, but opened up to the cytoplasm?
Answer:
ETS: It would function normally and would oxidize NADH into NAD+
Oxidative phosphorylation: It would not synthesize ATP
Explanation:
Under normal conditions, the inner mitochondrial membrane does not allow the protons to cross it. As electrons are passed from NADH to the electron carriers of ETC, the protons are pumped into the intermembrane space. This makes the intermembrane space more acidic and has a higher concentration of protons than the matrix. The resultant proton concentration gradient is used to drive ATP synthesis.
If the matrix was opened up to cytoplasm, NADH would be oxidized normally by giving its electrons to the molecular oxygen. However, the proton concentration gradient would be dissipated due to the diffusion of protons towards the cytoplasm. It would not allow ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation.
Shane, an 11-year-old boy, has autism spectrum disorder (ASD). His fraternal twin brother, Topher, is at higher risk for having ASD than would be the case if Topher were just a sibling. Why is that so?
Answer:
Genetic and Environmental Factors
Explanation:
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a developmental disorder that affects how a person behaves, interacts with others and learns.
Studies have found that when one identical twin has ASD, chances are extremely likely that the other twin has it, too.
Genetic and environmental factors are connected. Environmental factors includes such influences as parental age at conception, maternal nutrition, infection during pregnancy and premature.
For example, genetically, fraternal twins share about half of their genes. Because these twins shared a womb, they are more likely to have had the same environmental influences than non-twin siblings.
Topher is at higher risk of having ASD because he's a fraternal twin of Shane who has ASD. Fraternal twins share more genetic material than non-twin siblings. There is a known genetic factor in ASD, hence, a higher risk.
Explanation:Topher, being a fraternal twin to Shane who has autism spectrum disorder (ASD), has a higher risk of also having the disorder compared to if he were just a sibling. This is because genetics play a significant role in the development of ASD. While fraternal twins do not share exact genetic information as identical twins do, they still share a larger proportion of their genetic materials than siblings who are not twins.
Studies show that if one twin has ASD, the other twin--though not identical--has a 31% chance of also having ASD, compared to about 3-14% for non-twin siblings. This demonstrates the combination of genetic factors and shared environmental influences in the development of ASD.
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A nursing student has begun a clinical placement at a large hospital that serves a diverse population. The student has consequently acquired a new appreciation for the fact that nursing combines art with science. What is the clearest manifestation of the scientific basis for nursing
Answer:
Answer is Providing evidence - based nursing care.
Explanation:
It should be note noted that, the development of an accumulating body of unique scientific knowledge, which makes it easier to predict the specific nursing interventions that are most likely to produce the expected or desired result, is referred to as the evidence-based practice.
It should be understood that the process of participating in continuing education and mentoring are important and beneficial, but ,they are not considered as the direct manifestation of the scientific basis for nursing.
The evidence-based practice is made possible due to the scientific basis that underlies nursing.
Describe the means by which Hershey and Chase established that only the DNA of a phage enters an E. coli cell. What conclusions did these scientists draw based on these observations?
Answer:
Harshey and chase labeled T2 bacteriophage with radioactive sulfur and radioactive phosphorus. As DNA contains phosphorus, not protein and protein contain sulfur, not phosphorus, therefore, the presence of radioactivity in cell can determine which is the genetic material .
Then Harshey and Chase infected E.coli with T2 bacteriophage and centrifuged the cell. They found radioactive phosphorus in cell pellet and radioactive sulfur in supernatant.
So by this experiment, they concluded and proved that DNA is the genetic material that gets transfer from one generation to another.
What are the weakest of all scientific findings? Group of answer choices Case studies Correlational studies Experimental studies Epidemiological studies
Answer:
The weakest of all scientific findings are given by case studies.
Explanation:
Case studies are observational or descriptive studies focalized on the analysis of a particular object (an individual, place, event, etc.) in a specific situation. Beacuse of its descriptive nature, it does not provides information about cause-effect relationships and does not consider the effect of random variations. It is the weakest of all scientific findings.
Correlational studies involves measurements of at least two different variables and try to identify if there is a specific relationship between variables, it means if there is a specific trend in the variation of one variable as a response to the variation in the other one (for example, when the temperature of a given solution increases, the solubility of the solute also increase). Although this kind of studies does not provides information about cause relationships, the trend between variables are well stated.
Experimental studies are the ones in which a researcher makes sure of providing a controled environment and manipulates a particular variable to see responses of one or more different variables. These studies provides well supported information.
Epidemiological studies the purpose to analyze all the factors involved in an epidemic (causes, incidence, evolution, etc.). It includes observational and experimental studies that complement each other. Because of the importance of these reasearch on public health, their scientific findings are well stablished and supported.
Summarizing, the weakest of all scientific findings are provided by case studies.
The weakest type of scientific findings are [Option A] case studies. They provide detailed information on a single instance or small group but lack generalizability.
In the realm of scientific studies, different designs have varying degrees of strength. Among the options given:
Case studies are considered the weakest. They focus on a single instance or a small group of subjects, providing detailed information but lacking generalizability.Correlational studies identify associations between variables but cannot establish causation.Experimental studies manipulate variables to determine causative effects, offering the strongest evidence when well-designed.Epidemiological studies can be either observational or experimental, with observational studies generally being less strong due to potential biases.Complete question:
what are the weakest of all scientific findings? Group of answer choices
A. Case studies
B. Correlational studies
C. Experimental studies
D. Epidemiological studies
An important technique that helps provide insight into interesting genetic questions at the molecular level, such as reasons for hairless dogs, is called _____.
Answer:
DNA sequencing
Explanation:
DNA sequencing is a technique which helps in determining the DNA sequence of any organism. In the human genome project, all the bases that make DNA in humans are sequenced which helped doctors to determine the cause of many genetic diseases and also their treatment.
Hairlessness in dogs can be genetic and the mutated gene can be determined by sequencing the DNA of hairless dog and comparing it with the normal DNA sequence of dog. Therefore the correct answer is DNA sequencing.
It has been discovered that many plants synthesize molecules that destroy the corpora allata, which are the structures responsible for synthesis of juvenile hormone. Insects exposed to these molecules do not molt. Which statement reflects how levels of juvenile hormone disrupt the insect life cycle?
A) Reduced juvenile hormone prevents molting.
B) Exposure to juvenile hormone prevents the larvae from developing into adult insects.
C) Reduced juvenile hormone causes insects to molt prematurely into sterile adults.
D) Exposure to juvenile hormone causes juvenile insects to die.
Answer:
B) Exposure to juvenile hormone prevents the larvae from developing into adult insects.
Explanation:
Given that, Plants synthesize(i.e plant produce a combination of elements) molecules that destroy the corpora allata. The corpora allata are structure responsible for synthesis (production) of Juvenile hormone.
This implies that, Plant produces molecules that destroy the structure responsible for the production of Juvenile hormone.
If we proceed, the question continues by saying Insect exposed to these molecules do not molt.(i.e insect exposed to these molecule do not change in growth)
What is molting?
Molting often called (ecdysis) is the phase of growth and development in insect that comprises of two main activities which are shedding and replacement of their culticular exoskeleton layer in order to make way for new growth and new stage of an insect.
Therefore from the aforementioned, the best statement that reflects how levels of juvenile hormones disrupt the insect liffe cycle is that : Exposure to juvenile hormone prevents the larvae from developing into adult insects.
A pea plant that comes from a line of true breeding tall plants is crossed with a dwarf pea plant. What are the phenotypes and genotypes of the F1 generation?
Answer:
All F1 progeny will be heterozygous(Tt) for tall character.
Explanation:
Ifpea plant that comes from a line of true-breeding tall plants than the genotype of the plant would be TT and when this plant is crossed with dwarf plant who have genotype tt for height trait then all the progeny will be tall phenotypically because all the phenotype would be heterozygous.
T T
t Tt Tt
t Tt Tt
So the genotype of all F1 generation offspring would be Tt and phenotype would be tall because all have one dominant allele of tall character.
The F1 generation from a cross between a true breeding tall pea plant and a dwarf pea plant will have a 100% tall phenotype, with genotypes being heterozygous (Tt). This is due to the dominant nature of the tall allele.
When a pea plant from a line of true breeding tall plants is crossed with a dwarf pea plant, the F1 generation will display the tall phenotype, because tallness is a dominant trait. True breeding plants have two copies of the same allele, so the tall plant is homozygous dominant (TT), and the dwarf plant is homozygous recessive (tt). When these two are crossed, all F1 offspring will have a heterozygous genotype (Tt) and display the tall phenotype.
To illustrate this, a Punnett square could be utilised. The square would show all possible genotypes of the offspring from the cross, indicating that they would all inherit one dominant allele for height from the tall parent and one recessive allele from the dwarf parent, resulting in genotypes of Tt.
Hence, the genotypes of the F1 generation will be 100% heterozygous for the tall trait (Tt), and the phenotypes will be 100% tall, because the presence of at least one dominant allele (T) results in the tall phenotype.
Which of the following organs is least likely to be damaged in an automobile accident? a. stomach b. intestines c. urinary d. bladder e. liver
In an automobile accident there is so much damage to the body but the least damage to the Urinary bladder.
The correct option is the Urinary bladder that is least damaged in an automobile accident because it's protected in the pelvic cavity in the 2 hip bones.
Automobile accident-
Whether someone suffers an impact injury or a penetrating injury, the organs that are most frequently damaged in car crashes include Spleen.
The spleen is a commonly injured organ due to its position in the abdomen—under the left rib cage near the stomach.
Thus, the chances of the least damaged organ in an automobile accident is the Urinary bladder option C, protected by a pelvic cavity.
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In defining a disease to be studied, epidemiologists use the term disease broadly, but ___________ is a more accurate but cumbersome description of what is to be studied.
Answer: Health outcomes
Explanation:
Health outcome can be defined as the events that occurs after an intervention or care, these events can be measured clinically by physical examination, laboratory testing and imaging; self reported or observed.
Health outcomes are defined as changes in health of an individual or a group of individuals that result from specific healthcare interventions. Example of health outcome is improvement in a patient's eye sight after a cataract surgery.
Because oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, the water molecule and the covalent bonds that form it are described as __________.
Answer:
Polar/ Hydrophilic
Explanation:
Electronegative atoms is the tendency of an element to attract a pair of electrons to itself.
Since water, H2O is composed of H+ and O2-, oxygen os the most electronegative element and this is because of it incomplete outer shell i.e valence electron is 6 (4 electrons in its p- orbital) and so it needs a pair of electrons to become stable, hence its high affinity for electrons.
Hydrogen on the other hand cannot lose its only electron and it has one electron in its s orbital. So there is sharing of these electrons, hence the definition of covalent bond.
A polar covalent bond is formed because the electronegativity difference between Oxygen a d Hydrogen is not negligible.
In terms of generating a depolarizing or hyperpolarizing graded potential on a postsynaptic cell, what do you think will be the most important factor?
Answer:
The type of ion channel opened will be the most important factor.
Explanation:
At certain occasions a given neurotransmitter can combine with a K+ chemically gated channel and at certain occasions the same neurotransmitter can combine with a Na+ chemically gated channel. Thus, the same neurotransmitter can produce depolarization if it opens the Na+ channel and a hyper-polarization if it opens the K+ channel.
In these situations, the structural make-up and sensitivity of the postsynaptic cell really determines if the neurotransmitter will inhibit (depolarize) or excite (depolarize) the postsynaptic cell. It is more essential to know the kind of channel, which opens than the particular identity of the neurotransmitter.
The type of neurotransmitter and its corresponding receptor protein on the postsynaptic cell are crucial elements in determining a depolarizing or hyperpolarizing graded potential. Depolarizing potentials occur when excitatory neurotransmitters trigger an influx of positive ions, while hyperpolarizing occurs when inhibitory neurotransmitters lead to an outflow of positive ions or an influx of negative ions.
Explanation:The most important factor in generating a depolarizing or hyperpolarizing graded potential on a postsynaptic cell is the type and action of the neurotransmitter and the specific receptor protein on the postsynaptic cell.
Depolarizing graded potentials occurs when excitatory neurotransmitters, such as acetylcholine, bind to certain receptors, leading to an influx of positive ions into the cell. This is called an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) because it makes the membrane potential move toward the threshold, making the neuron more likely to fire an action potential.
Conversely, hyperpolarizing graded potentials occur when inhibitory neurotransmitters bind to their respective receptors, causing an outflow of positive ions or an influx of negative ions, making the neuron less likely to fire. This is known as an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).
Therefore, the interaction between the neurotransmitter and its receptor is key in determining whether a graded potential will be depolarizing or hyperpolarizing.
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Which of the following structural arrangements of the components in biological membranes facilitates the cell membrane's property of selective permeability?
Answer:
The correct answer is- proteins embedded into two layers of phospholipids
Explanation:
The plasma membrane is a mosaic of many components like phospholipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and cholesterol. This mosaic nature of cell membrane gives a fluid character to the membrane.
So due to this fluidity, the proteins present in the membrane can do movements like flip flop which helps in the movement of molecules across the membrane.
These proteins are called transporter which gives the property of selective permeability to the cell membrane because they bind specifically to some molecules and allow them to cross the cell membrane.
After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known asA) rigor mortis.B) tetany.C) treppe.D) oxygen debt.E) depolarization.
Answer:
A) rigor mortis
Explanation:
Rigor mortis is the condition of the partial contraction of muscles when the muscles cannot contract or stretch. It occurs after death as the ATP supply to muscle cells stops. The leaky cellular membranes results in leakage of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. The presence of calcium in sarcoplasm triggers the binding of myosin heads to actin. The myosin heads remain attached to actin and muscles are prevented to be relaxed.
A new antibiotic is produced that inhibits the synthesis of acetyl-CoA and the electron transport chain in bacteria that normally require oxygen. For each glucose molecule that is metabolized, how many fewer ATP molecules will be produced?
A new antibiotic is produced that inhibits the synthesis of acetyl-CoA and the electron transport chain in bacteria that normally require oxygen. For each glucose molecule that is metabolized, how many fewer ATP molecules will be produced?
38
4
36
34
2
Answer:
36
Explanation:
Glycolysis of cellular respiration produces only two molecules of ATP per glucose molecule. Kreb's cycle also forms 2 ATP molecules per glucose by substrate-level phosphorylation. However, oxidation of NADH and FADH2 by electron transport chain produces as many as 34 ATP molecules (almost 3 ATP per NADH and 2 ATP per FADH2). This obtains a total of 38 ATP molecules per glucose by the complete pathway of aerobic cellular respiration.
In presence of an antibiotic that inhibits Kreb's cycle and ETC of cellular respiration, a cell would produce only 2 ATP molecules (by glycolysis) per glucose. Therefore, it would obtain 38-2= 36 lesser ATP molecules.
You are called for a young man who was diving head first off a dock into a lake. Bystanders say he struck his head on the bottom because the water was too shallow. They said he was not breathing when they pulled him from the water and they have been performing rescue breathing for him. He is awake, but he is unable to breathe on his own. What type of damage or injury does this indicate?
A. Closed head injuryB. Open head injuryC. Damage to C3, C4, or C5D. Damage to his thoracic spine
Answer:
Answer is C. Damage to C3, C4 or C5.
Explanation:
C1 - C7 are used to represent the number of vertebrae found at the cervical region of the vertebrae canal or column. The vertebrae column comprises off various vertebrae that protect the spinal cord,which starts from the neck region to the tail region.
The C3, C4 and C5 are at the midsection of the cervical region of the spine , and they provide support for the neck and the head.
These vertebrae contain nerves which if affected will cause a serious pain. which can actually affect his breathing. Because, the spinal nerves around the spinal cord are linked to the brain.
Match the following.
1 . chromosome The basic building block of all forms of life
2 . chloroplast The rigid wall of plant cells that surrounds the cell membrane
3 . nucleus The tiny body that contains chlorophyll
4 . vacuole Carries the genes or inheritance units of a cell
5 . membrane A protein and fat structure serving as a covering and enclosure for a cell
6 . protoplast The protoplasmic substance separate from the cytoplasm
7 . cell wall The organic substance making up the cells of all living things
8 . cell The protoplasmic unit of a cell
9 . protoplasm A cell storage body that increases in size with age
Answer:
The answer to your question is below
Explanation:
1 . Chromosome Carries the genes or inheritance units of a cell
2 . Chloroplast The tiny body that contains chlorophyll
3 . Nucleus The protoplasmic unit of a cell
4 . Vacuole A cell storage body that increases in size with age
5 . Membrane A protein and fat structure serving as a covering and enclosure for a cell
6 . Protoplast The protoplasmic substance separate from the cytoplasm
7 . Cell wall The rigid wall of plant cells that surrounds the cell membrane
8 . Cell The basic building block of all forms of life
9 . Protoplasm The organic substance making up the cells of all living things
1. Cell - The basic building block of all forms of life
2. Cell Wall - The rigid wall of plant cells that surrounds the cell membrane
3. Chloroplast - The tiny body that contains chlorophyll
4. Chromosome - Carries the genes or inheritance units of a cell
5. Membrane - A protein and fat structure serving as a covering and enclosure for a cell
6. Nucleus - The protoplasmic substance separate from the cytoplasm
7. Protoplasm - The organic substance making up the cells of all living things
8. Protoplast - The protoplasmic unit of a cell
9. Vacuole - A cell storage body that increases in size with age