In tilman's experiments with diatoms, what was the outcome when the two species competed for silica?

Answers

Answer 1
When two different species are competing for a resource in a contained situation, the result is the extinction of the one species or the other.

Related Questions

To locate the epicenter of an earthquake a seismologist must determine all of the following except

A The difference in the arrival times in the p and S waves
B seismograph data from the locations
C the distance from the epicenter to three different seismograph locations
D the intensity of the earthquake

Answers

The answer is B. Seismograph data from the locations
Hoped this helped
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Answer: i think the answer is actuly D

Explanation: because u dont need to know how intence the earthquake is

hope this helps

Biological rhythms that occur on a daily basis are called _____ rhythms.

Answers

Answer:  "circadian" .
_____________________________________________

Why would removing eosin y and/or methylene blue from emb agar alter the medium's sensitivity or specificity/?

Answers

EMB agar is a selective medium for gram negative bacteria. It is a selective and differential medium for coliform. EMB agar contain eosin which is toxic to gram positive bacteria; the function of eosin is to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria and to react with lactose fermenter.
Eosin thus customize EMB agar for gram negative bacteria and removing it from the agar will alter the medium sensitivity.

Cellular (aerobic) respiration takes place in the presence of and with the use of which o the following?

water

carbon dioxide

oxygen

sunlight

Answers

In the presence of oxygen

Cellular (aerobic) respiration takes place in the presence of and with the use of the following: oxygen.

Cellular respiration is the process that converts stored food or glucose into energy called ATP with carbon dioxide and H2O as byproducts. Cellular respiration is either aerobic or anaerobic respiration.

Aerobic respiration is divided into three main stages: Glycolysis, the Citric acid cycle, and electron transport chain.Oxygen is needed to help the process of turning glucose into ATP. The initial step releases just two molecules of ATP for each glucose.The later steps release much more ATP.Most of the reactions of cellular respiration are carried out in the mitochondria.

Thus, Cellular (aerobic) respiration takes place in the presence of and with the use of the following: oxygen.

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Which of these is an advantage of using wind as a source of energy? A. Wind energy doesn't pollute the air.
B. Wind turbines take up a lot of space.
C. Wind turbines can produce noise pollution.
D. Wind turbines can harm local wildlife, such as birds.

Answers

the answer to this question is A, as it states the positive effect of wind energy on the environment. 

Answer: A. Wind energy doesn't pollute the air.

Explanation:

Wind energy is a renewable source of energy due to abundance of wind in the atmosphere. The wind energy is harnessed by high speed wind currents used to run the wind turbine. The turbine convert the wind energy into electrical energy.

The wind energy does not generate pollutants like the energy generated by conventional fuels like fossil fuels.

A car has positive acceleration. what information can you infer from this? A. The car is changing direction B. The car is speeding up in the same direction as it traveling C. The car is slowing down is down and changing he direction it is traveling D. The car is slowing down

Answers

B
because velocity talks about the speed and direction of an object


Answer:

The correct answer is option B. "The car is speeding up in the same direction as it traveling".

Explanation:

A positive acceleration is defined as change of velocity upwards the direction that the object has taken. Therefore, a car having a positive acceleration means that the car is speeding up in the same direction as it traveling. Basically, after a positive acceleration, the car is traveling faster in the same direction that it was before.

"1. what can be done to motivate companies to evaluate training programs"

Answers

as well as the five major categories of outcomes that can be measured to evaluate training effectiveness. The five outcomes (cognitive, skill-based, affective, results, and ROI) used in evaluating training programs were explained. Good training outcomes need to be relevant, reliable, discriminate, and practical. Next, threats to both internal and external validity were discussed. Various evaluation designs were explained with an emphasis on related costs, time, and strength. Return on Investment (ROI) and cost-benefit analysis were explained, and examples given. The chapter concluded with a listing of key terms, discussion questions,The company’s management would need to be made aware of the investment made by the company for the training and the need to summatively evaluate it to determine if the training program is effective, and formatively evaluate it to identify its strengths and weaknesses to better accomplish training. Evaluation is vital to improving a training program, or deciding whether to replace it completely with a better program or a non-training option. (p. 217-218) 2. What do threats to validity have to do with training evaluation? Identify internal and external threats to validity. Are internal and external threats similar? Explain. Answer: If threats to validity exist, the evaluator may question whether a training program was really effective or if possible benefits were the result of other factors. Internal threats to validity affect the believability of the study, while threats to the external validity affect the believability of the program’s benefits for future use. Characteristics of the company, the outcome measures, and the persons in the evaluation study are the internal threats to validity. Reaction to pretest, reaction to evaluation, interaction of selection and training, and interaction of methods are the external threats to validity. Internal and external threats are not similar. Threats to external validity relate to how study participants react to being included in the study and the effects of multiple types of training, whereas internal validity provides confidence that the results of the evaluation are due to the training program and not to another factor. (p. 232) 3. What are the strengths and weaknesses of each of the following designs: posttest-only, pretest/posttest comparison group, pretest/posttest only? Answer: 6-9

How do biological organisms use energy worksheet answer key?

Answers

First, chemical energy from organic molecules is used to make ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) in cellular respiration, after which ATP provides energy for biological processes.

Answer:

Organisms use energy in two steps:

Conversion of food into adenosine triphosphate (ATP):

Organisms harness the chemical energy of the food and convert it into more usable for that is, ATP. The set of chemical reactions involved in this process is termed as cellular respiration. It may include glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation.

ATP hydrolysis:

Organisms use the energy associated with ATP through a hydrolysis reaction. The hydrolysis of ATP releases ADP, Pi,  and energy. ADP is further hydrolyzed to produce AMP, Pi, and energy.

During emerging adulthood, all body systems _____. function optimally age rapidly cease developing begin to develop

Answers

function optimally

Emerging adulthood covers the age between 18 to 25 years old. During this stage of development, 68.4% of young adults reported that their physical health was either very good or excellent, and oftentimes, childhood ailments, such as asthma, are outgrown. Because body systems function optimally at this stage, it is an ideal time for physical work and successful reproduction. 

Bone marrow transplant taken from a donor and infused through the central vein is coded to what icd-10-pcs code

Answers

The ICD-10-PCS code is 30240G4.

Firstly, select "Administration" (section 3) because the procedure is the administration of bone marrow to the patient. Secondly, select "Circulatory" (section 30) because it is being administered in a vein (circulatory system). Third, select "Transfusion" (section 302) because it is being done a transfusion of bone marrow. Then select "Central Vein" (section 3024) because that's the place of administration in the circulatory system. Lastly, go to "Bone Marrow" (section 30240G) as that is what's being transfused and then choose "Transfusion of Allogeneic Unspecified Bone Marrow into Central Vein, Open Approach" (30240G4) because it is not specified what type of transfusion it is.
Final answer:

A bone marrow transplant is coded in the ICD-10-PCS with a specific seven-character alphanumeric code, which should be referred to in the ICD-10-PCS manual. The code varies depending on procedure details but ensures matching of donor and recipient to avoid GVHD.

Explanation:

The ICD-10-PCS (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Procedure Coding System) code for a bone marrow transplant taken from a donor and infused through the central vein involves a specific code that identifies the type of procedure. During the procedure, it is crucial to have a matching donor to prevent tissue rejection and minimize the risk of Graft-versus-Host Disease (GVHD). After a matching donor is found, the patient's own bone marrow is destroyed through radiation and/or chemotherapy, followed by the intravenous infusion of donor bone marrow stem cells. These stem cells then colonize the recipient's bone marrow to restore its function.

Based on the information provided, it seems like the index terms provided do not directly correlate with a specific ICD-10-PCS code. For the purposes of coding, one would need to refer to the ICD-10-PCS code manual to locate the precise procedure code, which is typically a seven-character alphanumeric code. The provided terms such as bone marrow transplant (792, 794) could refer to the index of a coding manual but not the exact code itself that should be used.

A client with schizoaffective disorder is engaging in an extremely long conversation about a current affairs in the world. the client goes on to provide the nurse with minute details. the nurse interprets this as suggesting what?

Answers

Depending on the contents of the conversation it could mean a variety of things. If the client is interpreting world affairs correctly he is unlikely to be having a schizophrenic episode. However, if his interpretation is out of the norm, or intently self-focused it is likely that they are having an episode. This may also be indicative of how their medicine is working and if they are taking it.

Lancelets display how many of the four major characteristics of the phylum chordata? 1 2 3 4 next

Answers

The lancelets consist of approximately 32 types of fish-like maritime chordates in the order of Amphioxiformes, with an international dissemination in tropical seas and low temperate, they are commonly found half-buried in sand.  The lancelets show 4 of the major characteristics of the phylum chordata.

 

Which immune cells are disrupted when a child is infected with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv)?

Answers

The cells that are disrupted are the CD4+ cells

Which organelles' function is primarily locomotion?

Answers

Flagellum is organelle primarily for locomotion.
Final answer:

The main organelles linked with cell locomotion are flagella and cilia. They are found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, with structural differences. Other contributing organelles include pseudopodia in amoeba and flagellum in Euglena.

Explanation:

The primary organelles associated with locomotion, or movement within cells, are flagella and cilia. These organelles are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, though their structures are distinct. In eukaryotic cells, the flagellum resembles a flexible whip and is made up of nine parallel pairs of microtubules surrounding two central ones, which are arranged in a 9+2 array. The cilia are similar to flagella but shorter and can be used for locomotion, feeding, or the movement of extracellular particles.

Other organelles that contribute to locomotion include pseudopodia in amoeba, which are lobe-like extensions used to anchor the cell to a surface and pull it forward, and the whip-like flagellum in Euglena.

It's important to note that these organelles not only enable the cells to move independently, they also help maintain the cell's shape, secure other organelles in specific positions, and allow the cytoplasm and vesicles to move within the cell.

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Reef producing coral are called _______.

Answers

the answer is hermatypic

The spinal cord ends between the first and second lumbar vertebrae. this area is called the:

Answers

The spinal cord ends between the first and second lumbar vertebrae. This area is called the conus medullaris.
In English, this term is translated as 'medullary cone.' It is the lower part of the spinal cord, which is a gathering of nervous tissue and support cells. 

Which of the following statements about mining is true?
a). Mining has no long-term effects on the Earth.
b). Mining is unimportant to the economy.
c). Mining has no ecological impact.
d). Mining allows useful minerals to be extracted from the Earth.

Answers

The answer is D. Mining allows useful minerals to be extracted from the Earth.

Answer: d). Mining allows useful minerals to be extracted from the Earth.

Explanation:

Mining is a process of extraction of useful minerals from the surface, subsurface and deep regions of the earth which are of economic importance. The mining involves the formation of a huge crator on the land and underwater regions which takes long time to recover. It exerts a drastic ecological impact that is it destroys the habitat of plants and animals. The soil of the mining site becomes infertile.

On the basis of above information, d. Mining allows useful minerals to be extracted from the Earth is the correct option.

What is occurring in the endocrine system during a "fight or flight" response?

Release of adrenaline by the adrenal glands
Release of cortisol by the adrenal glands
Release of adrenaline by the gonads
Release of cortisol by the gonads

Answers

You're answer would be A. Release of adrenaline by the adrenal glands.

Answer:

Release of adrenaline by the adrenal glands.

Explanation:

Adrenaline hormone also known as epinephrine is an important part of sympathetic nervous system. It is released from adrenal medulla through a sequence of events in a situation of "fight or flight" or we can say in a life threatening situation. This hormone causes our muscles to perform vigorous activities so that body could respond accordingly. Chemically adrenaline hormone is synthesized by using "tyrosine" as a precursor which after a series of enzymatic actions gets converted into L-dopa and then dopamine then nor-adrenaline and finally into adrenaline.

Which body of water is home to the ENSO cycle?

Answers

equatorial Pacific Ocean


The correct answer is equatorial pacific ocean.

Equatorial pacific ocean is a body of water is home to the ENSO cycle.

ENSO cycle refers to southern Oscillation or El Nino. The interaction which occurs between ocean and atmosphere in tropical pacific results to periodic differences.

The three phases of ENSO include La nina, El Nino and neutral phase. ENSO lasts for nine to twelve months. They mostly develop on March to June and weaken on May to July.

ENSO is caused when atmospheric pressure across the pacific of equatorial.

The only cells in the body that produce leptin are _______ cells.

Answers

Red blood cells or white blood celss

What occurs when an earthquake causes a sudden vertical change in the sea floor? a. isostasy b. soil creep c. sheet erosion d. a tsunami


apex D. a tsunami

Answers

D. A Tsunami would occur

Answer: d. Tsunami

A tsunami is a natural disaster in which high speed waves generate in the ocean due to the gravitational force exerted by the moon on the water of the ocean resulting in flood. But these may also occur because of the underwater earthquakes, landslides and volcanic eruptions. All these events causes changes in the sea floor.

Therefore, tsunami will occur when an earthquake causes a sudden vertical change in the sea floor.  

A child is admitted in the clinic with nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypophosphatemia, and glycosuria. after talking to the parents, the nurse learns that they are painting the house. what can the nurse deduce from the symptoms? the child is suffering from:

Answers

From the symptoms, the nurse can deduce from the symptoms that the child has a reaction to lead or an allergy.It is also possible that the child suffers from Crohn's disease, which is triggered by a variety of environmental elements.

Approximately 80 percent of the illicit drugs smuggled into the united states are interdicted (stopped) at the border.
a. True
b. False

Answers

I would say false

Approximately 80 percent of drugs smuggled into the border are from mexico so that's probably where they get the '80%' from. 

The main hazard from a quiet volcanic eruption is a. volcanic gases. b. lava flows. c. geysers. d. pyroclastic flows.   Please select the best answer from the choices provided

Answers

The answer is B) lava flows 
Final answer:

The main hazards from a quiet volcanic eruption are volcanic gases and lava flows. These can have substantial long-term effects on the atmosphere, climate, and terrestrial landscapes. Explosive phenomena like geysers and pyroclastic flows are more characteristic of violent eruptions.

Explanation:

The main hazard from a quiet volcanic eruption is not geysers or pyroclastic flows, as these usually occur in explosive eruptions. Instead, the primary dangers are a. volcanic gases and b. lava flows. Volcanic gases, such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulfur dioxide, are released massive quantities during eruptions. These gases can have long-term effects on the atmosphere and climate. Furthermore, even quiet eruptions can produce enormous amounts of lava. Lava flows can spread rapidly from long cracks during an eruption, forming vast lava plains, like those that exist on the Moon and some of the other terrestrial planets. These flows can cover large areas, causing significant harm to human settlements and ecosystems.

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WILL GIVE A BRANILEST



What do organisms experience because of growing populations?


complex stability


increased competition


rapid maturation


heightened enrichment

Answers

The answer is increased competition.

Answer:

Increased competition

Explanation:

What is required for reactants to form bonds?

Answers

Bond making is generally an Endothermic reaction so input energy would be required to make a reactants bond.

Answer:

energy input

Explanation:

Chemical reactions are the result of the transformation that takes place in substances (the reactants), where atoms rearrange themselves to their initial state, transforming them into what we call "resultants." Thus, chemical compounds undergo changes generating new molecules. For the reaction to occur it is necessary that there is already an energy input during the handling of the reagents. This energy will be used to rearrange the reagent atoms.

one of the effects of hurricane Katrina, which devastated new orleans in 2005 was the death of almost all of the plants in flooded areas. initially, toxic chemicals and bacteria were suspected as a possible cause. Scientist later determined that the salt concentration in the floodwater caused the plants to die. The death of the plants was most likely due to? A. water moving into plant cells from the surrounding environment. B. Water moving out of plant cells into the surrounding environment.
C. both water and salt moving from plant cells into the surrounding environment.
D. both water and salt moving into plant cells from the surrounding environment.

Answers

 B. Water moving out of plant cells into the surrounding environment is the cause of the plants death in flooded areas in New Orleans in 2005 because of the hurricane Katrina. Since the floodwater has a salt concentration that penetrates into the plant cells.




Final answer:

The plants in the flooded areas of New Orleans died after Hurricane Katrina in 2005 due to the high salt concentration in the floodwaters. This caused water to move out of the plant cells (plasmolysis) leading to dehydration and death.

Explanation:

The death of the plants in the flooded areas of New Orleans after Hurricane Katrina in 2005 was most likely due to B: Water moving out of plant cells into the surrounding environment. This effect is largely related to the concept of osmosis. Essentially, the high salt concentration in the floodwaters created a hypertonic environment, causing the water in the plant cells to move out towards the saltier environment in a bid to balance the concentration. This process, known as plasmolysis, results in dehydration and ultimately the death of the plant.

Furthermore, some plant species, known as halophytes, can tolerate such salty conditions due to special adaptations. However, the majority of the plants in the flood-hit areas of New Orleans were not halophytic, thus could not withstand the high salt concentrations. This demonstrates that while some organisms can well regulate the effects of osmosis, many cannot when faced with extreme conditions.

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Ou have screened for several new recessive mutations in a species of wasp. wasps homozygous for apricot (aa) have pale orange eyes. (wild-type eyes are brown.) wasps homozygous for blunt (bb) have short wings. (wild-type wings are long.)

Answers

Mutation in the gene encoding the recently isolated WASP protein has now been identified as the genetic defect responsible for the X-linked Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS), a primary immunodeficiency disease associated with extensive phenotypic variability.

The non-recombinant gametes are AB and ab which are found in the parents whereas aB and Ab are recombinant in nature as they are absent in parent genotype.

Further explanation:

The true-breeding or pure-breeding represents the parents that are homozygous in nature and will pass on the specific trait to the progeny as they contain either recessive or dominant alleles but not both. The parents heterozygous for a trait will not be able to produce exactly the same phenotype in the offspring due to the presence of both types of alleles.  

The genotype of pure-breeding double-mutant can be depicted as ‘aabb’ for apricot and blunt while the wild-type genotypes can be considered ‘AABB’. The cross between the mutant and wild type genotypes would result in the progeny with only ‘AaBb’ genotype.

Parent:   aabb × AABB

Filial 1 (F1) generation: AaBb

The F1 hybrids are then test crossed with double-mutant line and result as follows:

AaBb × aabb

 F2 generation:

The genotypes obtained in the F2 generation are AaBb, Aabb, aaBb, and aabb which have the phenotypes wild-type, wild-type apricot, pale orange-wildtype, and double-mutant, respectively.  

AB, Ab, aB, and ab are the haploid genotypes that were received as gametes from the F1 generation. The gametes Ab and aB are considered recombinant while gametes ab and Ab are said to be non-recombinant because the recombinant gametes are not found in the parents while the non-recombinant ones have been transferred from the parents.

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Answer details:

Grade: College Biology

Subject: Genetics

Chapter: Gene Interactions

Keywords:

Gametes, recombinant gametes, non-recombinant gametes, pure-breeding, true-breeding, F1 generation, F2 generation, genotypes, phenotypes, recessive allele, dominant allele, wild-type, mutant.

 

What type of cellular transport do they use for large molecules? what features of the cell membrane permit it?

Answers

this is called active transport or fully permeable

Answer: The type of transport that amoebas use for large molecules is endocytosis and exocytosis.

Explanation: Endo- and exocytosis are two types of active transport. In both of these forms of transport, small spheres of membrane called vesicles are used to move molecules.

The information in the table shows the possible genotypes resulting from the mating of two heterozygotes aadd. the allele a codes for normal pigmentation, a for albinism, d for dimpled chin, and d for non-dimpled chin. what fraction of offspring would be expected to be albino with a non-dimpled chin?
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 3/4
d. 2/8
e. 1/16

Answers

Admitting that the "a" is a capital A for normal pigmentation and "d" is a capital D for dimpled chin, meaning that these are the dominant traits, the fraction expected to be albino with a non-dimpled chin is of 1/16.
When two heterozygous are crossed and two characteristics are being analysed, the offspring quantity that will possess the two recessive traits can be represented by 1/16. This is easily confirmed when a Punnett square is made. Considering that both parents were heterozygous, on both sides of the crossing in the Punnett square, you would have the following alleles' combination: AD, Ad, aD, and ad. The offspring that would be homozygous recessive (aadd) would correspond to only 1/16. 
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