Answer:
A. Non organic failure to thrive.
Explanation:
Nonorganic failure to thrive (NOFTT), i.e., FTT not due to organic disease, is the most common category of FTT in the United States and is associated with delayed growth and development and abnormal behaviors. Factors extrinsic to the infant are primarily responsible for NOFTT.
A client is experiencing an acute asthmatic attack. Which agent would be most effective?
Answer:
First option - Bronchodilator (beta adrenergic agonists drugs)
Second option - corticosteroid
Explanation:
Asthma is one of the most common chronic respiratory diseases, along with allergic rhinitis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The main features of this lung disease are shortness of breath, wheezing and chest tightness, short and rapid breathing. Symptoms worsen at night and in the early hours of the morning or in response to exercise, exposure to allergens, environmental pollution and climate change.
In asthma attacks, first, try the bronchodilator (the inhaler - asthma pumps). If the answer is not satisfactory, enter the corticosteroid. There are currently cortisone derivatives with minor side effects and excellent results. As a spray, they eliminate oral doses and, inhaled, act directly on the lungs.
A bronchodilator is used by almost all people with asthma as a way to open the airway. For the treatment of asthma symptoms, there are three types of bronchodilators: beta-agonists, anticholinergics and xanthines.
Short-acting beta-adrenergic (beta agonists) drugs are usually the best medicines to relieve asthma attacks. They are also used to prevent exercise-induced asthma. These drugs are called bronchodilators because they stimulate beta-adrenergic receptors to widen (dilate) the airways. Bronchodilators that act on all beta-adrenergic receptors throughout the body (such as epinephrine) cause side effects such as tachycardia, agitation, headache, and muscle tremors.
What would contraindicate the administration of scheduled immunizations at a client visit for a 6-month-old infant?
Answer:
Previous anaphylaxis reaction to a previously administered vaccine
Current illness
Immune deficiency
The administration of vaccines may be contraindicated for a 6-month-old infant if they are experiencing a moderate to severe illness, have known allergies to vaccine components, have had previous adverse reactions to vaccines, or have an immune-compromising condition.
There are several factors that may contraindicate the administration of scheduled immunizations to a 6-month-old infant. Generally, vaccinations should not be given if an infant is experiencing a moderate to severe illness with or without a fever, as this may impact the efficacy of the vaccine or exacerbate the existing illness.
Vaccines might also contain immunogens that could provoke severe allergic reactions in some children, especially those with a known allergy to any vaccine component or a history of anaphylactic reactions. Other contraindications include an adverse reaction to a previous dose of the same vaccine or a medical condition that compromises the immune system, making a vaccine potentially dangerous or ineffective.
It's important to closely follow the vaccination schedules recommended by health organizations, such as the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which provides guidance on the appropriate ages and circumstances under which vaccines should be administered to infants and children.
These schedules are in place to protect children like Olivia, who, at one year of age, would no longer have maternal antibodies to protect against diseases such as meningococcal meningitis—which can be effectively prevented with early vaccination.
Lastly, for individuals with concerns about conditions such as Reye's syndrome related to aspirin allergy, it's essential to discuss potential risks with healthcare providers before proceeding with immunizations to ensure the safety of the child.
Although the fertility rate for women in the United States has declined in recent years to a value below replacement level, the United States population is still increasing because of lower average age at first marriage
A lower infant death rates
B increased longevity
C improved health care
D immigration E Submit
Answer:
B) Increased longevity
Explanation:
Couples getting married earlier in their lives will always result in a longer time in which they could have a kid. Being married and trying for kids longer gives more of a chance to have one and over that extended period of time all it takes is the right circumstances and any non-infertile couple could get pregnant. People also live longer today than they did years ago which would also be grounds for increased longevity.
What client characteristic may contraindicate the use of tramadol for the treatment of a clientâs pain following traumatic injuries?
Answer:
Tramadol should not be used in people who:
are hypersensitive to tramadol have received or have been treated with MAO inhibitor drugs in the last 14 dayshave uncontrolled epilepsy on treatmentare taking abstinence treatment narcotics or acute intoxication of alcohol, hypnotics, opioids and other psychotropics.have respiratory issuesExplanation:
Tramadol is an opioid painkiller that acts on the central nervous system and is indicated for the relief of pain of moderate to severe intensity. It acts similarly to endorphins, which are natural neurotransmitters related to pain and well-being. Endorphins act by binding to brain opioid receptors by decreasing pain messages that reach the central nervous system. Like other opioids, tramadol also exerts its analgesic effect by binding these opioid μ receptors, acting as if they were endorphins and blocking the transmission of electrical impulses of pain by the nervous system. When μ opioid receptors are activated, the brain is less able to recognize pain signals sent by the body.
The prescription of tramadol is contraindicated in the following situations:
History of severe allergic reaction to tramadol Patients with acute alcohol intoxication, hypnotics, narcotics, centrally acting analgesics, opioids or psychotropesPatients receiving MAO inhibitors or who have taken any MAO drugs within the past 14 days Children under 12 years. History of severe asthma or during acute asthma attack. Severe respiratory disease. Severe liver dysfunction.True or false the use of your perceived exertion is helpful in monitoring intensity in order to avoid unconfortable exercise sessions.
It should be True,Hope that helps
Answer:
true
Explanation:
The condition in which energy intake is consistently higher than energy expenditure is known as __________ energy balance.
Answer:
Positive
Explanation:
Energy balance is the relationship between energy sources and energy requirements in order to keep a healthy condition. This energy balance is positive when caloric intake is higher than energy expenditure, in adults this leads to an increase in the quantity of fat stored.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
Answer:Positive Energy Balance
Explanation: When the energy comsumed is lesser than the energy taken in, it leaves a positive balance which means there is more or reserved energy to carry out other activities
To treat a severe or minor wound, apply direct pressure with a bandage or a clean towel.
A. True
B. False
Answer:True
Explanation:
While this is wholly true for severe wound, it could be done for minor wounds too especially when they continue to bleed (minor wounds are expected to stop bleeding on their own within a few minutes). After the stoppage of the bleeding, the pressure can be sustained by binding the wound with a bandage. The wound can also be cleaned and rinsed with clean water or normal saline
It’s good to note that the bandage that should be used must be sterile to prevent wound infection and the part of the body involved could also be elevated afterwards especially if it’s a limb.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Severe wound is when there is significant bleeding and broken bone can also be involved.
There is an official department of the US government within the Health and Human Services (HHS) agency called the Office of the National Coordinator for Health Information Technology, which provides guidance and coordinates national policy on the adoption of EHRs
a) true
b) false
Answer:True
Explanation:The office coordinates as stated above
Which of the following statements about public health in the 21st century is true? Group of answer choices
The greatest challenge is how to change human behavior to promote health
The prevalence of obesity is expected to decline because of healthier diets
Violence and drug use are expected to decline because of stricter law enforcement It is expected that more people will become physically active
Answer:
The greatest challenge is how to change human behavior to promote health.
Explanation:
With the invention of new technologies that made our lives easier and simpler, we have become lazier and have changed their diets, replacing healthy food for quick and not nourishing meals. We dedicate more time to other activities where minimal movement is required. These habits have been forming since the last century along with new technologies and the changes in lifestyle. One of the greatest challenges is to change this unhealthy behavior and replace it for healthy habits throughout different plans, campaigns, and education.
The effects of sleep deprivation are often difficult to study because they are often confounded by ______________.
Answer:
The answer is: Insomnia.
Explanation:
Lack of sleep should not be confused with Insomnia. Sleep deprivation is the condition of insufficient sleep and may be chronic or acute. Few studies have compared the effects of acute total lack of sleep and partial chronic lack of sleep, which are often preceded by periods of insomnia.
The answer is: Insomnia.
Physical ability is just one of many factors that influence the outcome of a sporting event. please select the best answer from the choices provided. t f
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
There are a lot of factors that can influence the outcome of a sporting event. The physical ability of the person is one of them, but this needs to be combined with other factors such as good training, diet or even the place where the person is playing. There are geographical conditions or weather conditions that may not be beneficial, mostly if the person is not used to perform in those conditions or is not well prepared. Another factor that has a great influence is the motivation and mental health of the person.
It is important for the HHA to consult the __________________ about any special diets or dietary requirements clients have.
Final answer:
The HHA should consult the client's doctor or primary care physician about special diets or dietary requirements to ensure that dietary plans align with medical needs, taking cues from multidisciplinary teams that include professionals like certified diabetes educators and registered dietitians.
Explanation:
It is important for the Home Health Aide (HHA) to consult the client's doctor or primary care physician about any special diets or dietary requirements clients have. This coordination is essential for ensuring that dietary recommendations complement the client's medical needs. For instance, nursing-care facilities often require the collaboration of clinical dietitians and medical staff to create meal plans that aid in patient recovery or chronic condition management. Additionally, in some situations, a certified diabetes educator or a registered dietician may provide essential nutritional information and guidance, especially for patients managing specific conditions like diabetes. HHAs should ensure they have updated information, as even changes in a client's living arrangements can impact their dietary requirements and overall health management.
Which nursing action is appropriate when conducting a secondary survey during the emergency assessment?
1) Maintaining privacy
2) Having suction available
3) Giving supplemental oxygen
4) Assigning a nurse to support family members
Answer:
4: Assigning a nurse to support family members
Explanation:
All of the options are important, such as maintaining privacy, having suction available and giving supplemental oxygen if needed. However, when conducting a secondary survey during an emergency assessment, it is important that the family members have support for in case there is too much stress.
Unless each step in the conflict resolution process is followed precisely, a conflict cannot be resolved.
True
False
Answer:
true but not always the conflict resolution works every time sometimes the conflict resolution will not solve the problem other methods can solve the problem so it's a maybe
The given statement Unless each step in the conflict resolution process is followed precisely, a conflict cannot be resolved is False .
While following a conflict resolution process can be helpful, it is not necessarily true that each step must be followed precisely for a conflict to be resolved. Conflict resolution is a dynamic and complex process that can vary depending on the nature of the conflict, the individuals involved, and the specific circumstances.
Different conflicts may require different approaches and strategies. It is important to adapt the conflict resolution process to the specific situation and to be flexible in finding solutions that work for all parties involved.
While having a structured process can provide guidance and promote effective resolution, it is not a guarantee that following each step precisely will automatically lead to resolution. Factors such as communication, understanding, empathy, and willingness to find common ground also play significant roles in resolving conflicts successfully.
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Together with the skin and the liver, the kidney synthesize _____, the active form of vitamin D.A)calcitoninB)calcitriolC)erythropoietinD)reninE)angiotensin
Answer:
B)calcitriol
Explanation:
The active form of vitamin D is calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D) which is synthesized by the kidney.
Other organs which play a role in the synthesis of Vitamin D are skin and liver.
In the presence of sunlight, a compound 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted into Vitamin D. Vitamin D is converted into 25-hydroxy-vitamin D (calcidiol) in the liver which is further converted into 1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D (calcitriol) in the kidney which is the active form of vitamin D.
Referring to other options,
A)calcitonin
It a hormone released by thyroid gland and is responsible for calcium and phosphate levels regulation. Therefore, it is an incorrect answer choice.
B)calcitriol
This is the correct answer choice.
C)erythropoietin
This is a hormone released by kidney and is responsible for increasing red blood cell production. Therefore, it is an incorrect answer choice.
D)renin
This is a hormone released by the kidney and is responsible for blood pressure regulation. Therefore, it is an incorrect answer choice.
E)angiotensin
This is a peptide hormone responsible for blood pressure regulation.
Therefore, it is an incorrect answer choice.
Folate is a nutrient recommended especially toFolate is a nutrient recommended especially to ________ in order to ________.
Answer:
Pregnant women and women planning to become pregnant
Explanation:
Folate (Vitamin B) is one of the B vitamin and it is very important as it helps in the synthesizing of DNA and other genetic materials.
It also helps in cell division.
Normally, the human body gets the required amount of folate from normal daily nutrition, but, pregnant women or women seeking to get pregnant are usually prescribed folate supplements as it helps in preventing birth defects in fetus most especially Neural Tube Defects (NTDs) including spina bifida, anencephaly, heart defects. According to researchers, folate can help prevent these defects by more than 70%.
The label on a granola cereal box indicates that it contains 40 grams of total carbohydrate, 13 grams of sugar, and 240 Calories per serving. What percent of Calories in a serving comes from sugar? a. 12% b. 22% c. 45% d. 67%
Answer:
b. 22%
Explanation:
In order to calculate the percent of calories coming from sugar, it is necessary to know that
1 g of sugar provides 4 calories.It is provided in the question that,
There are 13 grams of sugar in one serving of granola cereal box.There are 240 calories in one serving of granola cereal box.Calculating the calories coming from sugar,
13 x 4= 52 calories
Hence, calculating the percent of calories coming from sugar,
[tex]\frac{52}{240}[/tex] x100 = 21.6% approximated to 22%
Therefore, 22% of calories come from sugar in a serving of granola cereal box.
PLEASE HELP ASAP ALSO GIVE BRAINLIEST AND THANKS AND 5 STARS ALSO THIS IS A FILL IN THE BLANK QUESTION Use the drop-down tool to select the word or phrase that completes each sentence.
1.If you develop a report on a hospital’s total patient count, you are a .
2.If you organize the files in a patient’s chart, you might be working as a .
3.If you are managing other informatics staff, you are probably a .
The blanks can be filled in by
1.Medical Trancriptionist
Health Information Administrator
CIS Specialist
2. Medical Coder
Medical Transcrpitionist
Medical Records Clerk
3.Medical Records Clerk
Cancer Registrar
Health Information Administrator
Explanation:
1. If you develop a report on a hospital’s total patient count, you are a CIS Specialist. ( Certified Incentive Specialist )
2. If you organize the files in a patient’s chart, you might be working as a Medical Records Clerk. ( Or Health Information Clerk )
3. If you are managing other informatics staff, you are probably a Health Information Administrator. ( or RHIA )
Some types of vitamin A are immediately usable by the body, while other types need to be converted first.
Answer:
True: Retinol is the most absorbed.
Explanation:
Vitamin A digestion follows the same process as the rest of the food lipids. Thus, retinol esters are hydrolyzed by pancreatic lipases, after binding to bile salts and micelle formation, and free retinol is absorbed in the duodenum and jejunum. The absorption of retinoids is 80-90% while that of carotenes is 30-40%.
Answer:
Retinol is the most usable form of preformed vitamin A.
Explanation:
reformed vitamin A is only found in animal food sources, foods that are fortified, or supplements.
If the shoulder harness is uncomfortable or rubs your neck, you should wear it under your arm or place it behind your back.a) trueb) false
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
A shoulder strap or harness is used to strap over the shoulder. They are mainly used to support the weight and adherence to the body part. They are mainly made of the fabric material.
Sometimes, the harness might be tight or uncomfortable. This might cause the redness or may cause injury in the neck area of the body. This type of harness should not be used. At this situation the harness must be avoided can not be placed in the neck or the arm.
Thus, the answer is false.
A client who was recently diagnosed with cancer is now receiving morphine for pain. Since this client has been receiving morphine for only a short time, he is best described by which term?
Answer:
Opiate naive
Explanation:
Opioid naive: Patients who are not chronically receiving opioid analgesics on a daily basis; and. Opioid tolerant: patients who are chronically receiving opioid analgesics on a daily basis.
"The effects of prolonged, intense conflicts with parents on an adolescent include all of the following except"
Answer:
Your question is lacking details but can be addressed as follows;
Effect can include but not limited to the following;
- School drop out: teenagers that are under intense and continues pressure with their parents drop out of school due to lack of counseling and guardians from parent.
- Getting Pregnant leading to early marriage: girls child may got pregnant when they are in prolong conflict with parent, this may be as a result of them seeking for who to talk to or due to the fact that they may be seeking financial assistance from an unreliable person. This is mostly observed in Africa where girls child are being married to an elderly man either for money or for lack of support from parent.
Others are;
- Becoming parent at an adolescent age:
- movement out of the home
For an average-size man, blood alcohol level (BAL) rises about __________ per drink per hour.
Answer:
0.025
Explanation:
Blood alcohol level is measured as the concentration of alcohol per unit of blood in the body. It is a good indication of how intoxicated a person is.
This can be measured by testing breathe, blood and even urine.
It is not a good system to measure how many drinks a person has had, since body weight, metabolism, health, etc. varies among different people, so testing the blood alcohol level is a good system to use.
An average-sized man's blood alcohol level typically increases by about 0.02% per drink per hour. This rate can vary depending on factors like body weight, liver health, and drinking pace.
Explanation:For an average-sized man, the blood alcohol level (BAL) roughly goes up by 0.02% per drink per hour. The BAL is a measure of the amount of alcohol in the bloodstream. Everyone metabolizes alcohol at a different rate, but on average, the liver can process approximately one standard drink per hour. A 'standard' drink is considered to be 14 grams of alcohol; this is roughly equivalent to a 12 oz beer, a 5 oz glass of wine, or a 1.5 oz shot of hard liquor. It's important to note that numerous factors can impact this average, such as body weight, liver health, and the rate of consumption.
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The _____ returns filtered blood to the bloodstream after passing through the glomerulus.
A. renal pelvis
B. renal vein
C. renal tubule
D. renal artery
Final answer:
The renal vein (option B) returns filtered blood to the bloodstream after it has passed through the glomerulus. This is part of the kidney's function to filter blood, where the renal artery brings in the blood, the nephrons filter it, and then the renal vein carries the purified blood back into circulation.
Explanation:
The structure that returns filtered blood to the bloodstream after passing through the glomerulus is the renal vein. Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery and moves into the glomerulus where filtration occurs. The filtered substances then pass to the renal tubule for reabsorption and secretion processes. Finally, the cleaned and processed blood is returned to the circulation via the renal vein, completing the filtration cycle.
The loop of Henle is part of the:
B. renal tubule
A certain type of recurring, often one-sided headache, which is often accompanied by nausea and/or vomiting and extreme sensitivity to light, is called _________
Answer:
Migraine
Explanation:
Migraine is a disabling, biologically based headache that affects genetically predisposed people. This type of primary headache can occur at any age, but it usually manifests more in adolescents, young adults, and affects women more than men.
In about 15% of cases, pain is preceded (or accompanied by) a premonitory aura involving visual symptoms. Its main feature is blurred vision or the presence of bright, zigzag or dark spots in the periods preceding the painful crises.
Typical symptoms are:
Throbbing and pulsating pain, usually unilateral, of moderate or severe intensity; Nausea; Vomiting; Hypersensitivity to light (photophobia), sounds (phonophobia) and certain odors (osmophobia), which last for four to 72 hours and worsen with movement; Irritability; Depression; AgitationWhich of the following procedures carries the highest risk of spreading TB to the EMT?
A. Modified jaw thrustB. Endotracheal suctioningC. Oral airway placementD. Bag-valve-mask breathing
Answer:
The correct answer is option B.
Explanation:
Endotracheal suctioning is a essential part of the bronchial hygiene therapy. It is also known as ETT suction which is essential to clear secretion and free the airway patency.
The main aim of the ETT suction to remove excess amount of the secretion eliminate the secretion that leads in higher risk of spreading the TB to the EMT.
Thus, the correct answer is - option B.
It is safe to handle food that requires no additional preparation before service with:
a. Clean utensils, deli papers, tongs, or disposable gloves
b. Bare hands that have been washed with soap and water
c. A cloth towel that is washed every 4 hours of being used
d. Bare fingers to hold the food on the spatula when serving
Answer:d. Bare fingers to hold the food on the spatula when serving.
Explanation:
Food contamination is a chief concern and is subjected to cause health issues. Bare fingers may be contaminated with microbes although may look clean thus previous hand washing and use of gloves is suggested while serving food from spatula.
Bare finger can introduce contaminants to food.
Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?
Answer: Phase 5
Explanation:
Core power training phase 5 is the level is the level of core power exercise that is needed to prepare an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functional and applicable speed. They are designed to improve the rate of force production of the musculature .
Several types exist and they include soccer throw, pullover throw amongst others and are generally called core power training.
I hope this helps
The chest cavity can hold up to ________ liter(s) of blood in an adult, leading to the possibility of massive internal hemorrhage without any external blood loss.
A. 0.5
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
The hemothorax is the accumulation of blood in the space between the chest wall and the lung (the pleural cavity).
The most common cause of hemothorax is chest trauma. Hemothorax may also occur in people who have: a defect in blood clotting, chest (thoracic) or heart surgery, death of lung tissue (pulmonary infarction), lung or pleural cancer - either primary or secondary (metastatic or otherwise), rupture in a blood vessel when a central venous catheter is placed, or when associated with severe high blood pressure or tuberculosis.
Final answer:
The chest cavity can hold up to 5 liters of blood in an adult, which is close to the total blood volume that a person typically has. This amount of blood if lost internally can lead to significant medical emergencies.
Explanation:
The chest cavity can hold up to 5 liters of blood in an adult, leading to the possibility of massive internal hemorrhage without any external blood loss.
The average adult body contains between 4.7 and 5.7 liters of blood, which constitutes approximately 8 percent of adult body weight. Adult men typically have about 5 to 6 liters of blood, and women have slightly less, averaging 4-5 liters.
In scenarios where there may be a risk of blood loss exceeding 500 ml, medical professionals ensure that appropriate access and fluids are available to manage the situation effectively.
Ryan, a social worker, has observed that the foster care in his region is functioning inefficiently. He wants to undertake some programs to develop the functioning of the foster care. Whom should he approach at the Administration for Children and Families?
The approach for Ryan would be to contact the Children's Bureau within the Administration for Children and Families (ACF).
The Administration for Children and Families is a division of the United States Department of Health and Human Services. It is responsible for promoting the economic and social well-being of families, children, individuals, and communities. The Children's Bureau, a part of ACF, specifically focuses on improving the welfare of children and families, which includes overseeing foster care and adoption programs.
Ryan, as a social worker, should reach out to the Children's Bureau for several reasons:
1. The Children's Bureau has the authority and resources to implement changes in foster care systems.
2. It provides guidance on best practices in child welfare, including foster care.
3. The bureau administers grants to states and tribes for child welfare programs, which can be used to improve foster care services.
4. It also collects and analyzes data on child welfare, which can be used to identify areas for improvement and to inform policy decisions.
To initiate change, Ryan should consider the following steps:
- Research and gather data on the specific inefficiencies within the foster care system in his region.
- Develop a clear proposal outlining the issues and potential solutions or programs that could be implemented.
- Contact the regional office of the Children's Bureau to discuss the findings and proposed programs.
- Seek collaboration with local and state child welfare agencies, as they work closely with the Children's Bureau and can provide support and additional resources.
- Advocate for policy changes or additional funding that may be necessary to implement the proposed programs effectively.
By approaching the Children's Bureau, Ryan can leverage the bureau's expertise and resources to make a meaningful impact on the foster care system in his region.