Answer:
SOCIAL CATEGORIZATION
EXPLANATION:
Social Categorization is the process of classifying people into groups based on similar characteristics, whether it be nationality, age, occupation, diagnosis, or some other trait.
Social categorization is a natural part of social perception; it provides a mental shortcut in that it allows us to infer properties about a person based on the properties of others in the same category.
The main adaptive function of social categorization is that it permits and constrains otherwise chaotic inductive inferences.
The student is examining a tissue sample with a microscope. The student decides that it is squamous keratinized tissue. Which type of epithelial tissue is the student viewing?A) Stratified epithelium.B) Glandular.C) Neuroepithelium.D) Simple epithelium.
Answer:
The correct option is A) Stratified epithelium.
Explanation:
Stratified epithelium is characterized by being formed by more than one layer of epithelial cells. According to the morphology of the cells of the outermost layer, they are classified as keratinized stratified flat epithelium when it has several layers and the outermost are flattened cells and with keratin. The most prominent location of this epithelium is in the skin, forming the epidermis. Its function is to protect and cover surfaces that are in direct contact with the outside or with irritating or traumatic substances.
A common column material used in size exclusion chromatography is dextran, a polysaccharide of glucose. Which type of interaction most likely occurs between proteins and the dextran column material?
A) aromatic
B) hydrophobic
C) salt bridge
D) hydrogen bonding
Answer:
D) Hydrogen bonding
Explanation:
A hydrogen bond is a kind of electrostatic force of attraction between the hydrogen atom and a more electronegative atom e.g. nitrogen, fluorine, and oxygen.
It is a weak force of attraction.
In size-exclusion chromatography, the attraction that exist between the proteins and dextran is hydrogen bonding.
The several hydroxyl groups thats seen in dextran accounts for why hydrogen bonding exists between dextran column material and the protein.
What type of nosocomial infection is likely to arise from intravenous catheterization?
a.Surgical
b. Urinary tract
c. Bacteremia
d. Lower respiratory
e. Cutaneous
Answer:
The correct answer is c. Bacteremia
Explanation:
Nosocomial infection is a hospital-acquired infection. Intravenous catheterization is majorly used in hospitals for therapeutic purposes like drug administration, blood sampling, etc.
These catheters are one of the major causes of nosocomial bacteremia in patients. Bacteremia is the condition in which bacteria is present in the blood.
So these catheter can be contaminated with bacteria which came from a patient and when they are used in another patient without proper sterilization they can transfer these bacteria to other patients blood which then cause nosocomial bacteremia.
What is the difference between a countercurrent multiplier system, such as the one involving the loop of Henle, and the countercurrent systems that maximize oxygen absorption by fish gills or reduce heat loss in endotherms?
A. A countercurrent multiplier system, such as the one involving the loop of Henle, involves movement of ions rather than movement of oxygen or heat transfer.
B. Unlike the other countercurrent systems, a countercurrent multiplier system, such as the one involving the loop of Henle, expends energy in active transport.
C. A countercurrent multiplier system, such as the one involving the loop of Henle, includes a capillary bed.
Answer:
The CORRECT ANSWER IS B.
B. Unlike the other countercurrent systems, a countercurrent multiplier system expends energy in active transport.
Explanation:
The countercurrent multiplier system involving the loop of Henle uses up energy in the form of ATP to actively conduct NaCl out of the filtrate in the upper region of the ascending limb of the loop. This energy in the form of ATP that is being used uniquely differentiates a countercurrent multiplier system from the different forms of countercurrent systems.
Radioactive uranium-235 has a half-life of 704 million years. If it was incorporated into dinosaur bones, could it be used to date the dinosaur fossils?
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Yes, Radioactive uranium-235 has a half-life of 704 million years. If it was incorporated into dinosaur bones, it could it be used to date the dinosaur fossils.
It is worthy to note that after 65.5 million years a little as a tenth of the Uranium-235 undergoes degradation with the remaining ninety percent or part is available for use to date the fossils.
A 50-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis shows the presence of exudative serosanguineous pleural fluid and positive cytology. This finding is most typical for what condition?
Answer:
is it pneumonia
Explanation:
i think it is this but am not sure
What can people do to lessen the effect of energy production on the pH of freshwater sources? Check all that apply.
Final answer:
To mitigate the impact of energy production on freshwater pH, individuals can plant more trees, burn less fossil fuels, and use energy more efficiently. Chemical neutralization and biological treatments with bacteria can also be applied to pollutants before they enter water bodies.
Explanation:
To lessen the effect of energy production on the pH of freshwater sources, people can engage in several practices. Among them, planting more trees helps to absorb CO₂, a contributor to acidic rain. Burning less fossil fuels reduces the emissions of SOx and NOx, which are primary causes of acid rain and can lower the pH of water bodies. In areas affected by acidic water due to energy production and other sources, measures such as chemical neutralization can be applied to effluents before they are released into the environment. Biological approaches, like using bacteria to neutralize pH and detoxify compounds, are another eco-friendly solution. Additionally, individuals can help by using energy more efficiently, for example, by changing to low-flush toilets and reducing the use of air conditioning.
Which of these can RAPIDLY pass directly through the phospholipids of the plasma membrane, without the help of a transport protein?
Answer:
Small nonpolar molecules, such as O2 and CO2, are soluble in the lipid bilayer and therefore can readily cross cell membranes. Small uncharged polar molecules, such as H2O, also can diffuse through membranes, but Ions, such as hydrogen ions, and hydrophilic molecules, such as water and glucose, cannot rapidly pass directly through the phospholipids of the membrane. To move rapidly through the membrane, they must pass through membrane transport proteins.
Small, nonpolar molecules like oxygen and carbon dioxide can rapidly pass directly through the phospholipids of the plasma membrane without the help of a transport protein.
Explanation:The molecules that can rapidly pass directly through the phospholipids of the plasma membrane without the help of a transport protein are small, nonpolar molecules such as oxygen (O2), carbon dioxide (CO2), and small hydrophobic molecules like steroid hormones. These molecules can easily diffuse across the lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane due to their nonpolar nature.
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Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: a. low venous oxygen levels. b. a decrease in arterial oxygen levels. c. an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood. d. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.
Answer:
d. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.
Explanation:
Hypoxia is a pathological state in which the body is impoverished with adequate oxygen supply to the tissues and cells. At that state, oxygen is significantly insufficient which can pose a threat or associated with diffusion of oxygen in the lungs to carry out respiratory activities, malfunctioning of the Brain, headaches, nausea,anxiety etc.
Hypoxemia is a decrease in arterial oxygen levels.
Hypoxia, defined as inadequate oxygen supply to the tissues and cells, can occur due to diseases affecting red blood cells or due to abnormal levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide interaction with hemoglobin in blood. The resulting oxygenation level, referred to as 'percent sat', is a key measure in assessing oxygen supply to tissues.
Explanation:Hypoxia is most accurately defined as d. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells. It can occur in various contexts, such as diseases that result in the sickle-shape of red blood cells, reducing oxygen perfusion into the blood. Hemoglobin, the molecule in red blood cells responsible for carrying oxygen, plays a crucial role in oxygenation of tissues. The percentage of hemoglobin sites occupied by oxygen in a patient's blood, commonly referred to as 'percent sat', becomes highly significant in cases of hypoxia.
In general, blood in the aorta is oxygenated and ready to be delivered to the tissues. However, if there is insufficient hemoglobin, or if the hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen decreases due to high levels of CO2 (hypercapnia), the tissues may not receive enough oxygen, leading to hypoxia. Conversely, as the percent saturation of hemoglobin decreases (low oxygen levels), its affinity for oxygen increases, driving it to bind more oxygen and potentially correct the hypoxic state.
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A pea plant is heterozygous (Aa) for seed color and heterozygous (Bb) for seed shape. Which statements are correct according to Mendel's principle of independent assortment? Select all that apply. a. A gamete that contains the dominant allele for seed color is equally likely to contain the dominant or the recessive allele for seed shape. b. A gamete that contains the dominant allele for seed color must also contain the dominant allele for seed shape.c. Possible gamete genotypes are AB or ab; each is equally likely to occur. d. A gamete that contains the dominant allele for seed color must also contain the recessive allele for seed shape. e. Each gamete will contain either a seed-color allele or a seed-shape allele, but not both.
Answer:
A is correct
Explanation:
Mendel's law of independent assortment states that alleles of a gene get separated or sorted into gametes independently of the alleles of
the other gene. In this case, two genes are involved, one coding for seed color (A) and the other for seed shape (B). Alleles A and B are dominant over alleles a and b respectively. Hence, a pea plant heterozygous for both genes will have a genotype AaBb.
According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, alleles A and a will randomly sort into gametes independently of alleles B and b. This will result in the production of four equally likely gametes with genotypes: AB, Ab, aB and ab. This shows that the gamete that receives the A allele will equally be likely to contain either B or b allele. The same applies for a allele as well.
Options B and D are wrong because it is not a must it occurs, it is just a possibility or likelihood that it does.
Option C is wrong because four equally likely combination of gametes are possible not two.
Option E is wrong because it does not conform to the law of independent assortment, in which both genes must be represented in each gamete.
Final answer:
According to Mendel's principle of independent assortment, a gamete that contains the dominant allele for seed color is equally likely to contain the dominant or the recessive allele for seed shape. Possible gamete genotypes are AB or ab, and each is equally likely to occur.
Explanation:
According to Mendel's principle of independent assortment, the correct statements are:
a. A gamete that contains the dominant allele for seed color is
equally likely to contain the dominant or the recessive allele for seed shape.
c. Possible gamete genotypes are AB or ab; each is equally likely to occur.
The principle of independent assortment states that genes do not influence each other with regard to the sorting of alleles into gametes. Therefore, the alleles associated with different traits, such as seed color and seed shape in this case, will sort independently of each other during gamete formation.
Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of.
1. Parlall evolution
2. convergent evolution
3. allopratic speciation
4. gene flow.
Answer:
Convergent Evolution
Explanation:
This is a form of independent evolution where similar features are developed by two species,which are not closely, living in different periods but the same biome.
Due to developing analogous structures they may appear to be similar. Most of these structures were not present in the last common ancestor of both groups. An example is the nature of wings in birds, bats and insects which serves the same purpose which is flight.
"Human glucocebrosidase, for treatment of Gaucher's disease, has been successfully produced using carrot cells. What is a major advantage of producing biotherapeutics in plant vs in animal cells?"
Answer:
Human glucocebrosidase is used as a therapeutic drug which is used to treat Gaucher's disease.
The farming of this substances in crops is very helpful for the population. The genetic engineering to insert genes in plants would result in GMOs.
It is more beneficial to use plants for this process as compared to that of animals because it is easily available and easily extracted.
It is more economical and easily accessible by people. It would not harm animals by incorporating the gene in them in laboratory conditions.
Producing biotherapeutics in plant cells rather than animal cells is advantageous because it reduces the risk of contamination by human pathogens, allows for easy and efficient large-scale production, and avoids ethical issues and regulations related to using animal cells.
Explanation:The production of biotherapeutics using plant cells, such as carrot cells, has a few significant advantages over animal cells. A major advantage is the risk of contamination. Animal cells can potentially host human pathogens, including viruses, which can contaminate the drug, making it unsafe. In contrast, plant cells don't share the same pathogens with humans, thereby reducing the risk of contamination. Furthermore, plant cells can be grown in large quantities relatively easily, making the production feasible and efficient. They also don't require the same ethical considerations and regulations as using animal cells.
A major advantage of producing biotherapeutics in plant cells compared to animal cells is the ability to produce large quantities of the desired protein at a lower cost. Plant cells have the ability to grow rapidly and can be easily scaled up for production purposes. Additionally, plant cells are less likely to be contaminated by human pathogens, reducing the risk of product contamination.
For example, the production of human glucocebrosidase in carrot cells allows for a more cost-effective and safer treatment for Gaucher's disease.
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_____are needed for sexual reproduction.
Gametes
Pollen
Spores
Cells
Answer:
Gametes
Explanation:
Gametes are sex cells.
Refers to the basic processes by which sensory organs and the nervous system respond to stimuli in the environment, and _________ refers to the meaningful interpretations extracted from it.
Answer:
SENSATION refers to the basic processes by which sensory organs and the nervous system respond to stimuli in the environment, and Perception refers to the meaningful interpretations extracted from it.
Explanation:
The receptors present in the body at different locations sense the changes in inner and outer conditions. A particular receptor is activated by specific stimuli such as thermoreceptors sense the change in the temperatures. This process of detecting the stimuli is followed by the transduction of the stimuli and generation of nerve impulses to send the information to the central nervous system. The whole process is called sensation.
The sensory information sent to the central nervous system is processed and interpreted mainly in the cerebral cortex. This is called perception.
The measurement of the distance from the crown of the infant's head to the infant's heel, while the infant is lying on his/her back with legs extended, is a measurement of:
Answer:
Length.
Explanation:
The measurement may be defined as assigning of the particular number to the measured object. The infants height and weight are measured after the birth.
The measurement of any objects is generally done in terms of the length, weight and circumference as well. The length can be measured in terms of meters, kilometers, feet and inches. The infants head to the heel measurement is done in terms of the length only.
Thus, the answer is length.
Choose the true statement.
a. Steroid hormones are generally made in advance and stored until needed.
b. Autocrine signals are produced by and act upon the same cell.
c. Paracrine signals are used for long-distance communication.
d. Neurotransmitters are a type of neurohormone.
Answer: The true statement is: Autocrine signals are produced by and act upon the same cell
Explanation:
Autocrine signals are made by cells producing hormones or molecules that acts on the same cell that produces it.
Usually, these autocrine hormones bind to receptors positioned in the cells producing them and thereby signal/exert changes in the cell.
Other options contains false statements
- Steroid hormones are produced ONLY when needed, not produced in advance and then stored
- Neurohormones do not help in the transmission of nerve impulses; So, they ARE NOT neurotransmitters
- Paracrine signals exert their effects on nearby cells; thus, they are not for long distance communication.
The ONLY true statement is that 'Autocrine signals are produced by and act upon the same cell.'
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the inheritance of the ability to taste the chemical PTC (phenylthiocarbamide)?
A) The ability to taste PTC follows Mendelian
patterns of inheritance.
B) Any child born of parents who are able to taste PTC will inherit the ability to taste PTC.
C) Two children of taster parents can inherit opposite PTC-tasting phenotypes.
D) The non-taster phenotype is a recessive trait.
E) The inheritance pattern of PTC tasting differs from the inheritance pattern of hairline contour (widow's peak).
Answer:
B) Any child born of parents who are able to taste PTC will inherit the ability to taste PTC.
Explanation:
The ability to taste the chemical PTC (phenylthiocarbamide) contain some people who can and some people who cannot taste PTC. Despite the fact, this trait is often considered a simple Mendelian trait, i.e.one gene-two alleles.(a simple genetic trait governed by a pair of alleles).The reason why this trait has been kept going in the population is undetermined but polymorphism may influence food selection or nutritional status.
If we have two parents that are heterozygous for this PTC traits, if the cross, they will have the following types of offspring.
Let say; dominant T for tasting and recessive t for nontasting---- i.e Tt
If Tt crosses with Tt, we have;
T t
T TT Tt
t Tt tt
From the punnet square, we have the following offspring
TT (dominant PTC taster )
2 Tt ( heterozygous PTC taster)
tt (recessive Non- taster)
From, the foregoing, we can clearly see that the incorrect statement about the inheritance of the ability to taste the chemical PTC (phenylthiocarbamide) is Any child born of parents who are able to taste PTC will inherit the ability to taste PTC. This is because from the cross, it is not all children that inherit the ability to taste PTC.
For each population description, identify which Hardy-Weinberg assumption is violated?
1. A small and isolated population of seals living in a stable environment with no genetic mutations.
2. A large population of fish where females mate with males based on size.
3. A population of birds with no genetic mutations that often mate with members of neighboring bird populations.
4. A large population of squirrels in a stable environment in which mating is random and the mutation rate is very low but constant.
5. A population of spiders living in an environment that strongly favors larger individuals.
Answer:
4. A large and isolated population of squirrels in a relatively stable environment in which no genetic mutations are occurring and mating between males and females is random.
Explanation:
1. A small and isolated population of seals living in a stable environment with no genetic mutations.❌
1. false
Hardy-Weinberg assumption is not violated for a small population as seen in this case.
2. A large population of fish where females mate with males based on size.❌
false
Hardy-Weinberg assumption is not violated for an instance where mating is not random as seen in this scenario.
3. A population of birds with no genetic mutations that often mate with members of neighboring bird populations.❌
False
Hardy-Weinberg assumption is not violated for where gene flow is seen among population in this scenario.
4. A large and isolated population of squirrels in a relatively stable environment in which no genetic mutations are occurring and mating between males and females is random.✔
True
Hardy-Weinberg assumption is violated for in this situation due to large population size.
5. A small population of spiders living in an environment that strongly favors larger individuals.❌
false
Hardy-Weinberg assumption is violated for a small population and natural selection occurring as its obvious in this case.
There are five primary Hardy-Weinberg assumptions:
A. no mutation,
B. random mating,
C. No gene flow,
D. infinite population size,
E. No selection.
If the assumptions are exempted in a gene, the population of that gene might undergo evolution causing a resultant change in the gene's allele frequencies.
For each population description, the Hardy-Weinberg assumption is violated -
1. Large population size 2. random mating 3. no gene flow 4. no mutation 5. no selection1. A small and isolated population of seals living in a stable environment with no genetic mutations. - According to Hardy-Weinberg population should be a large population size.
2. A large population of fish where females mate with males based on size. - mating should be random mating for the Hardy-Weinberg population.
3. A population of birds with no genetic mutations that often mate with members of neighboring bird populations. - No gene flow is shown here that violates the Hardy-Weinberg population
4. A large population of squirrels in a stable environment in which mating is random and the mutation rate is very low but constant. - No mutation.
5. A population of spiders living in an environment that strongly favors larger individuals. - No selection is due to favor large individuals.
Thus,
For each population description, the Hardy-Weinberg assumption is violated -
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As part of their normal function, many proteins bind to DNA briefly and then release it again. Which types of bonds might be involved in these transient protein-DNA interactions?a. ionicb. covalentc. van der Waals forcesd. hydrogene. all of the abovef. a, c, and dg. a, b, and c
Answer:
Option (a), (c), and (d).
Explanation:
The DNA is the genetic material of almost all the living organisms but in case of some viruses RNA acts as the genetic material. The DNA requires the binding of proteins and factors for the proper functioning of the cellular system.
The DNA and protein interaction is bounded by non covalent interactions as these interactions are not permanent in nature. The non covalent interaction include the hydrogen bonding, vander walls and ionic interaction. The covalent interaction is the strongest interaction present in nature.
Thus, the correct answer is option (f).
Answer:
Option A - Iconic
Option C - van der Waals forces
and option D- Hydrogen
Explanation:
The interactions between DNA and protein can be specific and non-specific based sequence of nucleotides and binding interactions. The functional groups in proteins and the backbone of DNA made up of sugar and phosphate forms different types of bond. These proteins –DNA interactions are strong and are primarily of three types –
a) Hydrogen bond , generally mediated by water molecule
b) Ionic bonds producing salt bridges and
c) Other minor forces such as van der Waals force etc.
The area of the lab where testing is performed to detect infectious diseases and the antibodies produced in response to infection is called ___________.Select one or more: a. Immunohematology b. immunology c. microbiology d. virology
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
Microbiology is related to the study of microorganisms that are not visible through naked eyes. While virology is the study of viruses. Hence, both option c and d are incorrect. Immunohematology is associated with the study of antigens and antibodies of RBCs in case of blood transfusion.
However, in immunology, the entire immune system is studied inclusive of antigen and antibody interaction, infectious diseases, transplant issues, hypersensitivity etc.
Hence, option B is correct
Why are human males much more likely than human females to inherit the recessive condition hemophilia (a failure of the blood to clot properly)?
Answer:
Human males much more likely than human females to inherit the recessive condition hemophilia because it follows X-linked recessive pattern.
Explanation:
Actually hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder i-e the defective genes are located on the X chromosome (sex chromosome) and are transmitted through it. As males have only one X chromosome (inherited from mother), one altered copy of the gene in every cell cause this disease.On the other hand females have 2 X chromosomes thus this disease is rare in females.
Jimmy is camping with friends when he accidentally steps in the campfire and recoils his foot instantaneously. What produced this speedy foot-saving action?
a. The direct operation of musclesb. The direct operation of the spinal cordc. The direct operation of nerves
Answer:
The nerves
Explanation:
Our body has nerves that sends signs to our brain. It helps us feel things when we touch it. The nerves sends different signals depending on the object.
Final answer:
Jimmy's foot withdrawal from the campfire was a reflex action controlled by the spinal cord, bypassing the brain for an immediate response to the sensation of heat.
Explanation:
Jimmy's quick reaction to stepping in the campfire was produced by the direct operation of the spinal cord. This automatic response is known as a reflex action, where sensory messages meet certain parameters that trigger an instantaneous reaction without needing input from the brain. In such scenarios, the signal is passed from a sensory nerve to an interneuron in the spinal cord, which then relays a command to the muscles through a motor nerve causing the muscle to contract and recoil the foot away from the heat.
These reflex actions are part of the body's survival mechanisms, allowing for reactions that are extraordinarily fast. For instance, when a sensory receptor responds to a sensation like heat, it sends an impulse along a sensory nerve to the spinal cord. The spinal cord then instantly sends a message through motor nerves to withdraw the affected body part. This rapid motor response bypasses the brain entirely, illustrating the speed and efficiency of spinal reflexes.
A moss-covered log is overturned by a hungry bear looking for insects to eat. The bear disturbs an ant colony, and some chipmunks leave the hollow log to search for another home in the forest. Which relationship do these organisms have with each other?
A) They are all of the same species.B) They all require the same type of food.C) They are part of a community.D) They are abiotic factors in a forest.
Answer:
C) They are part of a community
Explanation:
A community represents the sum total of populations of different species present together in an area or ecosystem. In a community, the organisms of these different species may benefit or harm each other and exhibit little or more interdependence. In the given example, beer, insects, ants, chipmunks represent the organisms of different species that are present together in a habitat. They interact with each other in various ways. For instance, the bear is a predator of insects.
Consider the following five infectious diseases: Ebola hemorrhagic fever avian influenza SARS West Nile encephalitis mad cow disease What do these diseases have in common?
Answer:
All these are emerging infectious diseases.
Explanation:
The emerging infectious diseases refer to the infections, which have appeared freshly within a population or those whose occurrence or geographic range is enhancing briskly or is threatening to upsurge in the coming time. The emerging infections can be a result of:
1. Known agents, which have dispersed to novel geographic locations or new populations.
2. Previously unknown or undetermined infectious agents.
3. Previously known agents whose function in particular diseases was not determined previously.
According to WHO, infectious diseases are emerging at a rate, which has not been noticed before. Since the 1970s, many infectious diseases have been discovered like Ebola, SARS, avian influenza, mad cow disease, and West Nile encephalitis.
With the individuals traveling much more to far greater distances in comparison to the past, encountering with wild animals, and living in more densely populated regions has caused the emerging infectious diseases to spread briskly and is resulting in global epidemics, which is a major worry.
Answer:
The correct answer is - these are emerging infectious diseases.
Explanation:
Ebola is an emerging virus cause Ebola hemorrhagic fever disease that is an infectious disease that infects the people by coming in touch with the infected animal or body fluids of other human or primates.
Avian influenza is also an infectious disease contracted by the contact of the infected bird and can be infected by the human cough sneeze. Similarly, SARS, West Nile encephalitis, and mad cow are the infectious disease that is emerging and infected by the various mode of infection.
Thus, the correct answer is - these are emerging infectious diseases.
_______ is a technique that, using multiple electrodes on the scalp, measures changes in electrical activity across populations of many neurons in the brain.
Answer:
Electroencephalography (EEG)
Explanation:
EEG is an electrophysiological monitoring or an inferential measurement of brain activity.
It involves placing electrodes along the scalp and measures the voltage fluctuations resulting from ionic current within the neurons in the brain.
It is mostly used for the diagnosis of Epilepsy which is causes abnormal readings on the Electroencephalography. It can also be used to diagnose sleep disorders, coma, stroke and brain dead.
populations around the globe. If you were a scientist studying this fungus and wanted to know if it could infect a new frog species, how would you conduct your experiment? Given the following examples, which represent reasonable or logical control(s) or treatments(s), and which would likely be unnecessary and/or uninformative?
Answer:
Two arm Experiment
Explanation:
They will make two arms or groups. In one group they will introduce the fungus and in another they wont and will observe both group to see if the group that was introduced with fungus get infected or not
Who was the author of the book Principles of Geology? The book presented arguments to support a theory of geological change, proposing that the earth was subject to slow but continuous erosion and uplift.
Answer:
The correct answer is "Charles Lyell".
Explanation:
Charles Lyell was a notorious Scottish geologist that associated events of Earth's history with natural events taking place at the same time. In 1830, Charles Lyell published the book "Principles of Geology", associating the formation of the Earth's crust with different small and vast natural events. Charles Darwin's was largely influenced by Lyell's ideas and he took his book during the famous travel trough the Galapagos islands.
Answer:
Charles Lyell
Explanation:
Charles Lyell was a Scottish geologist who explained the former transformations in the Earth’s surface in his geology masterpiece. This book is considered as the most significant scientific book ever and has 3 volumes. Lyell expressed how the surface of the Earth was changing by the time and reinforced his argument for uniformitarianism through geology.
Uniformitarianism: It is the idea that the Earth’s natural processes behave the same way today as they were in the past and will keep on doing in the future as well.
Which statement about enzymes is FALSE? Select one: a. Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature. b. Most enzymes can catalyze millions of reactions per minute. c. Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form. d. Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements.
Answer:
(C) Enzyme does not need to contact with substrate to assume its active form.
Explanation:
a) The activity of an enzyme can be increased upto certain temperature known as optimum temperature after that tepmerature will damage the enzyme.
b) The number of substrate molecule converted by one molecule of enzyme in one second is called its turn over rate, which may varry from 0.5-600000.
C) Enzymes does not need to contact with substrate to assume its active form. They just accelerate the reaction by lowering the activation energy. Enzyme binds to substrate through active stite and both changes structures slightly to best fit.(Induce fit model)
Enzyme + Sbstrate → enzyme substrate complex→ Enzyme + ProductD) Some enzymes are inactive known as apoenzyme and they need a non-protein part such as coenzyme or cofactor to become active which is known as holoenzyme.
The false statement about enzymes is that they require contact with substrate to assume their active form. Actually, enzymes are already in their active form before they encounter a substrate.
Explanation:Among the statements provided, the false statement about enzymes is: 'Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form'. In fact, enzymes are already in their active form before they encounter a substrate. When a substrate makes contact with the enzyme's active site, the enzyme undergoes a slight change in shape to achieve a perfect fit, also referred to as 'induced fit'. However, the enzyme was already in its active form prior to the substrate encounter. For instance, if we look at the disease phenylketonuria, the enzyme suited for phenylalanine degradation doesn't lack the active form; it malfunctions or is not present, leading to health complications due to phenylalanine build-up.
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Which of the following phenomena is a consequence of Independent Assortment? 1. Pure breeding plants, when mated with each other, produce completely homozygous offspring. 2. For any gene displaying complete dominance, heterozygous individuals exhibit the dominant phenotype. 2. Smooth seed trait is dominant to wrinkled seed trait in peas. 4. The phenotypic ratio among phenotypes produced from an F1 X F1 dihybrid cross is 9:3:3:1.
Answer: The answer is that the phenotypic ratio among phenotypes produced from an F1 X F1 dihybrid cross is 9:3:3:1.
Explanation:
Independent assortment of genes explains how alleles on different chromosomes arrange independently of one another during gamete formation.
So, a dihybrid cross involving TWO characters (e.g Seed color & seed shape) would have its respective alleles DISTRIBUTED whether dominant or recessive, for crossing to occur and yield varying proportion of offspring in the well spread ratio of 9:3:3:1; making it a consequence of independent assortment of genes
Using the law of conservation of energy, describe at least three energy conversions that take place when fossil fuels are used to generate electricity.
Answer: 1) Thermal energy to electrical energy
2) Heat energy to electrical energy
3) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
Explanation: according to the law of conservation of energy, energy changes from one form to another.
The three forms of energy conversions are Chemical energy to heat energy, Heat energy to mechanical energy, and Mechanical energy to electrical energy.
Conversion of energy:The process of generating electricity from fossil fuel undergoes the following energy conversions;
(i) Chemical energy to heat energy:
The natural form of fossil fuel stores chemical energy in it. when it is burned, the chemical energy is converted into heat energy.
(ii) Heat energy to mechanical energy:
The heat energy produced by burning the fuel is used to either directly rotate the blades of the electricity generator, or through producing high-energy steam by heating water which pushes the blades. Thus, heat energy is converted into mechanical energy.
(iii) Mechanical energy to electrical energy:
The rotating blades of the electricity generator are placed in a magnetic field. As the blades rotate, the magnetic flux changes, and as a result, electricity is produced.
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