List eight details that must be documented when a vaccination is given

Answers

Answer 1
Date vaccine was administered, write vaccine's manufacturer, type of vaccine and the dose, exact site injection was given, any reported/observed side effects, publication date of the VIS form given to the parent, parent education about possible side effects, and name and title of person who administered the vaccine.
Answer 2

Answer:

Date vaccine was administered,  vaccine's manufacturer,  type of vaccine and the dose,  exact site injection was given,  any reported/observed side effects,  publication date of the VIS form given to the parent,  parent education about possible side effects,  name and title of person who administered the vaccine.

Explanation:

Vaccines are biological products that protect people from certain diseases. They consist of pathogens (viruses or disease-causing bacteria) previously attenuated or killed or fragments of these agents. Its function is to stimulate an immune response of the body, which starts producing antibodies without having contracted the disease. Vaccines enable the development of so-called “immunological memory”, which is nothing more than the anticipated production of specialized antibodies that will recognize the invader if the person becomes infected with it. This way, the response to the actual infection will be faster and more effective.

When administering a vaccine, nurses should record some information, which may be used as a basis for other vaccines in the same patient or to address some effects. Among these informations should be written:

Date vaccine was administered,  vaccine's manufacturer,  type of vaccine and the dose,  exact site injection was given,  any reported/observed side effects,  publication date of the VIS form given to the parent,  parent education about possible side effects,  name and title of person who administered the vaccine.

Related Questions

What is the name of the polymorphic virus outbreak in 1991

Answers

Answer:

The name of the polymorphic virus outbreak in 1991 is called Tequila.

Security is called because there is a disruptive person in the ER. When security arrives, they find a young man sitting silently in a chair. They grab the man and begin to yell at him for being disruptive. This is an example of __
A. ineffective communication because it involved a ER patient who is not well
B. effective communication because the patient was disruptive
C. Ineffective communication because it involved aggression
D. Effective communication because the security guard needed to take control of the situation before others got annoyed

Answers

Answer:

C) Ineffective communication because it involved aggression.

Explanation:

The man was "sitting silently in a chair" when security arrived, therefore the situation had already settled down. "They grab the man and begin to yell at him for being disruptive" shows ineffective communication and behavior. If the patient was being disruptive by yelling, how is yelling at him an effective way to solve the situation, especially after he already calmed down? At that point, the security was being more disruptive than that one man.

Hope this helps! :)

I would lean more towards A but it could also be C.

Please share three (3) reasons why joining a professional organization will help support your healthcare career goals.

Answers

Answer:

the correct answer would be option 3

Explanation:

Many teens get their first job during adolescence, which __________.

Answers

Answer: B. teaches workplace skills and etiquette

Explanation: Many teens get their first job during adolescence, which __________.

A. usually provides more anxiety than it's worth

B. teaches workplace skills and etiquette

C. illustrates that work performance isn't related to success

D. all of the above

Which STD/STI can cause chancres in the first stage and and then paralysis, convulsions, heart disease, and organ failure in the same stage

Answers

Answer: primary syphilis

Explanation:should show signs up to 3mths after contact and start with a small painless sore at the infection site.

Which statement about these two restaurant meals is correct? Meal A is a salad and meal B is a salad

Answers

Answer:

Meal A

Explanation:

Meal A and B are both salads so it really doesn’t make a difference

What epistaxis is a fancy medical term for

Answers

A Fancy medical term for it is nosebleed

You an another lifeguard are preparing for CPR on an adult who is collapsed in the locker room. You determine that there is not breathing or pulse and state, "Victim has not pulse. Begin CPR." Which of the following should the other lifeugard do next?
a.) Check for breathingb.) Give 2 ventilationsc.) Begin chest compressionsd.) Open the airway

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is: C) Begin chest compressions.

Explanation:

If the patient collapsed in the locker room, the first things you must do is call the ambulance, then you open the airway (with the person on his/her back, you tilt the head back to lift the chain), and then you check his/her pulse and breathing. If the patient has no pulse nor is breathing, then chest compressions must be done at a rate of at least 100 per minute - to do this, you must place your hands in the middle of the chest and push hard and fast.

Chronic stress has a strong connection to all of the following medical conditions EXCEPT

A) impaired immune function.
B) tooth decay.
C) diabetes.
D) heart disease.

Answers

the answer is B.tooth decay

B) tooth decay.

What is chronic stress?

A consistent sense of feeling pressured and overwhelmed over a long period of time.

Symptoms include aches and pains, insomnia or weakness, less socialization, and unfocused thinking.

Treatment includes lifestyle changes, medications, and setting realistic goals.

•Involves psychiatry and psychology.

Types of Chronic Stress

Emotional stress (difficult emotions such as anger, sadness, or frustration)Environmental stress (where you live and work)Relationship stress (how you relate to friends, family, co-workers, and partners)Work stress (challenges and pressures related to your job)

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Match each daily recommended portion size with the correct food group. A. Fruits 1.5 – 2 cups B. Fats and oils 3 cups C. Dairy 5 teaspoons

Answers

Answer:

Fruit= 1.5-2 cups

Fats and oils= 5-6 teaspoons

Dairy= 3 cups

Explanation:

Many people are advocates for healthful activities. Which of these best describes a person being an advocate? A. A person who privately rejects an idea B. A person who publicly supports an idea C. A person who privately supports an idea D. A person who hasn't made up his or her mind

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Public support would make the person an advocate

Final answer:

An advocate for healthful activities is best described as a person who publicly supports an idea, using their efforts to shape policies and proposals that result in positive health outcomes.

Explanation:

An advocate is someone who publicly supports or recommends a particular cause or policy. Therefore, the best description of a person being an advocate for healthful activities would be B. A person who publicly supports an idea. This encompasses actions such as being involved in policy advocacy, where the aim is to shape or create proposals that accomplish a specific health goal. Advocates utilize tools such as facts, evidence, and analysis to influence policymakers or the general public. Whether they are private citizens, professional lobbyists, or part of nonprofit health organizations, the most effective advocates are those who actively engage with others and take a public stance in support of their issues.

They use various methods such as lobbying, demonstrations, and digital platforms to raise awareness and garner support for their cause.

Match each description with the correct injury that can occur from running.

A. Known as runner's knee, this is a condition characterized by knee pain ranging from severe to mild discomfort. It occurs when the back of the kneecap rubs the thigh bone.

B. A torn muscle occurs when the muscle is pulled apart from the Achilles tendon. Severe pain is often felt by the victim and is often, but not always, accompanied by a "pop" sound.

C. This occurs when the tendon found at the back of the ankle becomes irritated. The most common symptoms are pain and swelling around the affected tendon. The pain is typically worst at the start of exercise and decreases thereafter.

D.This is a disorder of the connective tissue that supports the arch of the foot. It results in pain in the heel and bottom of the foot that is usually most severe with the first steps of the day or following a period of rest.

E. These are pains along the inner edge of the tibia. They are caused by repeated trauma to the connective muscle tissue around the tibia. This is the most common lower leg injury among runners.

1. Achilles tendinitis

2. calf injuries

3. plantar fasciitis

4. patellofemoral pain syndrome

5. shin splints

Answers

A and 4

B and 2

C and 1

D and 3

E and 5

Final answer:

The injuries from running listed correspond to: A. Patellofemoral pain syndrome, B. Calf injuries, C. Achilles tendinitis, D. Plantar fasciitis and E. Shin splints.

Explanation:

The following descriptions can be matched to the correct injuries that can occur from running:

A. Patellofemoral pain syndrome (known as runner's knee) is a condition characterized by knee pain ranging from severe to mild discomfort. It occurs when the back of the kneecap rubs the thigh bone.B. Calf injuries are often the result of a torn muscle that occurs when the muscle is pulled apart from the Achilles tendon. This can result in severe pain and is often, but not always, accompanied by a 'pop' sound.C. Achilles tendinitis happens when the tendon found at the back of the ankle becomes irritated. Symptoms include pain and swelling around the affected tendon, which is typically worst at the start of exercise and decreases thereafter.D. Plantar fasciitis is a disorder of the connective tissue that supports the arch of the foot. Pain is felt in the heel and bottom of the foot and is usually most severe with the first steps of the day or following a period of rest.E. Shin splints present as pains along the inner edge of the tibia and are caused by repeated trauma to the connective muscle tissue around the tibia.

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According to most standards of practice, an inspector is normally required to check all of the following except

A. fences.
B. driveways.
C. walkways.
D. attached garages.

Answers

According to most standards of practice, an inspector is normally required to check all of the following except driveways.

Which factors can result in mental disorders? Check all that apply. Genetics environment personal choice brain chemistry traumatic events

Answers

Factors that can result to mental disorders in human are :

GeneticsEnvironment Brain chemistry traumatic events

What are mental disorders ?

Mental disorders are medical conditions which affects our brain adversely.They affect the way we think, behave and relate to others they can be temporary or long lasting. some cause of mental disroder includes:

Environment : certain environments such as a toxic enviroment might lead to mental disorder Genetics ; Mental disorder can be inherited Brain Chemistry : Chemical imbalance in the brain can lead to mental disorderTraumatic events : A traumatic head injury or war might cause mental disorder.

Hence we can conclude that Factors that may lead to mental disorders are as listed above.

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Answer:

   Genetics

   Environment

   Brain chemistry

   traumatic events

Explanation:

how do genetics play a role in fetal development

Answers

Answer:

The strong genetic correlation we have seen between different fetal growth criteria, especially early in pregnancy, suggests that skeletal growth and adipogenesis may be modified by a small set of genetic pathways early in pregnancy.

Explanation:

What is the number one cause of death for teenagers?

Answers

Answer:

Unintentional accidents

Explanation:

Theres also getting killed, and killing oneself, cancer, and heart disease

car accidents are number one leading cause of death for teenagers

Choose the option that best matches the description given.

Nutrition labels required on all processed foods in the United States.

Expiration date
country of origin
nutrition facts

Answers

i think the awnser is nutrition facts i really hope this helps ;)

What is the correct order for the stages of the general adaptation syndrome?

Answers

Answer:

The first stage is the alarm stage, which provides a burst of energy. In the second stage, known as the resistance stage, the body attempts to resist or adapt to the stressor. The last stage is known as the exhaustion stage because energy is depleted.

Final answer:

The General Adaptation Syndrome comprises three stages: Alarm Reaction, Stage of Resistance, and Stage of Exhaustion. These represent the body's immediate reaction, ongoing resistance, and potential exhaustion to persistently high levels of stress, respectively.

Explanation:

The General Adaptation Syndrome, developed by Hans Selye, outlines the three stages the body goes through when reacting and adapting to stress. These stages are: (1) Alarm Reaction, (2) Stage of Resistance, and (3) Stage of Exhaustion.

The Alarm Reaction is the first stage, characterized by the body's immediate, fight-or-flight response to a stressful situation. This response is facilitated by hormones such as epinephrine and norepinephrine that prepare the body for physical exertion. Once the stressor is removed, the body quickly returns to normal.

The second stage, the Stage of Resistance, kicks in if the stress continues. The body enters a period of resistance, where it tries to cope with the ongoing stress. This can involve a range of physiological responses, including increased mental alertness and preparedness for potential harm.

The final stage is the Stage of Exhaustion. If the stress persists and the body can't maintain its resistance, it may experience exhaustion, which can result in diminished health, a breakdown of body systems, or even death if the stress is severe enough and the resources for coping are insufficient.

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Ron and Abdul disagree about whose turn it is to drive. Which statement could Ron make to best take ownership of his feelings? "You always get to drive." "Fighting is so frustrating." "I would like to have a turn driving." "It is important to share responsibilities."

Answers

Answer:

"I would like to have a turn driving."

Explanation:

Ron and Abdul want to drive the same car and as you already know, only one person is allowed to drive the car at a time. This case is very simple to solve and there is no need for a big discussion that will open the friendship of friends, since a car trip is always long and they can reverse the direction, where each one can drive part of the way. For this reason, if Ron wants to drive the idea so badly, he should make it clear and tell his friend. Ron should say "I would like to have a turn driving."

"I would like to have a turn driving" is the best statement for Ron to take ownership of his feelings.

What are Feelings?

This is defined as a conscious experience created after the physical sensation or emotional experience.

Telling Abdul about wanting to drive in an objective way helps to prevent conflict which was why option C was chosen as the most appropriate choice.

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When under the influence of alcohol, muscle ___________ is slow and errors are made in interpreting speed.

Answers

Answer:

muscle death I think, not sure though

Explanation:

(I WILL GIVE YOU BRAINLIEST) Also im just checking to see if my answers are correct.

Endorphins released in the bloodstream during exercise ______________.



make you feel sluggish.


can reduce stress.


make you tired.


have no impact on your body.



A good exercise program includes


a warm up and cool down


working out 7 days a week


ignoring your body's signals


all of the above

Answers

1:Can reduce stress and Released by the pituitary gland.

2:Working out 7 days a week

Endorphins released during exercise can help reduce stress and are part of a positive response to physical activity. A well-structured exercise program should include a warm-up and cool-down to prevent injury and facilitate recovery.

Endorphins released in the bloodstream during exercise can reduce stress. They are known to play a major role in the body's inhibitory response to pain and help create a feeling similar to a "runner's high," contributing to the positive effects on anxiety and depression. This is contrary to making you feel sluggish or tired, and endorphins certainly have an impact on your body. Vigorous aerobic exercise is one way to stimulate endorphin release.

A good exercise program includes a warm-up and cool-down. These are essential to prepare your body for exercise and to gradually return it to a resting state afterwards. Working out 7 days a week or ignoring your body's signals, on the other hand, are not recommended practices and can lead to overtraining or injury.

Patient is suffering from conjestive heart failure involving the left side of their heart why would they experience dyspnea

Answers

Answer:

I am not for sure about this question.

Explanation:

What is the correct procedure for lifting a heavy box from the floor to a table height shelf

Answers

Answer:

Bend knees 90 degrees( kind of like a squat) this puts the least pressure and strain on your back. Place hands to pick up box (depends on the box, but mostly at the sides and hold from below) slowing straighten legs/knees from the positions and then proceed to place it on table. If the table is lowers than your level of holding the box, begin to bend knees to rest the box on the table.

Explanation:

On the way home from the library last night you heard the footsteps of someone following you. You turned and saw the shadow of a large man heading towards you. You ran to your car faster than you had ever run. By the time you got to your car your heart rate was rapid and you were sweating. This fight or flight response was most likely the result of activity in your somatic nervous system. central nervous system. parasympathetic nervous system. sympathetic nervous system

Answers

sympathetic nervous system

Final answer:

The 'fight or flight' response during a perceived threat, characterized by accelerated heart rate and sweating, is managed by the sympathetic nervous system. It's an automatic physiological reaction allowing the body to respond quickly to potentially dangerous situations.

Explanation:

The scenario you've described, with rapid heartbeat and sweating as you ran to your car, is an example of the 'fight or flight' response. This response is regulated by the sympathetic nervous system, which is a component of the autonomic nervous system. Upon perceiving a threat, your body initiates this response to prepare you for immediate action, either to confront the threat (fight) or to retreat from it (flight).

Processes regulated by the sympathetic nervous system during this response include an accelerated heart rate and inhibited digestion. Other relevant effects could be dilation of pupils, increased sweating, and rapid respiration. These physiological alterations serve to prepare you for the physical rigor required in such situations. The systems working collectively ensure an efficient 'fight or flight' response, with the ultimate aim of ensuring survival.

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Choose the term that best matches the description given.

Information about your performance on a task or test is called

Critical learning
critical view
feedback

Answers

Information about your performance on a task or test is called feedback

Final answer:

Feedback is the correct term matching the description and is pivotal in educational settings for assessing performance and guiding improvement.

Explanation:

The term that best matches the description of 'information about your performance on a task or test' is feedback. Feedback is a critical assessment of information produced, which helps you understand how well you've performed and what improvements you may need to make. It's often a goal-oriented process that can be used to gauge one's performance across various tasks, including tests and assignments in educational settings.

It can be positive, negative or neutral, and is given to help the person improve their performance in the future. Critical learning is a process of analyzing, evaluating and synthesizing information to form a judgment. Critical view is a term that does not describe the given description.

Which describes a clinical psychologist? A. specialist in diagnosing and treating mental disorders who can prescribe medication B. specialist working primarily with the family members of someone in psychiatric care C. specialist who studies behavior and emotions, but can't prescribe medication

Answers

Answer: C

I got to one, and they cannot prescribe medication. A psychiatrist can prescribe medication

Explanation:

A clinical psychologist is a mental health professional who has received highly specialized training in the diagnosis and treatment of mental, behavioral, and emotional illnesses. The correct option is A.

What is a mental health?

The emotional, psychological, and social well-being all contribute to our mental health. It has an impact on how we think, feel, and act.

It also influences how we deal with stress, interact with others, and make decisions. Mental health is essential throughout life, from childhood and adolescence to adulthood.

A clinical psychologist is a mental health expert with advanced training in the detection and rehabilitation of mental, behavioral, and emotional disorders.

Thus, A is the correct answer.

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Which is not one of the seven health skills that will help you achieve maintain and protect yout physical health

Answers

Answer:

What are the options?????

Explanation:

How far is the free throw line from the backboard

Answers

Answer:

15 feet in the USA

Explanation:

The NBA, the NCAA and the National Federation of State High School Associations dictate that the free-throw line is 15 feet horizontally from the plane of the front of the backboard. The free-throw line on international courts is 15.09 feet from the backboard

An obese man, 5' 5" and 200 pounds, sets a long-term goal to lose 50 pounds. Which of these is a reasonable benchmark he might set for himself? A. Exercise every day. B. Lose 100 pounds in eight months. C. Lose 25 pounds in four months. D. Quit smoking.

Answers

Answer: C

Explanation:

A because losing weight over time is much healthier than losing it really fast

Everyone experiences a period of __________ during puberty.

Answers

Rapid change is the answer

Answer:

D. rapid change

Explanation:

edge 2022 topic test

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