Answer:
Metabolic waste, such as excess sodium, appears in the _urine__, whereas food components that are not digested or absorbed, such as fiber, appear in the _stool_.
Explanation:
Urine includes metabolic waste. Metabolic waste consists of compounds, such as excess sodium, which have been absorbed out of the cells, blood, and elsewhere by the kidneys and excreted in urine. Stool contains non-digested or ingested products, such as fiber or a paperclip. Such objects travel into the large intestines, where the body extracts water and minerals, and stores the remains as stool
Answer: URINE;STOOL
Explanation: Metabolic wastes are wastes generated after the CATABOLISM (the breakdown of foods). These wastes are appears in forms of micro substances like excess Sodium and others like magnesium are sent out after FILTRATION by the KIDNEYS.
Foods that are not digested ( they are not broken down) through the CATABOLISM are removed from the body through the STOOL. Example include FIBRES.
Josiah has formed a theory that consumption of sugar makes it difficult for people to fall asleep within one hour. He has designed a study where his hypothesis is that the more sugar people eat, the longer it will take before they can go to sleep. What should Josiah do next?
a. Formulate a Research Question
b. Use Descriptive Statistics
c. Analyze the date that he has collected
d. Test his hypothesis
Answer:
Test his hypothesis.
Explanation:
The scientific hypothesis gives the detailed information about the particular phenomena. The hypothesis is generally made on the observation of the scientists.
The scientific hypothesis needs to be explained by the scientific tests if need to become a scientific hypothesis. If the Josiah has a doubt in her theory, she must test her hypothesis again and again so that the new correct theory can be made.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
A client diagnosed with cancer has met with the oncologist and is now weighing whether to undergo chemotherapy or radiation for treatment. This client is demonstrating which ethical principle in making this decision?
a) Autonomy.
b) Justice.
c) Beneficence.
d) Confidentiality.
Answer: Autonomy
Explanation:
Autonomy is the capacity to make uncoerced decisions. That is, making an independent decision out of one's free will rather than being forced.
Personal autonomy as being demonstrated by this client is the capacity for one to decide and pursue a course of action in one's life by oneself.
A policyowner has a health insurance policy with his wife listed as the primary beneficiary. He would like to change the primary beneficiary to his sister. Which of the following is true?
Answer:
Unless the policy designated the current beneficiary as irrevocable, the policy owner can make the change at any time.
Explanation:
A primary beneficiary is simply the person you have selected in your health insurance policy to be the one to be called upon to receive any benefits. In the case of a health insurance policy, changing primary beneficiary can be done at any time the owner deems necessary. The only circumstance in which the primary beneficiary is irrevocable is only if it is stated in the policy.
The health care team determines that the family of an infant with failure to thrive who is to be discharged will need follow-up care. Which approach would be the most effective method of follow-up?
Answer:
a weekly visit schedule by a community health Nurse
Explanation:
The infant-mother interaction monitoring is very paramount after discharge,
The need to monitor and evaluate progression in the infant weight gain is another important target of the follow up.
Therefore the community health nurse needs scheduled weekly visit to the child;s home environment to meet up with the two above essential duties, to provide support, care, education and proffer solutions to some healthcare challenges that may arise with mother and the child in their permanent natural environment.
Long after she had successfully extinguished a dog's classically conditioned response of salivating at the sound of a bell, Dr. Sheckenov noticed that the dog again salivated when it heard the bell. This example illustrates the phenomenon of _______.
a. instinctive drift.b. stimulus generalization.c. spontaneous recovery.d. latent learning.
Answer:
c. spontaneous recovery
Explanation:
Dogs tend to associate stimuli and develop a response. Spontaneous recovery is related to learning and memory, and in technical terms, it is the reappearance of a conditioned response after a delay. It is associated with classical conditioning, by combining two stimuli and producing a response.
The phenomenon where an extinguished conditioned response reappears after a rest period is called spontaneous recovery. Option C is correct.
The phenomenon illustrated when Dr. Sheckenov noticed that the dog again salivated at the sound of the bell long after the conditioned response had been extinguished is known as spontaneous recovery.
After a rest period without the conditioned stimulus, an extinguished conditioned response can spontaneously return. In classical conditioning, extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus repeatedly, leading to a decrease in the conditioned response. However, with spontaneous recovery, the conditioned response can reappear after some time even without retraining.
Hence, C. is the correct option.
Which entity was charged with providing leadership for the development and nationwide implementation of an interoperable health information technology infrastructure?a. ONCb. CMSC. IOMd. None of the above
Answer:
Answer is ONC.
Explanation:
The full meaning of ONC is Office of the National Coordinator For Health Information Technology.
The role of this office the promotion of health information technology through out the United States, also monitoring its development.
They are the office to see into the provision of the electronic health records which will help to prevent or stop medical error and eventually stop the use of paper records.
Indirect standardization should be used if age-specific death rates of the population for standardization are unknown or unstable. True or false?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
In a given population system whereby the age-specific mortality rates can be estimated or determined, the best standardization method is the direct method. However, if the age-specific mortality rates of the given population system cannot be determined or estimated, the indirect standardization method should be applied.
In which of the following phases of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model can the TRX Suspension push-up be effectively integrated?
Answer:
Which activity is an example of binging?
consuming a lot of food in one day
reading a couple chapters of a book every day
watching an episode of the same show every day
drinking a cup of coffee each morning
Explanation:
There is some evidence that relaxation techniques may be an effective part of an overall treatment plan for some stress related disorders, including all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer: Hi, you provided an incomplete question, but no to worry I will provide you with some basic information about this in order for you to be able to tackle questions on this.
Explanation:
Ok, let us start by defining Relaxation techniques. Well, relaxation techniques are the methods or therapy used to reduce stress and increase the blood flow to the muscles.
There are many importance of Practicing relaxation techniques. Few of the importance are giving below;
(1). Relaxation techniques helps reduce blood pressure.
(2). Relaxation techniques reduce fatigue and stress.
(3).Relaxation techniques increases digestion.
Some types of Relaxation techniques include the following;
(1). Visualization, (2). Massage, (3). Yoga, (4) Autogenic training, (5). Music and art therapy, (5). Hydrotherapy, (6). Deep breathing and so on.
There has been evidences that relaxation techniques may be an effective part of an overall treatment plan for some stress related disorders. Few of these evidence are; in chemotherapy-induced nausea, management of chronic headaches in children and so on.
While caring for a child who will be undergoing a lumbar puncture, the nurse explains the procedure to the infant’s mother. Which statement by the mother would indicate a need for further education?
Answer:
"I will cradle her in my arms after the procedure for at least 30 minutes."
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the most common statement that would indicate a need for further education would be "I will cradle her in my arms after the procedure for at least 30 minutes." This is because after a lumbar puncture the child will need to be on bed-rest (usually in a sideways position) for up to 4 hours during the recovery period.
The mother needing further education likely misunderstands the safety, purpose, and diagnostic process of lumbar puncture. Education should encompass the reasons for choosing the lumbar region and the significance of lab tests beyond CSF's appearance.
Explanation:The lumbar puncture is a medical procedure performed to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for diagnostic or therapeutic reasons. It is safely conducted in the lower lumbar region of the vertebral column, between the lumbar vertebrae L1 and L5, where there is a reduced risk of damaging the spinal cord. The CSF obtained should be clear, and if it is cloudy, it could indicate an infection, which would require further testing to identify any microorganisms.
A statement by the mother which may indicate the need for further education could be one that misunderstands the purpose of the procedure, its relative safety, or the potential implications of the CSF findings. For example, a mother who believes that the procedure could be easily performed at a higher level of the spine without risk, or who expects immediate diagnostic results from the appearance of the CSF alone, would need additional information.
Continued educational support for the mother could include explaining why the lumbar region is chosen over other spine areas due to the absence of the spinal cord in the lower lumbar levels, as well as emphasizing the importance of lab tests for an accurate diagnosis beyond visual examination of the CSF.
What is the problem with doing little or no flexibility exercises with lots of muscle strengthening exercises
Answer:
Doing little or no flexibility exercise with lots of muscle strengthening exercises may lead to a condition called "muscle-bound."
Explanation:
Flexibility exercise is very crucial especially when you are doing endurance or strength exercises. This will enhance your body's range of motion because the body will be more flexible. This means that you have more freedom when it comes to your movements. Examples of this are yoga and pilates.
If you are doing a lot of muscle strengthening exercises without or with little flexibility exercise, then this may result to a "muscle-bound" condition. This means that your muscles are overly developed, thus it becomes harder for you to move normally. This lessens your range of motion.
The more you do the strength training, the more the muscles in your body elongate, resulting to a more tightly pulled connective tissue. This will then restrict your body's flexibility or range of motion.
A client admitted to the cardiac care unit after a myocardial infarction develops shortness of breath, tachycardia, and a cough with frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which breath sound will the nurse expect when assessing this client?
Answer:
Course rales.
Explanation:
Myocardial infarction may be defined as the medical condition in which the heart do not receive blood supply in the particular part. This might effect the heart muscle and the death of an individual.
Course rales are the brief, popping sound that are mainly experienced in the case of myocardial infarction. The client might develop the sputum that reflects the breath sounds by the accumulation of the fluid in the lungs. This might cause the heart failure as well.
Thus, the correct answer is course rales.
The expected breath sound the nurse will hear when assessing the client with symptoms of pulmonary edema is crackles (rales), which occur due to fluid in the lung's alveoli.
When the nurse assesses this client, the expected breath sound is crackles, also known as rales. These crackling sounds occur when air moves through the fluid-filled alveoli during breathing. The combination of shortness of breath, tachycardia, cough with frothy pink-tinged sputum, and the presence of crackles strongly suggests that this client has developed pulmonary edema following their myocardial infarction.
In similar scenarios such as pneumonia or bronchitis, crackles may also be heard due to the presence of mucus in the airways. The nurse should document the findings, including the character of the breath sounds and other observations, and report them promptly to the healthcare provider for further management. In severe cases of respiratory distress, interventions like BiPAP therapy, antibiotics, or other medications may be necessary based on the underlying cause.
Miralee needs a new toothbrush. She wants a toothbrush that gently massages her gums. There is a new electric toothbrush on the market that is all the rage right now. A famous actor endorses it, and everyone has been talking about it. There is also another regular toothbrush that has extremely soft bristles. While both are in the same price range, the regular toothbrush has softer bristles that will take care of her sensitive gums. In addition, the handle is sturdy and has a solid rubber grip. There is no celebrity endorsing this toothbrush, though.
Which criteria should Miralee use for her selection? Check all that apply.
that the toothbrush is safe to use
that the toothbrush is of superior quality
that the toothbrush massages gums
that the toothbrush is endorsed by a celebrity
that the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association
ANSWER:
- that the toothbrush is safe to use.
- that the toothbrush is of superior quality.
- that the toothbrush massages gums.
- that the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association.
The answer to the given question about the use of toothbrush by Miralee is explained below.
Explanation:
As Miralee has some gum problem and she wants a new toothbrush that can help her massage her gums and sooth them, so she should select the toothbrush on the basis of what comfort or advantage she is seeking in it.
So Miralee should go for the following selection:
the toothbrush is safe to use. the toothbrush is of superior quality. the toothbrush massages gums. the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association.She should not go for a toothbrush just because it is endorsed by a famous celebrity, rather she should choose the brush according to her needs.
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Answer:
the toothbrush is safe to use.
the toothbrush is of superior quality.
the toothbrush massages gums.
the toothbrush is recommended by a medical association
Explanation:
Although the pituitary gland is often referred to as the master gland of the body, the hypothalamus exerts control over the pituitary gland. How does the hypothalamus control both the anterior and posterior pituitary functioning?
Answer:
The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary to release or inhibit pituitary hormone production.
Explanation:
The pituitary gland has two parts—the anterior lobe and posterior lobe—that have two very separate functions. The hypothalamus sends signals to the pituitary to release or inhibit pituitary hormone production.
The hypothalamus secrete releasing hormone that regulates both the anterior and posterior pituitary gland.
What is hypothalamus?It is located at the base of brain.It secrets hormones that regulates anterior and posterior pituitary gland, temperature and homeostasis.What is releasing hormones?"Releasing hormones are peptide hormones, which are produced within the hypothalamus."These stimulates anterior and posterior pituitary gland to release their hormone.What is anterior pituitary gland?This is the front lobe of pituitary gland.It produces 6 hormones: (1) prolactin, (2) growth hormone, (3) adrenocorticotropic hormone, (4) luteinizing hormone, (5) follicle-stimulating hormone, and (6) thyroid-stimulating hormone.What is posterior pituitary gland?It produces two hormones: vasopressin and oxytocin.This hormones are produced when a message is send by hypothalamus.Hence, the hypothalamus secretes hormone which stimulates the pituitary gland.
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Which drug can be used to treat three types of seizures (tonic-clonic seizures, complex partial seizures) and status epilepticus?
Answer:
Lamotrigine
Explanation:
Lamotrigine is an adjunctive therapy for the treatment of partial seizures, primary generalized tonic–clonic seizures, and generalized seizures of Lennox–Gastaut syndrome in patients two years of age and above.
Malnutrition includes deficiencies, imbalances, and excesses of nutrients, alone or in combination, any of which can take a toll on health over time.A. TrueB. False
Answer: True
Explanation: malnutrition is essentially the lack of nourishment. An imbalance (less or more) of one or more nutrients certainly has the capacity of causing health issues. And as such it includes deficiencies, overabundance and imbalances.
Why is cholesterol not considered an essential nutrient? What organ manufactures cholesterol? What foods contain cholesterol? What other compounds in the body are made with cholesterol as the starting material?
Answer:
1. Cholesterol is not considered an essential nutrient because the liver is able to produce it.
2. The liver manufactures cholesterol
3. Foods that come from animals contain cholesterol
4. Cholesterol is a precursor molecule for all steroid hormones and vitamin D.
Explanation:
Cholesterol is a molecule biodynthesized by all animal cells and it is metabolized and produced in the liver of humans. It has a wide range of functions, including being part of all animal cell membranes, takes part in intercellular transport, in signaling, it is a precursor molecule in vitamins D and many hormones and it is part of our metabolism. Cholesterol is found in all animal products and in some plant foods such as avocado, flax seeds and peanuts.
Personal hygiene is an important part of being a responsible person. True or False
Answer:True
Explanation:
The change in heart rate that occurs between 1 and 5 minutes of exercise is an adaptation that:______.(1) reduces the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells(2) increases the rate at which carbon dioxide is carried to the muscle cells(3) results in the production of more ATP in muscle cells(4) slows the destruction of enzymes involved in respiration of muscle cells
Answer:
(3) results in the production of more ATP in muscle cells
Explanation:
When exercising, Oxygen is introduced to the muscle cells via the Red Blood Cells. Hemoglobin which is carried by the Red Blood Cells binds with these oxygen to to supply the muscle cells with oxyenated blood. Thus, as blood flows into the muscle cell during exercise, there is increase in the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells.
On the otherhand, Carbondioxide is not carried to the muscles cells but it is diffused out of the bloodstream as bicarbonate ion (HCO⁻₃).
The change in heart rate that occurs between 1 and 5 minutes of exercise is an adaptation that: results in the production of more ATP in muscle cells. Thi s is becuase, Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a compound with high potential energy. The synthesize ATP molecules in the muscle cells is gotten from complex molecules such as carbohydrate, proteins and fats. So during exercise, there are more production of more ATP in the muscle cells to assist in the degradation of carbohydrate, proteins and fats that give rise to pyruvate, amino acids and fatty acids respectively.
The change in heart rate during exercise reduces the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells.
Explanation:The change in heart rate that occurs between 1 and 5 minutes of exercise is an adaptation that reduces the rate at which oxygen is carried to the muscle cells. This is because exercise increases the demand for oxygen in the muscles, and the heart rate increases to deliver more oxygen-rich blood to the muscles. This adaptation allows the muscles to receive the oxygen they need to produce ATP and continue functioning during exercise.
During exercise, the demand for oxygen in muscle cells increases, and the cardiovascular system responds to meet this demand. As you engage in physical activity, your heart rate increases to pump more blood, and consequently more oxygen, to the muscles.
The increase in heart rate is part of the body's response to deliver oxygen and nutrients to working muscles efficiently. This process enhances the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, ensuring that the muscles receive an adequate supply to support the increased metabolic demands during exercise.
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On the bus on the way to school, Angelique’s friend Jack shows her his new ear piercing. When she asks him where he had it done, he says his friend Georgia did it for him at her house. Jack says she did piercings on a few of their friends over the weekend using a safety pin. What are the possible negative outcomes from Jack’s decisions? Check all that apply. tetanus nerve damage hearing loss allergic reaction hepatitis
ANSWER:
- tetanus
- nerve damage
- allergic reaction
- hepatitis
Answer:
All the answers except hearing loss.
Explanation:
your welcome
Ear and nose piercing is done on the body parts using a pointed needle-like object and jewellery is inserted in the place.
The possible negative outcomes from Jack’s decisions are:
Option 1: TetanusOption 2: Nerve damageOption 4: Allergic reactionOption 5: HepatitisThis can be explained as:
Tetanus is a bacterial illness that concerns the jaw muscles and seals them. It can be caused by punctured areas.Nerves lying below skin surfaces can get injured due to sharp objects.An allergic reaction can occur due to unsafe needle piercing as they can have bacteria and other microbes on them.Hepatitis or liver damage can happen due to the use of the same unhygienic needle.Therefore, except hearing loss all are possible outcomes.
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A Medicare supplement contract cannot define a "pre-existing condition" more restrictively than a condition for which medical advice was given or treatment recommended within how many months of the effective date of coverage?
Answer:
Within six months of effective date of coverage.
Explanation:
the Medicare supplement Insurance minimum standards- regulation 33 states that the issuer may not apply pre-existing condition limitations for those diseases that are prevalent for more than six months and are covered by the exchanged health policy. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) allows insurers to refuse coverage for 12 months within six months of the pre-existing condition and does not need to add benefits in the given previous plan.
Why is it impossible to taste substances with a dry tongue
Answer:
BECAUSE TASTANTS DISSOLVE IN SALIVA, ENTERS THE TASTE PORES, THIS CAUSES MECHANISMS TO MAKE THE TASTE CELLS TO DEPOLARIZE, THIS HELPS START THE WAY WE PROCESS TASTE. WITHOUT SALIVA THE BEGINNING STEPS OF TASTE WILL NOT BE ACTIVATED.
Explanation:
A chef sees unused ingredients in the refrigerator so wants to design adapt a recipe to a recipe he can make with the ingredients he has. What steps will he take to determine the number of portions he can make if he cannot make a full recipe?
Final answer:
To determine the number of portions a chef can make with unused ingredients, they need to identify the required amounts, compare them to the available amounts, and calculate the limiting ingredient.
Explanation:
When a chef wants to adapt a recipe based on the ingredients they have, they need to determine the number of portions they can make. Here are the steps they can take:
Identify the total amount of each ingredient required for the recipe.
Weigh or measure the corresponding ingredients they have in their refrigerator.
Calculate the ratio between the required amount and the available amount for each ingredient.
Find the lowest ratio amongst all the ingredients. This will be the limiting ingredient.
Divide the available amount of the limiting ingredient by its ratio to determine the number of portions they can make.
By following these steps, the chef will be able to determine the number of portions they can make when they don't have enough ingredients to make a full recipe.
Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg body weight at 14 months than she did at 11 months. This change in appetite probably indicates that she is:
Here is the complete question
Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg body weight at 14 months than she did at 11 months. This change in appetite probably indicates that she is:
a.ill and needs medical attention.
b.not as physically active now as when she was 11 months old.
c.in a less rapid stage of growth now.
d.becoming malnourished.
Answer:
in a less rapid stage of growth now
Explanation:
The calorie is a unit of energy that is ubiquitously used in nutrition. A measure of how much energy a food contains is dependent on the number of calories in the food. Estimation by researchers have proven and shown that a gram of carbohydrates has 4 calories, a gram of protein has 4 calories and a gram of fat has 9 calories and Compilation of these three are essential for body body build up.
If Nancy consumes fewer kcalories per kg, the body weight at 14 months will be less rapid than she did at 11 months, it is likely acceptable to justify there is a less rapid stage of growth now in Nancy after consuming fewer amount of calories in subsequent months than earlier.
Describe some negative effects of competitive stress and explain how to manage it in a positive manner
Answer:
Any of the usual symptoms associated with stress (nervousness, high blood pressure, more susceptible to colds); relaxation and a positive attitude are important.
Explanation:
Competitive stress as defined by a psychologist is an "Feeling of difference between the demands placed on a athlete by the people around the athlete and the athlete's reaction capability and and resource for getting those expectation."Like any type of stress competitive stress has it's negative effects as well .An athlete might get nervous,might receive unnecessary pressure and even might loose confidence.It can be managed by keeping a positive attitude ,relaxing oneself and by not putting to much stress on oneself.Reggie takes a look at the time between antibiotic order and administration in the other ICUs in his hospital. He discovers that most of the ICUs have the same problem. This is an example of which of the following actions of leaders discussed in this lesson?
Answer:
Forming a clearer picture of the problem .
Explanation:
The intensive care unit (ICU) is the special health care department that provide special care to the patient. The ICU involves the proper sterile condition to the patient.
The ICU have some problem that are common to almost all the ICU. The Reggie example illustrates that clear picture of the problem faced by the ICU. The Reggie has the leadership quality and in the high position to take legal action against the hospital leadership.
Thus, the correct answer is forming a clearer picture of the problem .
A frantic neighbor is knocking at your door. She says that she cannot wake her sleeping roommate. She remembers that her roommate took some pills about 2 hours ago, but she is not sure what they were or where her roommate keeps them. You enter and see a person lying face-up on the couch but not moving. You want to help. How do you respond?
Answer:
-Check for airway passage blockage if none
-Size the scene right up.
-Shout-tap-shout. The response and respiration check should be at least 5 seconds but not more than 10 seconds.
-If no injuries are found during head-to-toe checks while waiting for EMS to arrive, put the person in a recovery position on his side.
The emergency protocols are necessary and can be life-saving for the victim. The steps of the protocols should be followed sequentially.
The responder should follow the steps until the EMS arrives as:
The responder should check for any airway blockage and breathing pattern and pulse of the victim.Size up the scene, which means that the responder should ensure all the resources are available, the victim is in the safe zone, and update the EMS about the whole situation.Follow the shout-tap-shout protocol, in which the respiration and response of the victim should be checked for at least 5 seconds. If no visible injuries or clots are observed on the body, the responder should put the victim on the side in the recovery position until the EMS arrives.
Thus, the responder should follow the emergency protocol and call 911 to save the victim.
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Which statement is TRUE regarding Healthy People 2020?
a) It is revised frequently by the USDA.
b) It explains the 5 food groups.
c) It is revised every 20 years by the DHHS.
d) It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education.
The true statement about Healthy People 2020 is that it aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. It is developed by the DHHS, not the USDA, and targets all aspects of health.
Explanation:The statement that is TRUE regarding Healthy People 2020 is: d) It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. Healthy People 2020 is a program developed by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) in the United States with the goal of improving the nation's health.
This initiative sets out a comprehensive set of 10-year national goals and objectives for improving the health of all Americans. While it is reviewed and evaluated every decade by the DHHS, it does not fall within the purview of the USDA, and it goes beyond dietary guidelines like the 5 food groups to encompass all aspects of health, with a particular focus on eliminating disparities and enhancing access to health education.
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The true statement about Healthy People 2020 is that it aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. It's an initiative revised every ten years by the DHHS that focuses on promoting health equality and enhancing health knowledge access, instead on explaining the five food groups.
Explanation:The correct statement regarding Healthy People 2020 is: It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education.
Healthy People 2020 is an initiative by the U.S Department of Health & Human Services (DHHS). This organization revisits and updates its objectives every ten years, not every 20 years as stated in the question. Healthy People 2020 does not directly deal with providing explanations of the five food groups; such guidelines' framing lies more with the USDA. Its primary focus is on promoting health equity and enhancing the health knowledge and education access across the American population to improve nationwide health outcomes.
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A client in labor has been given an epidural anesthetic. Which nursing assessment finding is most important immediately following the administration of epidural anesthesia?
Answer:
c) Maternal pulse increases from 78 to 96 beats/minute.
According to the Employee Benefit Research Institute (EBRI), in 2013 ________ percent of employers with 50 or more employees offered at least one health promotion activity.
Answer:
80 percent of employees with 50 or more employees offered at least one health promotion activity.
Explanation:
EBRI is a non-partisan and non-profit research institute in Washington D.C. It produces research data on different public economics and health issues such as savings, retirement, economic security, health insurance coverage etc. It provides authentic research-based data to address the physical health and financial well-being graphs of the United States population specially the retired citizens.
Answer: 80 percent of employees with 50 or more employees offered at least one health promotion activity.
Explanation: