Answer:
No, it is not correct.
Explanation:
No, this is not an adequate representation for the total number of genes in the studied organism. The reason is because we are looking for start/stop signals to make comparisons with a database, and only genes that encode proteins carry start/stop signals; therefore, the 20,000 genes that were predicted correspond only to genes that encode proteins, leaving aside others that do not, so the estimate obtained is not correct.
As you continue to cross the offspring resulting from the previous question with albinos, what will occur in the growing population?
Answer selections:
a) the percentage of agouti will increase
b) the percentage of chinchillas will increase
c) the percentage of both dominant traits (agouti and chinchilla) will increase
d) the percentage of albinos will increase
*any explanation with answer is welcome for best understanding*
Answer:
D. The percentage of albinos will increase.
Explanation:
In the growing population it is certain that the percentage of albinos will surely increase because it is continuous breeding involving albinos.
Answer:
The percentage of albinos will increase.
a cell found in the root of the plant would most likely lack what cell structure.
Mitochondria
Cell wall
Cell membrane
Chloroplasts
Answer:
The cells found in the root of the plant normally lacks chloroplasts, as roots do not perform photosynthesis. The main function of chloroplast is photosynthesis.
Explanation:
The plant cell contains nucleus, cell wall, cell membrane, mitochondria, chloroplasts, vacuole, endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes etc. Chloroplasts contain green pigments which give green color to the plants. The main function of chloroplast is photosynthesis. During photosynthesis, the plants produce glucose and release oxygen by using carbon dioxide from the air, and absorbing water and nutrients from the soil. Using the glucose in the plants and oxygen, mitochondria produce energy.
The root system of the plants absorb water and nutrients from the soil. The absorbed water and nutrients are then transported to various parts of the plant to carry out processes like photosynthesis, maintaining turgor pressure etc. They have different types of cell which perform some specific functions. These cells also contain cell wall, cell membrane and mitochondria. Mitochondria provides energy for the active transport of water and nutrients. But chloroplasts are absent in root cells as they do not perform photosynthesis.
2. In the SN1 mechanism, the second step is attack of the nucleophile, so increasing the nucleophile concentration should speed up this step. Why, then, do we say that the rate of an SN1 reaction does not depend on the concentration of the nucleophile?
Answer:
The rate of reaction depends on the rate determining step of a nonelementary reaction
Explanation:
A non elementary reaction is a reaction that proceeds in a sequence of steps. One of the steps is usually the slowest step in the reaction sequence. This slowest step is called the rate determining step. In an SN1 reaction, the rate determining step is the formation of the carbocation, the concentration of the carbocation affects the rate of reaction because it is involved in the rate determining step. The attack of the nucleophile is a fast step and does not affect the rate of reaction.
Answer:because the rate determining step is not the second step where nucleophilic concentration is important but rather the first step is the rate determining step in SN1 reaction
Explanation: the rate determining step is the slowest step in a reaction chain and SN1 reaction mechanism is first characterized by formation of a carboncation which is an endothermic reaction hence the is the slowest step in the chain reaction
Your friend is a pioneer in ES cell research. In her research, she uses an ES cell line that originated from an inbred strain of laboratory mice called FG426. She has just figured out methods that allow her to grow an entire liver from an ES cell and has successfully grown 10 livers. She demonstrates that the newly grown livers are functional by successfully transplanting one of the new livers into a FG426 laboratory mouse. You are particularly excited about this, because you have a sick pet mouse, Squeaky. You are very attached to Squeaky, as you found him when you were out camping in New Hampshire. Unfortunately, Squeaky has developed liver disease and will not live much longer without a liver transplant. After you see your friend on TV talking about her new method for growing mouse livers, you immediately grab your cell phone to ask her whether Squeaky could have one of the newly grown livers. Just as you are about to dial your friend, you remember something you learned in cell biology and realize that instead, you should ask your friend about possibly using therapeutic cloning for Squeaky’s benefit.
A. Why do you think that one of the newly grown livers may not work in Squeaky?
B.Explain how using iPS cells could solve this problem.
Answer:
Explanation:
a)Organ transplantation requires that the donor organism and recipient be genetically close so that the graft or transplant will not be attacked by the immune system of the recipient leading to rejection and damage. Squeaky is likely to be made up of a different genetic configuration compared to laboratory inbred FG426 mouse
b) ips (induced pluripotent stem cell) on the other hand can benefit squeaky since the cells are somatic cells such as B cells, Keratinocytes, neuronal progenitors cells, kidney and muscles gotten from the donor that are reprogrammed by reactivating silent genes through fusing of another different cell such as ES (embryonic stem cell) and introduction of some transcriptional factors such oct4, sox2,kf4, and k-myc leading to transcriptional activity and DNA methylation. This induced pluripotent stem cells can be grown into organ that can be transplanted to the recipient who was initially the donor of the reprogrammed somatic cells. Because it is from the host, the transplanted organ is not likely to trigger immune response compare to those grown from ES from other bred.
Any object struck at its natural frequency will vibrate violently. This is known as resonance. Applications of this include earthquakes knocking down building and
A) rainbows created in air.
B) microwaves created in ovens.
C) light being created by the sun.
D) sound being created in music instruments.
Answer: option D) sound being created in music instruments
Explanation:
Resonance occurs when an object close in contact to a vibrating body begins to vibrate at the same frequency of the vibrating body.
Usually each object has a THRESHOLD frequency which must be equaled or exceeded before it is set into vibration.
Therefore, this is the PRINCIPLE behind MELODY i.e how sound is being created in music instruments.
What are some ways to prevent wildfires?
Ways to prevent wildfires can include:
If you see new fires, report it if its not getting taken care of.Don't use fireworks in areas with lots of trees/bushes.When you smoke cigarettes, don't throw them on the ground.When you are using flammable liquids, please be cautious with it.When you are using a campfire, put it out before you leave.Best of Luck!
Answer:
Report unattended fires. ...Extinguish fire pits and campfires when done. ...Don't throw lit cigarettes out of your moving car. ...Use caution when using flammable liquids. ...Pay attention to local ordinances for trash burning. ...Only use fireworks in clear areas with no woods nearby.Explanation:
hope this helps you
❤ ❤ ❤ ❤ ❤ ❤
Which is the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis?
Complete Question :
Which is the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis?
1 Monitoring urinary output
2 Assessing nutritional status
3 Monitoring respiratory status
4 Assessing communication needs
Answer: the priority assessment for the client with Guillain-Barré syndrome with rapidly ascending paralysis is Monitoring respiratory status.
Explanation.Guillain-Barré syndrome is a rare disorder in which the body's immune system attacks the nerves. needsThe most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure caused by respiratory muscle paralysis.
A RNA differs from DNA in all EXCEPT which of the following ways?
A. the presence of uracil
B. the 5'-3' orientation of the polynucleotide strand
C. the sugar molecule
D. the number of different functions performed
Answer: B. the 5'-3' orientation of the polynucleotide strand .
The complimentary pairing of DNA molecules ensures 5' 3' and 3'[ 5 ' arrangement for correct pairing of purines and pyrimidine (Adenine E with thymine and cytosine with guanine) in opposite direction. .
RNA only contains five prime and three prime only, but DNA contains both 5'3' and 3'5'.
RNA differs from DNA in the presence of uracil, the sugar molecule, and its various functions. However, both RNA and DNA share the 5'-3' orientation of the polynucleotide strand.
Explanation:The RNA differs from DNA in several ways, including the presence of uracil, the type of sugar molecule it contains, and its various functions. However, the 5'-3' orientation of the polynucleotide strand is a feature that RNA shares with DNA. Both RNA and DNA have this orientation, which describes the direction that the molecules are read and synthesized in cellular processes such as DNA replication and transcription.
Learn more about RNA and DNAhttps://brainly.com/question/15453146
#SPJ3
The Correlated trait exercise shows that :
A) when two characters are correlated, selection always favors larger values of both or smaller values of both
B) When two characters are correlated, one of them can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival
C) when two characters are correlated, selection is always strong on both or weak on both
D) when two characters are correlated, the optimal values and selection strengths rise and fall together
Answer:The correlated trait exercise shows that when two characters are correlated, the optimal values and selection strengths rise and fall together.
Explanation: Correlation refers to statistical (linear) relationship between two random variables. When traits are correlated, change in one is associated with change in the other.
Correlation coefficient (c.c.) measures strength of association between two variables in the same individual or experiment. It can range from -1 to +1. C.c. can be positive, negative or weak.
1. A positive c.c. means that an increase in one variable is associated with an increase in the other variable.
2. A negative c.c. means that an increase in one variable is associated with a decrease in the other.
3. A c.c. near zero indicates a weak relationship between the variables.
Correlation can be represented by scatter plot as shown in the attached image.
Option B: When two traits are correlated, one can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival.
Option B states that when two characters are correlated, one of them can evolve toward higher values even if smaller values are better for survival. This implies that selection pressures can favor changes in one trait even if those changes are not directly beneficial for survival. This phenomenon, known as evolutionary constraint or evolutionary trade-off, occurs when traits are genetically linked or when the same genetic mechanisms control multiple traits. As a result, evolutionary changes in one trait may be constrained by the genetic correlation with another trait, leading to seemingly suboptimal evolutionary outcomes. Therefore, Option B provides a nuanced understanding of how correlated traits can evolve.
Which statements describe telomeres and the actions of telomerase?
a) Telomerase activity is turned off in most human cells, causing the telomeres to gradually shorten as the individual ages.
b) Telomerase contains a G‑rich template sequence that adds a C‑rich DNA sequence to the lagging strand of the chromosome.
c) Telomerase consists of an RNA template and a protein component that adds complementary nucleotides to the 3′ end of DNA.
d) Inappropriate activation of telomerase can result in cellular immortality, one of the cellular changes implicated in the development of cancer.
e)A telomere forms a loop with a section of the complementary DNA strand, protecting the chromosome from degradation by endonucleases.
Final answer:
Correct statements about telomeres and telomerase include telomerase activity being generally off in most human cells (a), telomerase containing an RNA template and a protein component adding to the 3' DNA end (c), and inappropriate activation of telomerase contributing to cellular immortality and cancer (d).
Explanation:
Which statements describe telomeres and the actions of telomerase? The statements that accurately describe telomeres and the actions of telomerase are as follows:
a) Telomerase activity is turned off in most human cells, causing the telomeres to gradually shorten as the individual ages.
c) Telomerase consists of an RNA template and a protein component that adds complementary nucleotides to the 3′ end of DNA.
d) Inappropriate activation of telomerase can result in cellular immortality, one of the cellular changes implicated in the development of cancer.
Statement b) is incorrect because telomerase adds a G-rich sequence to the telomere, not a C-rich sequence. Statement e) describes the formation of a T-loop by the telomere but does not pertain directly to how telomerase functions.
Two processes which chemically alter parent material are Select one:
a. oxidation and hydrolysis.
b. decomposition and oxidation.
c. hydrolysis and liming.
d. freezing and thawing.
Answer:A oxidation and hydrolysis
Explanation:
These two reactions involved the formation of two new product materials different from the r original parent materials
There was a s different tructural arrangement in bond formatio in new product s
Electron composition also varies
The ""preservationist ethic"" is associated with ______________ .
Answer: maintenance the health of the natural world. Through allocation,exploitation and protection
Explanation:
This involves the health state of the living organisms of the word :the vegaation, the aquatic organisms and ithe biodervasity.
The preservationist ethic is associated with conservation movement.
The preservationist ethic is a philosophy that advocates for the protection and conservation of natural resources, ecosystems, and wildlife. It is closely associated with the conservation movement, which emerged in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. The conservation movement was a response to the rapid industrialization and exploitation of natural resources that was occurring at the time.
Key figures in the movement, such as John Muir and Theodore Roosevelt, championed the idea that certain areas of natural beauty and ecological significance should be preserved for future generations. This ethic led to the establishment of national parks, wildlife refuges, and other protected areas, as well as laws and policies aimed at sustainable use of natural resources. The conservation movement has evolved over time and continues to influence environmental policy and conservation efforts around the world.
In the datura plant, purple flower color is controlled by a dominant allele P. White flowers are found in plants homozygous for the recessive allele p. Suppose that a purple-flowered datura plant with an unknown genotype is self-fertilized and that its progeny are 28 purple-flowered plants and 10 white-flowered plants.
Part A
Use the results of the self-fertilization to determine the genotype of the original purple-flowered plant.
a. Pp
b. PP
c. pp
Part B
If one of the purple-flowered progeny plants is selected at random and self-fertilized, what is the probability it will breed true?
a. 1/3
b. 1/4
c. 3/4
d. 2/3
Answer:
Part A: Pp
Part B: 1/3
Explanation:
A: The purple flower color is regulated by dominant allele "P". Since self-fertilization of the purple-flowered plant with unknown genotype gives both purple and white-flowered progeny in almost 3:1 ratio, the parent plant was heterozygous dominant for the trait. Its genotype is "Pp".
Segregation of recessive and dominant alleles during gamete formation leads to the production of two types of gametes with either "P" or "p" alleles. The random fusion of these gametes produces progeny in following phenotype ratio= 3 purple: 1 white.
B. Out of the 3 purple-flowered progeny, 1 is homozygous dominant (PP). Therefore, the probability of the purple-flowered progeny to breed true is 1/3.
Final answer:
The genotype of the original purple-flowered datura plant is determined to be heterozygous (Pp) based on the ratios of purple to white flowered progeny. The probability that a randomly selected purple-flowered progeny will breed true for the purple color is 1/4, meaning there is a 25% chance it is homozygous dominant (PP).
Explanation:
Part A: Genotype Determination
To determine the genotype of the original purple-flowered datura plant, we can look at the progeny from its self-fertilization. Given that the purple flower color is dominant and represented as allele P and the white color is recessive and represented as allele p, we can infer the genotype of the parent plant based on the ratio of purple to white flowered plants among its progeny. The progeny consists of 28 purple-flowered plants and 10 white-flowered plants. This suggests that the parent plant is not a homozygous dominant (PP) because we expect all progeny to have purple flowers in that scenario. Since white flowers (pp) are a recessive trait, they can only appear in the offspring if the parent carries the recessive allele. Therefore, the parent plant must be heterozygous Pp.
Part B: Probability of True Breeding
The probability that a randomly selected purple-flowered progeny plant will breed true (be homozygous dominant PP) can be inferred from the parent's genotype. Since the parent plant is heterozygous Pp, its possible gametes are P or p. With self-fertilization, there is a 1 in 4 chance (or 25%) of getting PP, a 1 in 4 chance of pp, and a 2 in 4 chance of Pp. The probability that the purple progeny plant selected is a homozygote (PP) is the same as finding a homozygous dominant offspring in the self-fertilization, which is 1/4 or option 'b'. The other two-thirds will be heterozygous purple (Pp).
In 1906 Harden and Young, in a series of classic studies on the fermentation of glucose to ethanol and CO2 by extracts of brewer's yeast, made the following observations.(A) Inorganic phosphate was essential to fermentation; when the supply of phosphate was exhausted, fermentation ceased before all the glucose was used.(B) During fermentation under these conditions, ethanol, CO2, and a sugar phosphate accumulated.(C) When arsenate was substituted for phosphate, no sugar phosphate acumulated, but the fermentation proceeded until all the glucose was converted to ethanol and CO2.Answer the following questions.1. Which enzyme of glycolysis requires inorganic phosphate and therefore stops when no phosphate is available?(a) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase(b) phosphoglycerate mutase(c) phosphofructokinase-1(d) phosphoglycerate kinase
Answer:
(a) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
Explanation:
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase is the enzyme which requires inorganic phosphate (Pi) essentially for it's functioning. It catalyzes the conversion of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate into 1,3-bisphosphoglyceric acid (1,3 BPG) during glycolysis.
All other enzymes of glycolysis use ATP for phosphorylation of their substrate but this is the only enzyme which rather uses an inorganic phosphate to phosphorylate it's substrate.
If George is spanked immediately after his baby sister cries, he is likely to become fearful every time she cries. If Ken is spanked immediately before his baby sister cries, he is not likely to become fearful when she cries. What do the different reactions of George and Ken suggest about the role of cognitive processes in associative learning?
Answer:
Associative learning may be defined as a type of learning in which the new response gets easily associated with the stimulus. Except habituation learning all simple learning procedure are included in this learning.
In the associative learning, reactions of an individual are based on there spank. George learns to cry on being spanked this is because this stimulus of sister cries gives response. Crying do not show any effect on ken because he does not know about his sister crying.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a diploid yeast species that can reproduce either sexually or asexually. An experiment was performed to induce mitotically dividing S. cerevisiae cells in G2 to undergo meiosis. Which of the following best describes the steps these cells will follow to form gametes?
A. The first division will result in crossing over between homologous chromosomes, and the second division will reduce the original number of chromosomes by half in the daughter cells.
B. The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will result in each daughter cell having one-fourth of the original number of chromosomes.
C. The first division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell, and the second division will double the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell.
D. The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.
The statement that best describes the steps these cells will follow to form gametes is "the first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell"
MEIOSIS:
Meiosis is the process by which a single cell produces four daughter cells with a reduced number of chromosomes (by half). Meiosis occurs in two step division process namely: meiosis I and meiosis II. In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes are separated while in meiosis II, sister chromatids are separated. Meiosis I reduces the chromosome number by half i.e. from diploid (2n) to haploid (n). Therefore, in the experiment that was performed to induce mitotically dividing S. cerevisiae cells in G2 to undergo meiosis, the first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.Learn more at: https://brainly.com/question/12327654?referrer=searchResults
Meiosis is a reduction division in which number of chromosomes in the daughter cells are halved. In mitosis, the number of chromosomes in the daughter and parent cell are similar after cell division. The statement which describes the correct sequence is:
The first division will reduce the number of chromosomes by half for each daughter cell, and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.The yeasts are the unicellular microorganisms that can reproduce sexually or asexually. During the sexual reproduction, the number of chromosomes in the in the daughter cells are halved. Some of the features of meiosis are:
Meiosis in yeasts produces four haploid daughter cells, known as gametes. Meiosis takes place in two steps, meiosis I and meiosis II. In meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes are separated, whereas, in the meiosis II separation of sister chromatids occur. Meiosis I is the reduction division in which diploid cell produces haploid cells. Thus, the experiment performed on yeast to induce mitosis will result in the cells undergoing meiosis during G1 phase. The first division will lead to reduction in the chromosome numbers by half and the second division will move single chromatids to each daughter cell.Therefore, option D is correct.
To know more about cell division, refer to the following link:
https://brainly.com/question/13247764?referrer=searchResults
Some species of algae can potentially be farmed and used as biofuel. This would create a renewable, sustainable source of biofuel to use in place of fossil fuels. This is an example of
Answer: Renewable source of energy
Explanation:
The algae can be used to produce biofuel. This is a alternative source of energy can be used in place of conventional sources of energy like fossil fuels. This emphasis towards the use of renewable source of energy as plant or algae can be grown again due to their seeds, spores or through any other vegetative precursors. This is the basis of sustainable use of non-renewable resources by the use of renewable resources.
Answer:
Biotechnology
Explanation:
What happens during the initiation step of DNA transcription? A ribosome attaches to the initiation codon of a completed mRNA strand. RNA polymerase moves along the template strand of the DNA creating an mRNA strand. A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble. The mRNA detaches from the RNA polymerase as the RNA polymerase leaves the DNA strand.
Answer:
A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble.
Explanation:
Transcription is the process in which DNA template is used to synthesize mRNA.
There are three steps of transcription:
InitiationIt is the process in which a portion of DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase binds to the promotor region on the DNA.
ElongationIt is the process in which RNA polymerase moves along the DNA template and synthesizes mRNA. During this process, unwinding of double stranded DNA takes place.
TerminationAs the RNA polymerase moves along the DNA template, it finally reaches a termination signal and then stops synthesizing. It is followed by the detachment of the newly formed mRNA and RNA polymerase from the DNA.
QUESTION:
A ribosome attaches to the initiation codon of a completed mRNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice as this process does not happen in the process of transcription. This event happens in the process of translation in which mRNA is used to synthesize proteins or amino acids. mRNA attaches to ribosome during this process.
RNA polymerase moves along the template strand of the DNA creating an mRNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice as this event takes place in the process of elongation.
A portion of the DNA unwinds and RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA within the transcription bubble.This is the correct answer choice as this event takes place in the process of initiation of transcription
The mRNA detaches from the RNA polymerase as the RNA polymerase leaves the DNA strand.This is the incorrect answer choice. This event takes place in the event of termination of transcription.
What are the functions of the three major forms of RNA (ribosomal RNA, messenger RNA, and transfer RNA)?
Answer:
Ribosomal RNA: Structural part of ribosomes
Messenger RNA: Carry genetic information from DNA to proteins
Transfer RNA (tRNA): Transport amino acids to protein synthesizing complex.
Explanation:
Ribosomes are made up of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins. The catalytic activity for the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids during protein synthesis resides the RNA of ribosomes.
Messenger RNA (mRNA) is formed by the process of transcription during which the nucleotide sequence of the template DNA strand is copied into that of the RNA. The mRNA serves as a template for protein synthesis. The nucleotide sequence of mRNA is read in the form of genetic codes to specify the amino acid sequence of a protein. In this way, the genetic information stored in DNA is carried to the proteins.
During the process of protein synthesis, tRNAs carry amino acids to the mRNA-ribosome complex so that the amino acids are incorporated into the polypeptide. For the purpose, there is a tRNA with a specific anticodon sequence for a particular amino acid.
If you shine a light into one eye both pupils will constrict. The best explanation for this is a. sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain b. a small portion of light always enters the other eye c. information from one eye is directly and immediately transferred to the other eye to maintain alignment of the eyes d. this in fact does not occur and information from both eyes is always separated
Answer: the best option is A (sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain)
Explanation:
At the optic chiasm, nerve fibers from half of each retina cross over to the opposite side of the brain. The fibers from the other half of the retina travel to the same side of the brain. Because of this junction, each half of the brain receives visual signals from the visual fields of both eyes. this allows the effect of consensual response in which there is change in pupil size in the eye opposite to the eye to which the light is directed. I hope this helps thanks.
Final answer:
Correct option is a. Both pupils constrict in response to light due to the bilateral nature of the pupillary light reflex, where information from both retinas converges at the optic chiasm and is processed by both brain hemispheres, causing a consensual reaction.
Explanation:
When light is shined into one eye, both pupils constrict due to the pupillary light reflex, which involves both an afferent and efferent pathway. Sensory input from the retina of each eye converges at the optic chiasm, whereby information from the right visual field goes to the left hemisphere of the brain, and information from the left visual field goes to the right hemisphere. This crossing over or decussation allows for information from both fields of view to be processed in both hemispheres of the brain. Therefore, the correct option explaining why shining light in one eye results in the constriction of both pupils is: sensory input from the retinas of both eyes converges at the optic chiasm and information from each eye is delivered to both the left and right sides of the brain. This bilateral projection of information allows the brain to coordinate a consensual pupillary response, meaning that shining light in one eye also triggers the constriction of the other pupil, thus preserving the alignment and proper function of both eyes.
If the light reflex testing reveals an asymmetrical response, it may signify damage to the optic or oculomotor nerve pathways, indicating a need for further medical evaluation.
The data from a replicated experiment are very different from the data obtained during the initial experiment. Which statements identify possible reasons for the difference in the data? Check all that apply
The initial experiment was not a valid experiment.
The replicated experiment was performed incorrectly.
The replicated experiment used a different laboratory.
The initial experiment involved more trials and data.
The replicated experiment changed the variables being tested.
The initial experiment was not a valid experiment is the statement which identifies possible reasons for the difference in the data.
Explanation:
The replicated experiment however is crucial but doesn't satisfy the condition of justifying the validity of a scientific theory or hypothesis. However, the initial or repeated experiment are more satisfying in producing logical result from the experiment. It involves repeated methods of a particular experiment with more and more trials and observations of more data.
However, the replicate experiments are individual experiments of a specific hypothesis which fails to experiment are individual experiments of a specific hypothesis which fails to produce a logical result.
Answer:
The initial experiment was not a valid experiment.
The replicated experiment was performed incorrectly.
The initial experiment involved more trials and data.
The replicated experiment changed the variables being tested.
Explanation:
A scientific experiment is performed to test if the predicated hypothesis can be proved or not.
The scientific experiment involves the repetition of the experiment by the same experimenter and the replication of the experiment which could be performed by the same experimenter or another experimenter to test if the results of the initial experiment are valid or not.
In the given question, the results of the initial experiment and the replicated experiment are different which could be due to various reasons:
The initial experiment was not valid - if the initial experiment performed is not valid. The replicated experiment was performed incorrectly- the replication procedure differs from the initial experiment or there could be some error while experimenting. The initial experiment involved more trials and data- the initial experiments could have involved more replicas, trials, and data. The replicated experiment changed the variables being tested - the variables of this two experiment could differ.Fish is high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are most beneficial for the __________ as mentioned in the video. Fish is high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are most beneficial for the __________ as mentioned in the video.
1. immune system
2. kidneys
3. heart
4. digestive tract
Answer: option 3) Heart
Explanation:
Omega-3 fatty acids are an integral part of cell membranes throughout the body and affect the function of the cell receptors in these membranes.
They provide the starting point for making hormones that regulate blood clotting, contraction and relaxation of artery walls, and inflammation.
Thus, they are most beneficial to the HEART
A person has entered a hunger strike. After 60 days of starvation, this person is on the edge of dying. What is likely to be the cause of death?a. too many ketone bodies in the blood, which causes ketoacidosisb. lack of oxygen in the body for oxidative metabolismc. shut down of gluconeogenesis in the liverd. the breakdown of essential proteins of the brain and hearte. exhaustion of fat from adipose tissue
Answer: option D - the breakdown of essential proteins of the brain and heart
Explanation:
During starvation (food deprivation), the body cells begins to utilize the glycogen reserves in the liver and muscle. Then, it switches to the fats (stored in the adipose tissues).
If starvation persists, the body turns to the proteins for energy derivation. At this stage, the person's DYING STATE is usually visible because the muscles of the body shrinks greatly.
Note that DEATH set in when essential proteins of the BRAIN and HEART are metabolized to produce energy due to the vital functions both organs do in the overall body processes.
Which of the following is NOT one of the uses of fungi?Select one:a. As a source of antibiotics.b. To make drinks, like beer.c. To produce fabrics like cotton and linen.d. To make food, like bread.e. As a direct food source: mushrooms, for example.
Answer:
Fungi are not used to produce fabrics like cotton and linen.
Explanation:
Fungi are extremily important for the ecosystem because they are one of the principal organic matter decomposers. But they are also very important for human uses, such as:
Yeast is important in the fermentation process involved in the production of beer, wine, and bread. Fermentation occurs in the absence of oxygen and allows the first step of cellular respiration, glycolysis, to continue. Some fungi are used to produce sauces as an important proteinic source Some other fungi are ingested directly as food, such as the pine tree fungi or the champignon mushroom. In medicine, fungi are important to produce antibiotics such as peniciline.Answer:
To produce fabrics like cotton and linen
Of the following phyla, which are non-seed producing and non-vascular?
Answer:
Anthocerophyta, Bryophyta, Hepatophyta.
Explanation:
Non vascular plants are defined as the plants which contains phloem, and xylem without the vascular system. They are containing simpler tissues which are specialized for internal transport of water.
They include bryophyta, hornworts (anthocerophyta), liverworts (hepatophyta) mosses, and some algae. Non vascular plants reproduce with the help of spores, and do not produce fruit, and flowers.
Which of the following statements is FALSE of basic emotions? They are innate. They are universal. They are greatly influenced by experience. They can be determined from facial expressions.
The statement that can be considered as false as regards basic emotions is B: They are universal.
Basic emotions can be regarded as a special class of emotions that encompass all other emotions. According to theorist, It is a type of emotion with some attributes such been innate, they can be influenced by experience and can be determined from facial expressions.There basic emotions that exist are:
happinesssadness fearangerTherefore, option C is correct.
Learn more at,:https://brainly.com/question/6450214?referrer=searchResults
The total economic value of an ecosystem: is the monetary value of all of the services an ecosystem provides.
a. includes all of the ecosystem services, future uses, and non-use values (such as cultural, intrinsic, and aesthetic values) of an ecosystem.
b. is composed of the direct values an ecosystem provides upon which a price can be placed, such as crops and medicinal plants.
c. is composed of the direct economic value and the potential pharmaceutical value of an ecosystem.
d. is composed of the utilized services and goods an ecosystem provides, such as water storage and filtration, even if they are not directly paid for.
e. is the monetary value of all of the services an ecosystem provides.
Answer: option A - includes all of the ecosystem services, future uses, and non-use values (such as cultural, intrinsic, and aesthetic values) of an ecosystem.
Explanation:
Ecosystem is the interrelationship of organisms (plants, animals, microbes) with each other and their environment.
The TOTAL economic value of an ecosystem includes:
the presently utilized resources,
the resources to be derived in the future,
the non-use or intangible aspects (like tourism, beautification, etc)
The total economic value of an ecosystem comprises all of the ecosystem's services, future uses, and non-use values, which can be cultural, intrinsic, or aesthetic. This includes both direct and indirect values which the ecosystem provides and could have potential monetary value placed on.
Explanation:The total economic value of an ecosystem is indeed a comprehensive concept that spans across various areas. It includes all the ecosystem's services, future potentials, and even the non-use values. The latter can be cultural, intrinsic, or aesthetic. In essence, it encapsulates both direct and indirect values that the ecosystem offers.
Direct values refer to those upon which a price tag can be attached, such as farming crops or gathering medicinal plants. An ecosystem's potential pharmaceutical value is also an example of a direct economic value. On the other hand, indirect values are those benefits we derive from the ecosystem naturally, for example, water storage and filtration. While these services are crucial, they are not directly paid for.
Learn more about Economic Value of Ecosystems here:https://brainly.com/question/32157533
#SPJ3
Which of the following is an example of an epigenetic change in eukaryotes? A) a loss of an AT base pair from a gene B) the addition of methyl groups to cytosines in the promoter region of a gene C) the substitution of an AT base pair by a GC base pair in a gene as a result of a mistake during DNA replicationD) a deletion that simultaneously removes two genes from the genome E) None of these examples represents epigenetic changes.
Answer:
The answer is B
Explanation:
The addition of methyl groups to cytosines in the promoter region of a gene.
Epigenetic modifications entails DNA methylation and histone modification
9. Consider the need for accuracy in the flow of information from DNA to RNA to functional protein molecules. What are the different levels of stringency in replication, transcription and translation? What kinds of mechanism improve the accuracy of these processes?
Answer:
The central dogma of the molecular biology explains the flow of information from the replication of the DNA to the expression of proteins. This central dogma must be error free so that correct information can be transferred. The error in this process can cause life threatening situation. So, the phases of proof reading and rectification is required in this process.
From the DNA replication to the transcription of the RNA and final translation into the proteins requires proof reading mechanisms and many enzymes with the non enzymatic processes. The enzymes of transcription, replication and translation shows high degree of proof reading and works in efficient way. The incorporation of the amino acids, post translation modification makes the information flow as correct as possible.
Which could be an example of an Adaptive Radiation?
A. a burst of new species in a new habitat where selective pressure is different from an ancestral habitat, like has been noticed for "Darwin’s Finches" The Cichlid Fishes and numerous examples from the fossil record.
B. HUMAN domestication of wild plants into crop plants due to selectively breeding plants with desirable characteristics over several hundred thousand years
C. Descent with modification and natural selection
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
Adaptive radiation is a process of speciation by which organisms get diversified into many forms very rapidly from an ancestral species.
The process takes place when the species gets into a new environment and new niches which results in morphological and physiological traits.
In the given question, the various forms of Darwin’s Finches on the same island is the result of adaptive radiation as the different forms of the beak of Finches is the result of different niches and the different food provided by nature.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Adaptional radiation- The comparatively quick evolution of the many species from one common ascendant, often happens when an organism enters a new area with lots of ecological opportunities.
EXAMPLE: "Darwin Finches".
It can also happen due to mass extinction or when new traits evolve.
Ex: Mammals after the extinction of the dinosaur.