Answer:
1. Medical Transcriptionist
A medical transcriptionist is responsible for developing reports of patients in written format from what physicians and other health care professionals speak about patient medical history, operative reports and other documents.
2. Medical Records Clerk
A medical records clerk organizes the files in a patient’s chart. Here she/he might be working as a medical records clerk because of being responsible for managing patient health records.
3. Health Information Administrator:
A health information administrator is responsible for managing other informatic staff. The job fits the scope of a health information administrator because of managing others work that is a higher level of responsibility.
Before Justin's father remarried, Justin was responsible for mowing the grass, putting the dishes in the dishwasher, and doing his own laundry. Now that Kim has married into the family, Justin is not sure which of his responsibilities he should continue to do. Justin is experiencingA. boundary ambiguity.
B. boundary strain.
C. cognitive dissonance.
D. role discontinuity.
Answer:
I believe the answer is D, role discontinuity
Explanation:
Justin is not sure which of his responsibilities he should continue to do. Justin is experiencing role discontinuity.
Thus, The capacities and sort of function one plays in the present and the future are determined by one's health. Since maintaining health and aging only require adequate care of the mind and body, it is appropriate for everyone to do so at all ages.
Family constellation is a helpful indicator for retirement and for responding to changes in roles. When one retires, the shock of the role discontinuities is lessened since the family offers gainful alternatives, such as financial support, in addition to softening the impact.
Since one of the elements that secures an individual's outlook is income, there is a strong correlation between perceptions of retirement and responses to role discontinuities.
Thus, Justin is not sure which of his responsibilities he should continue to do. Justin is experiencing role discontinuity.
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John consumed a large margarita that contained 14 grams of carbohydrate and 24 grams of alcohol. How many kilocalories did he consume?
Answer:
total calories consumed by John is 224 calories
Explanation:
given data
carbohydrate = 14 grams
alcohol = 24 grams
to find out
How many kilocalories did he consume
solution
we know that 1 gram carbohydrate contains = 4 calories
and 1 gram of pure alcohol contains = 7 calories
so here he consumed carbohydrates 14 grams so calories will be
calories by carbohydrates = 4 × 14 =
calories by carbohydrates = 56 calories
and
now we get calories obtained by alcohol is
calories obtained by alcohol = 7 × 24
calories obtained by alcohol = 168 calories
so total calories consumed by John is
total calories consumed = 56 + 168
total calories consumed by John is 224 calories
Answer:
224 calories
Explanation:
A calorie is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius. Calories in food provide energy in the form of heat so that our bodies can function. Our bodies store and "burn" calories as fuel.
About how many total kilocalories does one serving of crackers provide if it contains 5 g of fat, 22 g of carbohydrates, and 3 g of protein?
Answer:
The correct answer will be-0.145 kcal/serve.
Explanation:
The Carbohydrates on oxidation produces 4 calories per gram, the proteins provide 4 calories per gram and the Fats provides 9 calories per gram.
If one serve of crackers contains
1. Carbohydrates- 22 g, will produce calories- 22 x 4= 88 calories
2. Proteins- 3 g will produce calories- 3x4= 12 Calories
3. Fats- 5 g will produce calories- 5 x 9= 45 calorie
Therefore, the total calories in a single serve will be 88 +12 + 45
Total calorie = 145 calorie
OR
Kilocalorie= 145/1000 = 0.145 kcal/serve.
Thus, 0.145 kcal/serve is the correct answer.
Answer:
145 total kilocalories.
Explanation:
How do cancer cells spread through the body?
a.Malignant tumors can invade nearby parts of the body.
b.The malignant cancer may also spread to more distant parts of the body through the lymphatic system or bloodstream.
c.This process is usually very difficult to treat and is a phase of cancer development called:
Answer: the correct option is B.
Explanation:. Cancer cells ( also called tumor) grow and divide at an abnormally rapid rate, they are poorly differentiated, and have abnormal membranes, cytoskeletal proteins, and morphology. The abnormality in cells can be progressive with a slow transition from normal cells to benign tumors to malignant tumors. The malignant cancer may also spread to more distant parts of the body through the lymphatic system or bloodstream.
When selecting a balance exercise, which of the following is the most appropriate progression?A. Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc.B. Floor, half foam roll, balance beam, balance disc, foam pad.C. Floor, foam pad, balance beam, balance disc, half foam roll.D. Floor, balance disc , foam pad, half foam roll, balance beam.
Answer:
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc.
Explanation:
Exercise and yoga are good for health. Exercise helps in increasing the oxygen level of the body, increases flexibility. This body's strength also increase by performing different exercise.
Balance exercise help in maintaining the confidence and balance at any stage of the life. The balance exercise requires the half foam roll, balance disc, foam pad, floor and the balance beam. This also helps in the maintenance of the life.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam bad, balance disc.
__________ can be counted as representing individual infectious virions from a phage suspension.
Answer:
Plaques
Explanation:
If you do not have a commercial tourniquet available, what common device found on the ambulance be used as a substitute?
A) Ice packs tied in place with triangle bandage
B) Air or vacuum splint
C) Blood pressure cuff
D) Use a rope tie-down to make a tourniquet
Answer:
c.
Explanation:
If a special tourniquet is not available, such as those that come in first aid kits, it is possible to improvise using soft, strong and flexible material, such as gauze, bandage, clothing or handkerchiefs, in order not to cause damage to the skin, making sure that the tourniquet has a minimum width of one inch to tighten.
Answer:
C. Blood pressure cuff.
Explanation:
A blood pressure cuff is used to take blood pressure. The cuff has an inflatable rubber bladder that is fastened around the arm.
Describe several guidelines for saying no in situations when you might feel pressured to do something you don't want to do.
Answer:
1. I will stick to my " no" answer.
Explanation:
Guideliness:
No is no and not yes and so it can't be changed to become yes overnight
What I do not want to do, I do not do.
Pressure cannot make do what I do not want to do.
I say what I mean and mean what I say.
I don't work under respond to to peer pressure.
I don't work under influence.
True / False.
If you need to perform hand hygiene and do not have access to running water, using your personal anti-bacterial lotion is sufficient.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
It will help to remove the bacteria.
If you need to perform hand hygiene, utilizing an antibacterial lotion is already highly beneficial in avoiding potential illnesses if you do not have access to running water to disinfect your hands, hence this statement is true.
What is hygiene?Although hand washing with running water can assure that all sand, germs, and pollutants are effectively removed from the hands,
Antibacterial treatment is more efficient in eliminating bacteria and the majority of viruses on the surface of the body.
Antibacterial lotions have the ability to eliminate any germs that may be on your hands, but unlike water and soap, they are unable to clean your hands of pollutants and grime.
Therefore, do not have access to running water, using your personal anti-bacterial lotion is sufficient.
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Which of the following statements about flexibility and flexibility training is FALSE?
a. Stretching programs can reduce flexibility loss associated with aging.
b. Flexibility is highest in the teenage years.
c. Stretch before your other exercise in order to see the greatest improvement in flexibility.
d. Aging results in rigidity, shortening of tendons, and, thus, reduced flexibility.
Answer:
The answer is: c. Stretch before your other exercise to see the greatest improvement in flexibility.
Explanation:
Stretching allows you to stretch your muscles, relax body tensions and maintain joint mobility.
With the stretching program that is always done at the beginning of any exercise, your body looks for a greater breadth to gain flexibility. For this reason the heating phase is so important. Otherwise you run the risk of suffering an injury.
The answer is: c. Stretch before your other exercise to see the greatest improvement in flexibility.
The false statement is: 'Stretch before your other exercise in order to see the greatest improvement in flexibility.' It's better to stretch after a light warm-up, and again after your other exercises when muscles are most pliable.
Explanation:The false statement among those provided about flexibility and flexibility training is: 'c. Stretch before your other exercise in order to see the greatest improvement in flexibility.'
This is because the benefit from stretching exercises is maximized when the muscles are already warmed up. So it's often recommended to do a light aerobic activity, like brisk walking, for five to ten minutes before stretching to warm up the muscles. Then, after your other exercises, when muscles are most pliable, you should stretch again.
Statements 'a', 'b', and 'd' are correct. Regular stretching programs can help decrease the loss of flexibility that occurs with aging. Flexibility is generally at its peak during our teenage years and decreases with age due to physiological changes such as the shortening of tendons and increased rigidity.
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A retired contract administrator who enjoyed gardening sought medical attention for what appeared to be a sinus infection. He received antimicrobials but the conditioned worsened and he was experiencing severe painful spasms in his jaw. He admitted to injuring himself with a gardening tool while wearing sandals in the yard but did not seek medical attention for the wound. The man is likely experiencing?
Answer:
Tetanic contractions
Explanation:
This is when a there is a sustained contraction in a muscle by nerves innervating a muscle due to excessive stimulation from toxins produced by the tetanus bacteria
The retired man is likely suffering from Tetanus, also known as lockjaw. His foot injury while gardening without protective footwear would have exposed his foot to the soil, providing an entry point for the tetanus-causing bacteria, Clostridium tetani, to enter his body. Immediate medical attention is crucial in this case.
Explanation:The retired contract administrator who enjoyed gardening and later experienced worsening sinus infection symptoms and severe jaw spasms, despite being given antimicrobials, is likely suffering from a rare but serious disease known as Tetanus. Tetanus, also known as lockjaw, is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani, commonly found in soil and manure. When there is a deep wound, this bacteria can enter the body and produce a nerve toxin that causes painful muscular contractions, particularly in the jaw and neck, which is the case with this man.
His recent injury while gardening without protective footwear would have exposed his foot to the soil, creating an entry point for the bacteria. Not seeking immediate medical attention for the wound potentially allowed the bacteria to enter his body and reproduce, leading to the onset of his symptoms.
It's vital to seek medical help as quickly as possible when tetanus is suspected, as it can be life-threatening. Treatment typically involves wound cleaning, antibiotics to kill the bacteria, and a tetanus antitoxin to neutralize the toxin that has not yet bound to nerve tissue.
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Explain why the transplant recipient can have a different blood type than the donor and still have a successful transplant.
Answer:
Patients with living donors who do not have a matching blood type can still receive a successful kidney transplant. The Johns Hopkins Comprehensive Transplant Center pioneered a method of removing harmful antibodies prior to transplant. This method is called plasmapheresis.
Explanation:
Faye is in a treatment program in which, rather than using confrontational techniques, the therapist adopts an empathic interaction style, using the clients own reasons and values to bolster their commitment to change. This type of treatment is called ____.
Answer: client-centred therapy
Explanation:
Client-centred Therapy is also known as Rogerian Therapy. Client-centred therapy uses empathic interaction interaction style rather than using confrontational techniques using the clients own reasons and values to bolster their commitment to change. Client-centred therapy requires the clienst to take an active role in their treatment. The therapist will not be directive and but the therapist will be supportive.
The aims of client-centered therapy are;
(1). To increase self-esteem.
(2). Client-centered therapy help clients to live a self-understanding lives.
(3). To decrease guilt, and insecurity. Also, comfortable relationship.
Client centred therapy as stated about does not focus on therapeutic procedure or techniques. Importantly, it involves the quality of the relationship between the therapist and the client.
_____ abilities may lead them to question their parents and other authority figures far more strenuously, and may make adolescents impatient with imperfections in institutions such as schools and the government.
Answer:
Abstract reasoning
Explanation:
Adolescents' increased abstract reasoning abilities may lead them to...
That is the full statement.
Abstract reasoning is defined as the ability to analyze information, detect patterns and relationships, and solve problems on a complex, intangible level. Examples of abstract reasoning may be questioning or formulating theories as to why we exist, and debate the existence of a higher power watching over us.
It is at this stage that many adolescents develop their own morals and understandings of the way the world works. They may feel rebellious against their parents or other authoritative figures.
Answer:
The missing part of the question is: Adolescents' increased __________ abilities may...
Adolescents' increased abstract reasoning abilities may lead them to question their parents and other authority figures far more strenuously, and may make adolescents impatient with imperfections in institutions such as schools and the government.
Explanation:
Abstract reasoning is developed during the adolescence and last our entire life. It is the ability to solve problems, analyze and deduce things, without needing concrete objects to do so. For example, the ability to make mental calculations, or start questioning things that you perceive as wrong in an institution such as the school or the government but that are not concrete things like laws, or schemes inside a system.
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List and describe the components of exercise prescription such as overload principle, type, progression, or specificity.
Answer:
Principle of progression says you should increase overload, which can be done by using frequency, intensity, time, and type, when your body gets used to its current routine. The specificity principle states that only certain exercises will make fitness goals get better.
Explanation:
The components of exercise prescription include the overload principle, type of exercise, progression, and specificity. Each component plays a crucial role in designing an effective exercise program.
1. Overload Principle: This principle states that to improve or maintain a certain aspect of fitness, the body must be subjected to a load or stress that is greater than what it is accustomed to. This can be achieved by increasing the intensity, duration, or frequency of the exercise. For example, if one is used to walking 2 miles a day, to apply the overload principle, they might increase the distance to 3 miles, or they could walk the same distance but at a faster pace or carry weights to increase the intensity.
2. Type of Exercise: The type of exercise refers to the specific activities chosen for the exercise program. There are four main types of exercise: aerobic (endurance), strength (resistance), flexibility, and balance. Aerobic exercises, such as running or swimming, improve cardiorespiratory fitness. Strength exercises, like weightlifting, enhance muscle strength and endurance. Flexibility exercises, such as stretching or yoga, improve the range of motion around joints. Balance exercises help prevent falls and are particularly important for older adults.
3. Progression: Progression involves gradually increasing the workload over time to continue the improvement in fitness. This can be done by manipulating various aspects of the exercise program, such as increasing the weight lifted, increasing the number of repetitions or sets, or decreasing the rest time between sets. Progression should be systematic and individualized based on the person's adaptation to the current exercise regimen.
4. Specificity: The principle of specificity dictates that the body adapts specifically to the demands placed upon it. Therefore, to become better at a particular activity, one must perform that activity or exercises that closely mimic the movement patterns and energy systems used in that activity. For instance, a swimmer would focus on swimming and supplementary exercises that improve their performance in the water, rather than solely engaging in running or cycling.
In summary, when prescribing exercise, it is important to consider these components to ensure that the program is effective, safe, and tailored to the individual's goals and fitness level. By adhering to the overload principle, selecting appropriate types of exercise, ensuring systematic progression, and applying the principle of specificity, an exercise program can be designed to optimize fitness outcomes.
Why is it important to model optimism when working with a client with disabilities?
Answer:
To allow the families to see what their loved one can do.
Explanation:
Model optimism is the mental attitude that reflects the hope that the outcome some endeavor might be desirable, positive and favorable. Optimism see the things positively.
The client that has some disability requires the model optimism. This optimism generates the hope that he might get well soon and generates the positive thinking in the patient. The treatment of the patient with the families and loved one is quite fruitful.
Modelling optimism when working with clients with disabilities is crucial because it fosters a positive environment, improves overall health outcomes, and fosters hope and positivity in the client, potentially increasing their quality of life and satisfaction with treatment.
Explanation:Modelling optimism when working with clients with disabilities is important for several key reasons. Firstly, the positive view and expectations from optimism provide a supportive therapeutic environment. Optimists, defined as those who generally expect good outcomes and view life's difficulties as temporary and not personal faults, tend to have better overall health outcomes. This includes lower rates of rehospitalization, better physical functioning, less pain, and better treatment adherence, functions which could all assist in rehabilitation and treatment processes for disabled clients.
The power of optimism has also been shown to contribute to better overall life satisfaction, resilience, and ability to cope with stress – all of which are important in ensuring the client feels hopeful and positive about their journey.
Finally, demonstrating optimism could help the client to internalize a similar outlook, potentially increasing their perceived quality of life and overall happiness. This can foster a more positive attitude towards treatment and foster productive and pleasurable working relationships.
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An adolescent that had an inguinal hernia repair is being prepared for discharge home. The nurse provides instructions about resumption of physical activities. Which statement by the adolescent indicates that the client understands the instructions?
1) "I can ride my bike in about a week."
2) "I don't have to go to gym class for 3 months."
3) "I can't perform any weightlifting for at least 3 weeks."
4) "I can never participate in football again."
Answer:3) "I can't perform any weightlifting for at least 3 weeks."
Explanation:
Inguinal hernia repair is a surgical procedure in which bulding tissues can be placed back into the abdomen. It requires the opening of the abdominal wall remove hernia.
The recovery after surgery takes 1-2 weeks. The patient can perform light activity in 1 to 2 weeks and must avoid strenous exercises until the completition of 3-4 weeks of recovery.
On the basis of above description, this can be stated that the patient has understood about the recovery process after hernia repair.
Statistically speaking, smoking cigarettes is Group of answer choices
1. positively correlated with the use of illicit drugs
2. negatively correlated with the use of illicit drugs
3. related in an unknown fashion with illicit drugs
4. randomly related to the use of illicit drugs
Answer:
Statistically speaking, smoking cigarettes is positively correlated with the use of illicit drugs.
Explanation:
Illicit drugs are the substances that either stimulate, or create hallucinogenic effects or inhibit the nervous system. Due to its addictive nature and the threats it poses to the health of the user, its use has been reprimanded globally and have been illegalized. And, many surveys have shown that the use of these gateway drugs like LSD, tobacco, marijuana is common among smokers and drinkers.One of the most significant changes that Zanmi Lasante initiated in rural Haiti was the training of local community members as health-care workers. What factor was responsible for their success in identifying local health-care problems and providing basic health services?
Answer:
Zanmi Lasante is one of the most famous health organisation partner with the Boston. This organization is located in the the central plateau of Haiti, out of the Cange.
This organisation become successful and keeps monitoring on the health care problems in the locality. The main factors responsible for this set up is the ability of the members to understand the language spoken by the local people. The members of the organization has developed the social values and social structures of the locality.
Zanmi Lasante's success in Haiti was due to their 'O for the P' approach, which provided high-quality healthcare, the training of local community members as health-care workers, and income-generating projects that sustained health services beyond donor funding cycles.
The significant change that Zanmi Lasante initiated in rural Haiti was the training of local community members as health-care workers. The factors responsible for their success in identifying local health-care problems and providing basic health services include their approach of 'O for the P' (preferred option for the poor), which meant that the healthcare provided should be of top quality, equivalent to what the wealthy receive, ensuring no one is seen as less deserving of optimal care.
This principle, along with a deep understanding of the local community and the structural violence that the population faced—such as displacement by an IMF-funded dam project—allowed Zanmi Lasante to tailor its healthcare initiatives to meet the specific needs of the rural Haitian population. By training community health workers, whom they referred to as accompagnateurs, they emphasized the importance of accompanying individuals on their journey through sickness and back to health, bridging the gap between patients and healthcare services.
The development of chronic diseases has a connection to poor diet and:________ a) can be completely prevented by eating a good diet. b) will not be affected by lifestyle choices. c) is not affected by genetics. d) can be completely prevented by altering genes. e) can be reduced by food choices along with lifestyle choices.
Answer:
e). can be reduced with food choices along with lifestyle choices
Explanation:
One of the method that can be used to curb chronic diseases through their diet is by Interventions.
Interventions aimed at changing diet and lifestyle factors include educating individuals, changing the environment, modifying the food supply, undertaking community interventions, and implementing economic policies.
What home remedies are effective for mouth dryness and cough? (Select all that apply.)
a) Humidification of the environment
b) Swishing the mouth with astringent mouthwash.
c) Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges
d) Adequate fluid intake
e) Administration of over-the-counter antihistamine
Answer: a). Humidification of the environment
c). Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges
d). Adequate fluid intake
Explanation:
Humidification of the environment: This will prevent the loss of water from the body by sweating and increasing the tendency of thirst. This can prevent the dryness of mouth and associated cough.
Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges: The sucking of candy or lozenges will likely to produce saliva in the mouth which will prevent dryness and associated cough.
Adequate fluid intake: This will fulfill the requirement of water in the body. Hence it will reduce dryness in the mouth and cough.
Effective home remedies for mouth dryness and cough include humidification of the environment, swishing the mouth with astringent mouthwash, sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges, and adequate fluid intake.
Explanation:The home remedies that are effective for mouth dryness and cough include:
Humidification of the environment: Using a humidifier or taking a steamy shower can help moisturize the air and alleviate dryness in the mouth and throat.
Swishing the mouth with astringent mouthwash: Gargling with a mouthwash that contains astringent ingredients like menthol or eucalyptol can provide temporary relief for cough and dryness.
Sucking on hard candy or throat lozenges: These can help stimulate saliva production and soothe a dry throat.
Adequate fluid intake: Drinking plenty of water can help keep the mouth hydrated and alleviate dryness.
It is important to note that administration of over-the-counter antihistamine may not be an effective home remedy for mouth dryness and cough, as it may have drying effects instead. Consulting with a healthcare professional is recommended for proper treatment.
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What is the best indicator of the status of women, particularly their health status?
Answer:
maternal mortality.
Explanation:
It's also called maternal death. When does it occur? It usually occurs during pregnancy or maximum 42 days after giving birth. There are many maternal deaths on the global level and some of the causes are: severe bleeding, infections, extremely high blood pressure during and after pregnancy, complications and last but not least, abortions with risks ( in the further months of pregnancy ).
______ transfers substances to the brain faster than when a drug is injected or swallowed.
A. Smoking
B. Eating
C. Inhalation
D. Snorting
Answer:
A. Smoking
Explanation:
Nicotine modifies the functioning of the brain, specifically acts on the nicotine cholinergic receptors that are part of the reward circuit, releasing dopamine, which is the neurotransmitter of motivation and reward. In addition, it does so very quickly, between only 10 to 15 seconds it is transported from the lungs to its receptors through the bloodstream. In fact, the fastest way to carry a substance to the brain is to smoke it, which generates much stronger effects of conditioned reinforcement. Tobacco is the drug that has the highest probability of dependence just by trying it once (32%).
Tobacco addiction is due, as we have already said, to the release of dopamine, specifically in the cerebral zone of the ventral striatum (nucleus accumbens), the so-called mesolimbic dopamine pathway, the reinforcement pathway and the brain's reward.
The Security Rule portion of HIPAA requires that administrative, physical, and technical safeguards are in place to prevent the improper use or disclosure of PHI.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A true
Explanation:
The HIPAA Security Rule has established the standards to protect the electronic health information of individuals which is created, used and received and maintained confidentially. The security rule uses appropriate physical, administrative and technical safeguards to protect the information by maintaining the integrity and confidentiality.
During an initial survey in a health care facility, members of The Joint Commission (TJC) find that the facility does not follow regulations for seclusion set by TJC. What will be the possible consequence of this negligence by the health care facility?
Answer:
The possible consequence will be a condition level deficiency certificate for the health care facility.
Explanation:
The Joint Commission (TJC) will survey the health care facility, and after the summary of the survey findings report, they will give the health care facility a condition level deficiency certificate because the facility does not follow the regulations that the TJC has set.
When the nurse is providing client education regarding food allergies, what statement made by the client would indicate a need for further education on the subject?
Answer and Explanation:
Food Allergy is an adverse reaction to a particular food. It involves an immune mechanism and has a very variable clinical presentation, with symptoms that may appear on the skin, gastrointestinal and respiratory system. Reactions can be mild with simple itchy lips to severe reactions that can compromise multiple organs. Food Allergy results from an exaggerated response of the body to a particular substance present in foods.
Any food can trigger allergic reaction. However, cow's milk, egg, soy, wheat, fish and crustaceans are the most involved. Sensitization to these foods (formation of IgE antibodies) depends on the eating habits of the population. Peanuts, crustaceans, cow's milk and nuts are the foods that most often cause severe (anaphylactic) reactions.
Reactions involving the skin (urticaria, swelling, itching, eczema), the gastrointestinal tract (diarrhea, abdominal pain, vomiting) and the respiratory system such as cough, hoarseness and wheezing are more common. More intense manifestations, affecting several organs simultaneously (Anaphylactic Reaction), may also occur.
There is no specific drug to prevent Food Allergy. Once diagnosed, specific medications are used to treat the symptoms (crisis) and it is extremely important to provide guidance to the patient and family to avoid further contact with the triggering food. The patient should always be attentive checking the label of processed foods to identify names related to the food that triggered the allergy. For example, the presence of butter, whey, lactalbumin or caseinate points to the presence of cow's milk. All guidance should be provided to patients and family members.
Approximately 85% of children lose sensitivity to most foods (eggs, cow's milk, wheat and soy) that causes them food allergies between the ages of 3-5. The skin test remains positive despite the appearance of food tolerance. Sensitivity to peanuts, walnuts, fish and shrimp rarely disappears.
The diet planning principle of ______describes consuming the right proportion of foods from each of the food groups and the appropriate amounts of calories, macronutrients, vitamins, and minerals.
The diet planning principle that describes consumption of the right portion of foods from each of the food groups and appropriate amounts of calories, macronutrients, vitamins, and minerals is referred to as balance. Balance promotes inclusion of varied nutrients in correct quantities, supporting overall health.
Explanation:The diet planning principle that describes consuming the right proportion of foods from each of the food groups, as well as the appropriate amounts of calories, macronutrients, vitamins, and minerals is known as balance.
Balance means including different food items from each food group into your daily diet to meet nutritional needs. This concept promotes not only the inclusion of nutrients from each category, but also moderation in quantities to prevent over or under-consumption. Balanced diet supports achieving and maintaining a healthy weight, reducing the risk of chronic diseases, and promoting overall health.
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The two electrolytes most important in enabling nerves to respond to stimuli are sodium and_______.
a.phosphorus
b.iron
c.chloride
d.potassium
Answer:
Potassium
Explanation:
Potassium is a mineral and an electrolyte. It helps your muscles work, including the muscles that control your heartbeat and breathing. Potassium comes from the food you eat. Your body uses the potassium it needs. The extra potassium that your body does not need is removed from your blood by your kidneys.
Answer:
That would be D.potassium.
Mammograms Many women choose to have annual mammograms to screen for breast cancer after age 40. A mammogram isn’t foolproof. Sometimes the test suggests that a woman has breast cancer when she really doesn’t (a ""false positive""). Other times the test says that a woman doesn’t have breast cancer when she actually does (a ""false negative""). Suppose the false negative rate for a mammogram is 0.10. Explain what this probability means. Which is a more serious error in this case: a false positive or a false negative? Justify your answer.
A false negative rate of 0.10 means there's a 10% chance that a mammogram could incorrectly show no breast cancer when it is present. While both errors are significant, a false negative is more serious because it could delay the treatment of a potentially active disease thereby reducing survival rates.
Explanation:The probability of having a false negative result from a mammogram is 0.10. This means that, statistically, 10% of the women who undergo a mammogram and receive a negative result for breast cancer may, unfortunately, have breast cancer.
When comparing false positives and false negatives, a false negative could be considered more serious in the context of cancer screening. A false positive, while it can cause much anxiety and unnecessary treatment protocols, will eventually lead to further tests that should rectify the error and rule out the presence of cancer.
However, a false negative can lead to a dangerous delay in treatment as it gives a false sense of security to the woman which can delay the diagnosis and treatment of the active disease. This delay could decrease survival rates because, in many cancers, early detection and treatment significantly increase the odds of survival.
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The false negative rate in a mammogram means there is a 10% chance that a woman who actually has breast cancer is told she doesn't. A false negative is more serious than a false positive, as it can delay life-saving treatment.
Explanation:The false negative rate of 0.10 suggests that in 10% of the cases, a mammogram might incorrectly indicate that a woman does not have breast cancer when she, in fact, does. Between a false positive and a false negative, the false negative is more detrimental. This is because a false negative can delay essential treatment for breast cancer. On the other hand, while a false positive can lead to unnecessary stress and further testing, it does not pose the same level of health risk as a false negative.
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How often should a healthcare facility that is Joint Commission accredited plan to test the emergency preparedness plan?
Answer:
In the United States, the joint commission is the one that regulates that hospitals have an emergency preparedness plan that is evaluated through drills or actual participation in a real event as a mininum two times per year.
One of the drills or events must include community-wide resources and an influx of actual or simulated patients to assess the ability of colaborative efforts and command structures.
Joint Commission-accredited healthcare facilities are required to test their emergency preparedness plan at least twice a year through tabletop exercises and full-scale exercises. The aim is to validate the emergency operations plan and refine it for actual emergencies. Additionally, these facilities must evaluate their plan annually for further improvement and adherence to safety standards.
Explanation:The Joint Commission, which accredits healthcare facilities, requires regular testing of emergency preparedness plans to ensure safety and readiness. While the student’s question touches on fire alarms tested monthly in a campus residence, the frequency of emergency preparedness testing for a Joint Commission-accredited healthcare facility is slightly different. Such facilities are required to conduct tabletop exercises at least twice a year, or one tabletop and one full-scale exercise that is either community-based or individual, unless the community-based exercise is not available. These are designed to validate the effectiveness of the emergency operations plan (EOP) and identify areas for improvement.
Moreover, if the full-scale exercise is not conducted due to an actual community disaster, the healthcare facility may use the event as an opportunity to test their EOP. In addition to these exercises, the Emergency Management standards require hospitals to evaluate their EOP annually. This ensures that any changes or improvements can be integrated into practice, allowing the facility to remain responsive and efficient in actual emergency situations.