Answer:
decreases; increases
Explanation:
Positive reinforcement involves rewarding an action after it has been performed by an organism. This only is the case when the reward is present.
For example, a dog receiving a treat after fetching a ball. The dog would be less likely to fetch the ball if the treat was not there. Hence, this would decrease the likelihood of the action being repeated.
Negative reinforcement involves strengthening behavior of an organism by removing an outcome which is negative or a stimulus which is aversive.
For example, a person is more likely to put on sunscreen if they have already been burned once. Hence, this will increase the likelihood of the behavior being repeated.
Final answer:
Positive reinforcement increases the likelihood of a behavior by adding a pleasant stimulus, whereas negative reinforcement also increases it by removing an unpleasant one. Both forms of reinforcement are strategies to encourage behaviors, unlike punishment which aims to decrease a behavior.
Explanation:
Positive reinforcement increases the likelihood a behavior will be repeated. Negative reinforcement also increases the likelihood a behavior will be repeated. Positive reinforcement involves adding something pleasant to increase a response, such as giving a treat for sitting or praise for cleaning a room. On the other hand, negative reinforcement involves the removal of something unpleasant to increase a response, like stopping nagging when a teenager takes out the garbage, which reinforces the behavior.
Punishment, in contrast to reinforcement, works by decreasing the likelihood of a behavior. Positive punishment introduces something unpleasant following a behavior, and negative punishment removes something pleasant, both leading to a reduction in the behavior.
Why has the Catholic vote in Texas migrated from the Democratic Party to the Republican Party?
Answer:
Social issues
Explanation:
Many of the Catholic voters in Texas migrated from the Democratic party to the republican party because of the social issue they were facing. The lack of economic opportunities, religious conflict, lack of security turned them to move toward the Republican Party. The Republican Party so far has kept to their promise in providing opportunities to the people. Texas is conservative, which promotes the traditional social institution and preserving it from the modernism (the Democratic Party).
Final answer:
The shift of the Catholic vote in Texas from the Democratic to the Republican Party is the result of historical shifts starting from the Reagan era and demographic changes. These changes were coupled with shifts in party platforms and strategic political redistricting.
Explanation:
The migration of the Catholic vote in Texas from the Democratic Party to the Republican Party can be attributed to several historical and demographic factors. Historically, Texas was a one-party state dominated by Democrats until the 1980s. The shift began with the Reagan era, which saw conservative Democrats either change parties or retire, leaving the Democratic Party more liberal. Concurrently, demographic changes, including the increasing Hispanic and African American populations—groups that traditionally lean Democratic—hadn't fully countered the Republican gains due to a variety of factors, including low voter turnout. Additionally, political redistricting and a national shift in the Democratic Party's platform to the left also prompted conservative Texas Catholics to align more with Republican values. Over time, Republican candidates managed to secure votes from the diverse Texas electorate, including a significant portion of the Hispanic vote.
Richard is homosexual and has been for many years. Ever since high school he knew that he was gay, although he often wished that he was heterosexual. The fact that Richard is sexually attracted to men and not to women defines his sexual _____.
Answer: Orientation
Explanation: Someone's sexual identity or what they're attracted to sexually is called their sexual orientation.
Some ethnic groups in the United States have adopted certain parts of American culture but still maintain some parts of their distinct ethnic culture. This is referred to as:_________.
Answer: Assimilation
Explanation:
Assimilation is how different ethnic group adopt practices of a major culture where they are living so that they can fit in with the people of that dominant culture especially it occurs with immigrants who are sometimes forced into the culture of their new country or who voluntarily adopt cultural practices of that culture where they have moved so that they can be part of it. They may however find it hard to change some of their own practices such as their own religion.
Arnold gets an "A" on his organic chemistry exam because he copies most of his answers from Stanley, the "class brain" who is sitting next to him. According to Merton's anomie theory of deviance, Arnold would be classified as a(n) __________.
Answer:Innovator
Explanation:
According to structural functionalist deviant behavior present us with great opportunities to actual define what is acceptable and what is not within society using tangible examples of what a deviant behaviour is.
We are living in the world where everyone is trying to be someone and in the process some follow the proper way to get there and some turn into short cut to get there. They innovate ways to achieve their desired success according to Merton's anomie theory.
Innovation: this is when the person look for unconventional and social unacceptable ways to achieve the societal acceptable goals. Some may start commiting criminal activities or selling drugs.
These people has dreams to acquire but in order to do that they feel like they can't go through the right way so they resort to crime.
Ferris owns an apartment in an apartment complex. The apartment complex rules require the owner of each apartment to maintain it in reasonable condition and that failure to do so is grounds for action against the owner by the apartment complex or a tenant. Erica rents Ferris's apartment. During her first year of renting, many appliances in the apartment break, and there are repeated incidents of leaking through the roof. Ferris does nothing to fix the apartment. Erica sues Ferris, who claims he has no contractual duty to Erica. A court will likely find that
Answer:
Erica is a creditor beneficiary, so Ferris does have a contractual obligation to her
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that a court will likely find that Erica is a creditor beneficiary, so Ferris does have a contractual obligation to her. Meaning that Erica is a nonparty to the contract between Feris and the Apartment Complex in which Ferris must deal with maintaining the apartment in good condition.
In the depressed client, antidepressants are most effective in alleviating______.
Answer:
Any form of depression
Explanation:
Antidepressants are medications that are effective in alleviating any form of depression
The life insurance rider that pays the face amount plus the total premiums paid into the policy is known as:
Answer:
Death Benefit
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the life insurance rider being described is the Death Benefit. This is a rider, that like mentioned in the question pays the face amount of plus the total premiums paid into the policy. These premiums are waived if the individual insured becomes completely disabled before a pre-defined age.
Final answer:
The life insurance rider in question is termed the Return of Premium (ROP) rider. It refunds the policyholder the total premiums paid if they outlive the term of the policy.
Explanation:
The life insurance rider that pays out the face amount plus the total premiums paid into the policy is known as the Return of Premium (ROP) rider. This rider ensures that, in cases where the policyholder outlives the policy term, they receive a refund of all the premiums they paid. Furthermore, in a cash-value life insurance policy, the policy includes both a death benefit and a savings component, which builds cash value over time and reflects the reserves to be given to the policyholder in certain instances.
Life settlements are transactions where a policyholder sells their life insurance policy to a third party, rather than allowing the policy to lapse or surrender it back to the insurer. The third party then becomes responsible for the premium payments and will ultimately receive the death benefit. Expansion of life settlements has implications for the insurance industry and policy costs, as it changes the assumptions insurers have about policy lapse rates.
Kelly really prided himself on his knowledge of British royal history. He had three main points in his informative speech, his first being the ancient lineage of Queen Elizabeth. By the time he got through his first point, his audience looked bored from all the new information. What was Kelly's error in this situation?
Answer:Not pacing the flow of the information
Explanation:
If you don't pace your self appropriately when delivering a speech there is a chance that you will over explain things hence taking more time on just one point of your speech like Kelly. When you take more time explaining just one thing it is likely that audience will lose interest , feel sleepy and bored because people have a limited time to focus and when that time is passed and you are still just talking about one thing,you are likely to lose them.
Which of the following is an example of discrimination? a. refusing to sell someone a house because of his or her race b. believing that the Irish drink too much c. believing Asians are good at math d. thinking that African Americans are better dancers than white people
The correct answer is letter A.
Explanation: Discrimination occurs when someone adopts a prejudiced attitude (based on preconceived ideas) toward someone, whether it be racial, gender, sexual orientation, nationality, religion, economic status or any other social aspect.
Of the given options, refusing to sell a house to someone based on race is an example of discrimination. The other options represent stereotypes, not direct discrimination.
Explanation:In the given scenarios, the example of discrimination is 'refusing to sell someone a house because of his or her race'. Discrimination can be defined as treating someone unfairly or less favorably because of their specific characteristics or personal traits, in this case, race. The other scenarios refer to stereotypes, which are generalized beliefs or perceptions about a group or its members, yet they do not necessarily lead to actions that deny others their rights or fair treatment. However, these stereotypes can be harmful and can potentially lead to discriminatory behaviors if these beliefs influence actions.
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Samantha is looking outside her window when she sees a man stealing a bike from a bike rack located outside her apartment complex. When the police question her, Samantha might remember more details about the crime if she talks to the policeSelect one:
a. after she has had an alcoholic drink to calm down.b. in a week so she has time to think about the event.c. the next morning when she is in a more positive mood.d. by the window where she watched the man steal the bike.
Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
The answer is option D, because that is exactly the place were she was when the crime took place. she would be able to give vivid details of the crime by standing at that window and recollecting the whole scene. She cant remember what happened after taking alcohol to calm herself donw, it should take her up to a week because she was not the victim of the crime sghe is only a witness, from the passage, it was not stated that the crime happened at night. So the best answer is option D, from the options above as by the window where she watched the man steal the bike is were she can remember what has actually happened.
CERT members responding to an incident suspect that they have been contaminated by exposure to a chemical agent. They follow the basic self-decontamination procedures to reduce their risk of injury and limit their exposure to the chemical. What should they do next? A. Stay out of contaminated area and wait for professional responders to conduct formal decontamination B. Stay in the contaminated area to provide medical treatment to the survivors C. Conduct the same decontamination procedures on the other survivors at the scene D. Relocate downwind of the contaminated site and set up a medical treatment area
Answer:
A. Stay out of contaminated area and wait for professional responders to conduct formal decontamination
Explanation:
CERT stands for Community Emergency Response Team. The CERT members are trained volunteers who respond to any disasters which may impact any area. They are trained in disaster response skills, fire safety, medical operations, search and rescue, etc.
CERT member are volunteers who are trained and are not professionals.
In the context, CERT members are responding to a contaminated exposed area where they first followed the basic decontamination procedures to limit the risk of injury and exposure of the contamination. After following the basic procedures they should move out of the contaminated area and wait for the professional responders to further conduct the deconatmination processes.
Hence the correct option is (A)
Kahneman and Tversky (1973) asked participants to make judgments about the likelihood that people with certain characteristics were lawyers or engineers. These participants were also told the proportion of people in the overall population who were lawyers or engineers. In this situation
a) participants made their judgments based on a combination of base rate and diagnostic information.
b) participants ignored both types of information and made their decisions at random.
c) participants ignored diagnostic information and relied only on base rate.
d) participants ignored base rate and relied only on diagnostic information
In the given situation, participants ignored base rate and relied only on diagnostic information.
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Nearly total responses that vary from the base rate were justified in absence of reference to the base rate which declared that base rate is neglected when observed in this case however base rate is dependent on the mental representation of task which in turn lies on relevance consideration.
The awareness about the psychological description’s difficulty is utilized to the limit which is considered by the participant and found it relevant. The diagnostic information acquired by three-quarters of participants involved in the diagnostic description with statement conditions into account when they were needed to fetch it out from the difficult descriptions.
At a community meeting, Broker Amanda tells a group of families in an established neighborhood that several Indian families are planning to buy homes in their neighborhood. She tells them that this action could decrease their property values. Which statement is true?
a. Amanda is guilty of blockbusting.
b. This action is legal but very unprofessional.
c. Amanda is guilty of redlining.
d. This action is deliberate misrepresentation.
Answer:a. Amanda is guilty of blockbusting.
Explanation:
Blockbusting is an illegal and discriminatory tactic used by real estate agents to try and buy houses in areas that are less accepting to minority group , they create a situation that will cause fear to the majority or dominant group in such that this group may end up truly selling their houses at a lower price.
This fear is promoted by telling this dominant group that the minority group is soon going to invade their neighbourhood. They may promote fear by telling them about criminal activities that are going to increase or take place when the minority group moves to the neighborhood. For this reason the dominant group end up selling their houses at a lower price and the broker buys them at that price but sell them at a higher price to the minority group which is dying to get into a safe and less crowded neighborhood.
Edmund wants to identify relatively consistent patterns of thought and behavior, measure these traits, and determine how these traits interact in a particular context to determine how a person will behave in any given situation. Edmund wants to conduct research in the area of ________.A. CognitionB. perceptionC. PersonalityD. Social psychology
Answer:Personality
Explanation:
Personality, is our traits of feelings,thinking and behavior which includes our moods ,attitude
and opinions which are expressed through our interactions with people around us. It refers to our behavioral characteristics which can be observed when we socialize with people around us and our environment.
Edmund wants to conduct research in the area of personality, which will involve aspects of cognitive psychology and social psychology due to the interactions between cognitive processes, behavior, and context.
Explanation:Edmund wants to conduct research in the area of personality. This field of study seeks to identify consistent patterns of thought and behavior, measure these traits, and determine how they interact within a specific context to predict how a person will behave in various situations. The social-cognitive perspective on personality, which includes understanding cognitive processes, behavior, and context that interact with each other, is highly relevant to Edmund's research interests. Social psychology also plays a part in this endeavor, as it examines how thought, feeling, and behavior are influenced by the presence of others. Therefore, Edmund's research would involve elements of both cognitive psychology and social psychology.
How does implementing multiple security point products from multiple vendors affect managing an environment?
Answer:
The management of the environment becomes more complex and expensive with the implementation of multiple security point products from multiple vendors.
Explanation:
Every security point product has a distinct way of functioning. The operations of multiple security point products from multiple vendors in a single system would complicate the process of security management.It is preferable to rely on a single security product provided by a single vendor in order to keep the security system manageable.Using multiple security point products from different vendors increases management complexity and resource use, yet it provides redundancy and flexibility in security coverage.
Explanation:Implementing multiple security point products from multiple vendors can complicate the management of an environment. While each product may offer a unique advantage or feature, integrating and overseeing them can be challenging. It usually requires understanding different interfaces and monitoring systems which can lead to increased complexity and potentially gaps in the security coverage.
Moreover, it often requires the support and update from each vendor. Hence, reliance on multiple vendors can introduce issues related to compatibility and timely support, which may increase the risk of system vulnerabilities. It may also lead to inefficient use of resources, as each security tool may require separate hardware, software, and human resources for its operation and support.
However, using multiple point products can also provide a level of redundancy and ensure that one single point of failure does not compromise the entire system. This approach allows for greater flexibility and control in tweaking the security environment to meet specific needs.
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Fire history in an open pine woodland ecosystem would be best determined by ________.Fire history in an open pine woodland ecosystem would be best determined by ________.charcoal in the soilsoil chemistrythe density of vegetationambient air temperaturetree ring scars
Answer:
Fire
e
e
e
e
ee
e
ee
ee
e
e
Explanation:
Fire history in an open pine woodland ecosystem is best revealed by analyzing tree ring scars, a method known as dendrochronology, which provides a historical record of fire events.
The fire history in an open pine woodland ecosystem would be best determined by tree ring scars. Tree-ring analysis, known as dendrochronology, is a highly effective method to date and understand historical fire events. By examining the scars on tree rings, scientists can identify the years when fires occurred, allowing them to reconstruct a timeline of fire activity in the area. This method can reflect the fire activity of long-lived forests and is especially useful in ecosystems where fires may occur infrequently. Factors like microclimates, the El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO), and human fire usage can all influence fire activity and are often embedded in the historical record provided by the tree rings.
River Gear Company and Scenic Trips, Inc., enter into a contract on August 1 for the sale of fifty inflatable river rafts. Scenic cancels the contract ten days later. River Gear is unable to sell the rafts to another buyer. River Gear can
When a contract is cancelled by one party—in this case, Scenic Trips Inc.—the other party, River Gear Company, may have several legal options available depending on the terms of the original contract, the governing law, and the specific circumstances of the cancellation. These options generally could include:
1. **Seeking Damages**: If Scenic Trips Inc. breached the contract by cancelling without a valid reason or without following the contractual terms for cancellation, River Gear Company may be able to sue for damages. Damages would typically be calculated based on the loss River Gear suffered from the cancellation. This could include the lost profits on the sale of the fifty river rafts that were part of the contract.
2. **Specific Performance**: River Gear Company could request a court order (assuming the contract and the nature of the goods allow for this remedy) forcing Scenic Trips Inc. to follow through with the purchase of the fifty inflatable river rafts. Specific performance is generally less common as a remedy and tends to be used when the goods are unique and monetary compensation is not sufficient to cover the loss.
3. **Cancellation Rights**: In some cases, contracts include terms that allow for cancellation under certain conditions. If Scenic Trips Inc. cancelled the contract in accordance with these terms, River Gear Company would need to adhere to the contract provisions regarding cancellation. If the cancellation did not follow the contract's terms, River Gear may have a legal basis for dispute.
4. **Resale of Goods**: River Gear Company would generally be expected to mitigate its damages, which could include making reasonable efforts to resell the rafts to another buyer. If River Gear is unable to resell the rafts, the company could claim the full loss from Scenic Trips, Inc. Any proceeds from a subsequent sale would generally be deducted from the damages owed by Scenic.
5. **Restocking/Return of Goods**: If the rafts were specially fabricated for Scenic Trips Inc. and cannot be resold easily in the ordinary course of business, River Gear might be able to claim the cost of restocking or returning the goods to a condition where they can be sold to others.
In summary, River Gear Company's options depend heavily on the specific terms of the agreement, the reason for cancellation, and any applicable laws that govern such contracts. Resolution could range from acceptance of the cancellation and seeking a new buyer, to taking legal action to enforce the terms of the contract, claim damages, or seek specific performance. If the rafts are unique and cannot be sold to another party, compensation for the special circumstances may also be pursued. It is always recommended for River Gear Company to seek legal counsel to determine the best legal course of action.
Why did Texas declare independence from Mexico in 1836, and why were many Americans reluctant to accept it as a new state in the Union?
Answer:
At the time, new settlers were being encourage by Mexico in a bid develop their economy and also increase their demography. Although slavery was illegal in Mexico, American settles entered Mexico with their slaves. Till this time, a large fraction of Texas population came about from the Union.
Americans were reluctant to accept Texas as a new state because they were afraid that their slaves would be freed by the then President of Mexico. Sectionalism was a huge and crucial factor of American politics as that the time. In this light, free states possessed a higher number within both arms of the government. Thus associating Texas to the Union could possibly mean that there may be reversal of power.
Explanation:
Open oceans produce the largest share of Earth’s biomass because the net primary productivity (NPP) of the oceans is _________.
Answer: low, though the large area occupied by the ocean supports a large number of producers like phytoplanktons, this is because the open ocean has a zone known as Epipelagic zone where photosynthesis can take place as a results of light penetration.
Open ocean is also called the pelagic zone, it is the area where the biggest marine animals are found because it is an area of the ocean that is outside the coastal area. Animals in this zone suffers from or are affected by prey, wind activity, pressure, water temperature, etc.
Five years ago, Amy was three times as old as Mike. If Mike is 10 years old now, how old is Amy?
Answer:
Amy is 20
Explanation:
Let Amy's age be A and Mike's age M
Five years ago, A - 5 = 3(M - 5)
A - 5 = 3M - 15
A = 3M -15 + 5
A = 3M - 10 ( M = 10)
A = 3(10) - 10 = 30 - 10 = 20
Linear equations are defined as the equation written in the format of ax + by + c = 0.
In the given example, the age of Amy will be 20 years.
The correct answer is 20 years.
Given:
Age of Mike = 10 years (now)
Age of Amy = A
Let the age of Mike be X and Amy be Y.
Now,
Five years ago, age of Amy is:
Y - 5 = 3 (X - 5)
Solving the equation, we get:
Y - 5 = 3X - 15
Y = 3X -15 + 5
Y = 3X - 10
Now, the value of X given as = 10, such that:
Y = 3(10) - 10
30 - 10 = 20
Thus, the age of Amy is 20 years.
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_________ involves illegal activities of people and institutions whose acknowledged purpose is profit through legitimate business transaction.
a. Enterprise Crime
b. White-collar crime
c. Cyber Crime
d. Organized crime
Answer:
---> d. Organized crime
White-collar crime, corporate crime, and organized crime involve illegal activities for monetary gain.
White-collar crime is a financially motivated, nonviolent crime typically committed by high-status individuals for illegal monetary gain. It involves deceit, concealment, or violation of trust without the use of physical force.
Corporate crime differs from white-collar crime as it refers to illegal acts committed by a business entity or individuals acting on behalf of a corporation for financial gain.
Organized crime involves highly centralized criminal enterprises seeking profit through illegal activities, such as extortion, violence, and corruption of public officials.
In the U.S., professional gamblers, Armenian Americans, teenagers, and nudists are all examples of:_____A. cultures.B. countercultures.C. subcultures.D. WORLD cultures.
Answer:
C. subcultures
Explanation:
A subculture is made of a group of individuals within a main culture who differentiates themselves from the parent culture by some cultural, political or sexual believes. Examples of subcultures in the United States are; nudist, hippies, Armenian Americans, fans of heavy metals, etc.
Final answer:
Professional gamblers, Armenian Americans, teenagers, and nudists are examples of C. subcultures, which are distinct cultural groups within a larger culture that do not necessarily oppose mainstream society.
Explanation:
In the U.S., professional gamblers, Armenian Americans, teenagers, and nudists are all examples of subcultures. A subculture is a culture shared and actively participated in by a minority of people within a broader culture. These groups have particular belief systems, behaviors, and customs that differentiate them from the larger society but do not necessarily oppose the mainstream culture.
In contrast, a counterculture is a type of subculture that has values and norms that challenge or contradict those of the main culture. Examples of countercultures might include the hippie movement or the Ku Klux Klan, as they actively defy or challenge societal norms. They actively challenge or contradict the norms of the dominant culture, such as the hippie movement of the 1960s or feminist groups.
List the three major strategies a lifeguard can use to help prevent injuries at an aquatic facility?
Answer:
- Communicating with visitors
- Informing and educating visitors
- Enforcing rules
Explanation:
Three major strategies a lifeguard can use to help prevent injuries at an aquatic facility would be to Communicate with the visitors, Keeping them informed and educating them, and finally making sure all the rules are enforced and followed by the visitors. By doing following all these strategies, the visitors will know what not to do and this will greatly decrease the injuries in the aquatic facility.
"The three major strategies a lifeguard can use to help prevent injuries at an aquatic facility are:
1. Active surveillance and vigilance: Lifeguards must continuously scan their designated area for potential hazards and signs of distress among swimmers. This includes maintaining a clear line of sight, staying focused, and avoiding distractions. Effective surveillance can help identify and address risks before they lead to injuries.
2. Enforcement of safety rules and regulations: Lifeguards are responsible for ensuring that all facility rules are followed. This includes no running on the pool deck, no diving in shallow areas, and ensuring that weak swimmers use appropriate flotation devices. By enforcing these rules, lifeguards can prevent accidents and reduce the likelihood of injuries.
3. Education and communication: Providing information to patrons about safe swimming practices and facility-specific safety concerns is crucial. Lifeguards can educate swimmers through verbal warnings, safety brochures, or swim lessons. Additionally, clear communication among lifeguard staff is essential for an effective emergency response if an injury does occur.
By implementing these strategies, lifeguards play a critical role in maintaining a safe environment for all patrons at an aquatic facility."
John has reached formal operations. John's unique new talent is that he now can (select one):
a. debate the merits of positions even if he is opposed to those ideas
b. read complex novels and do math problems much faster than before.
c. get along with people better.
d. act more assertively in his life and in school.
Answer:
Answer is A
Explanation:
This means that he is now able to think scientifically and hypothetically. He can use his imagination and mental simulation to explore possibilities and consequences , likewise developing a purposeful thinking.
What was the most important advantage over the Greeks that the Persians held, and how did Greece counter it?
Answer:
Element of surprise
Explanation:
The Greek surprised the Persians because the Persian empire was expected to win because it was so much larger than Greece.The Greeks and persians fought at Plataea. After the Greek victory the threat from the Persian Empire was finally over.
You feel obligated to vote in the next election, especially because you are usually the first one to complain about the incumbent president. However, you have not had the time to research the positions taken by the candidates. Social psychologists would confidently predict that you are likely to choose the candidatea. whom you find physically attractive.b.whose name you have heard most often.c.who resembles someone you like.d. who resembles someone you know.
Answer:
B). Whose name you have heard most often.
Explanation:
Members of an ethnic group enter a society in large numbers for the first time. Their objective is to become part of the mainstream as quickly as possible. This is an example of a(n) __________ minority.
Answer: Assimilationist
Explanation:
Assimilation, in anthropology and sociology, refers to how people of different ethnic group integrate in such that a minority group is absorbed in the majority cultural group. Assimilation includes adopting traits of the major culture in such that one will no longer distinguish the minority society from a dominant society. It can be voluntarily like when immigrants want to be part of the dominant culture in their new country so that they can fit in nicely however it can also be forced when the dominant society imposes their values over the minority group.
Mr. Sun goes to bed because I do."" This 3-year-old's statement shows signs of: centering. artificialism. seriation. egocentrism.
The 3-year-old's statement that 'Mr. Sun goes to bed because I do' shows signs of egocentrism, a phase where children cannot comprehend that others have different perspectives and experiences from their own. This is characteristic of Piaget's preoperational stage of cognitive development.
Explanation:The statement "Mr. Sun goes to bed because I do" exemplifies the concept of egocentrism, which is common in early childhood development, particularly among 2-3 year olds. Swiss psychologist Jean Piaget describes egocentrism as a cognitive characteristic where the child is unable to take the perspective of others, assuming instead that others see, think, and feel the same way they do. This egocentric phase is part of Piaget's preoperational stage of cognitive development.
The scenario mentioned shows the child attributing his own experience and actions to an external object (the sun) and not recognizing that the sun's setting is independent of his own bedtime rituals. The child's development of theory-of-mind (ToM), which usually begins to manifest between the ages of 3 and 5, will eventually enable a child to understand that others have thoughts, feelings, and beliefs different from their own.
This cognitive development plays a significant role in how children interact with their environment and others, and is a fundamental concept in the field of developmental psychology.
Dr. Park identified 20 restrictive eaters (people who constantly monitor and limit their caloric intake) and 20 matched control participants. She then manipulated whether each group of participants had or had not just consumed a high calorie milkshake prior to taking part in a "taste test" of chocolate chip cookies. She found that whereas the control participants ate fewer cookies than usual after having just consumed the shake, the restrictive eaters actually ate more. Dr. Park’s study is:
Answer:
a person-by-treatment quasi-experiment
Explanation:
Quasi-experimental design: In a psychological experiment, the quasi-experimental design is designed to select groups on which a variable is being tested, in the absence of random selection.
Example: In a quasi-experimental design, a researcher while experimenting divides the population based on age, similar age group participants would be placed in the same group.
Person-by-treatment: The person-by-treatment design is one of the common types of quasi-experimental design. In person-by-treatment, a researcher tries to measure at least one of the independent variables, and side-by-side manipulate the other independent variable.
Rajesh and Brent live next door to each other and are both new to the junior high school. They usually walk to school together and hang out at lunchtime. Rajesh has been away for two weeks and Brent feels anxious because he doesn't really have anyone to sit with at lunchtime. We could say that he probably misses the ________ support that Rajesh and he share.
a. informational
b. instrumental
c. companionship
d. esteem
We could say that he probably misses the COMPANIONSHIP support that Rajesh and he share. companionship