Suppose a balloons was laying by the window at night. The next day, when the sun came up, it warmed the gas (air) that was in the balloon. What would be true about the density of the air in the balloon?

Answer:

(A) Equation will be [tex]v=v_msin\omega t=0.75sin(18840t)[/tex]

(B) RMS value of voltage will be 0.530 volt

Explanation:

We have given peak to peak voltage of ac wave = 1.5 volt

Peak to peak voltage of ac wave is equal to 2 times of peak voltage

So [tex]2v_{peak}=1.5volt[/tex]

[tex]v_{peak}=\frac{1.5}{2}=0.75volt[/tex]

Frequency of ac wave is given f = 3 kHz

So angular frequency [tex]\omega =2\pi f[/tex] = 2×3.14×3000 = 18840 rad/sec

So expression of equation will be [tex]v=v_msin\omega t=0.75sin(18840t)[/tex] ( As phase difference is 0 )

Now we have to find the rms value of voltage

So rms voltage will be equal to [tex]v_{rms}=\frac{v_{peak}}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{0.75}{1.414}=0.530volt[/tex]

Answer:

D. TA < TB

Explanation:

From general gas equation, we know that:

PV  = nRT

PV/R = nT

where,

P = pressure of gas

V = volume of gas

R = General gas constant

T = temperature of gas

n = no. of moles of gas

FOR CYLINDER A:

PV/R = (nA)(TA)  _____ eqn (1)

FOR CYLINDER B:

PV/R = (nB)(TB)  _____ eqn (2)

Because, Pressure, Volume are constant for both cylinders.

Comparing eqn (1) and (2)

(nA)(TA) = (nB)(TB)

It is given that the amount of gas in cylinder A is twice as much as the gas in cylinder B. This means the number moles in cylinder A are twice as much as no. of moles in cylinder B.

nA = 2(nB)

using this in eqn:

2(nB)(TA) = (nB)(TB)

TA = (1/2)(TB)

TA = 0.5 TB

Therefore it is clear that the correct option is:

D. TA<TB

OPTION A.

According to the ideal gas law, two cylinders containing the same type of gas at the same pressure, where one has twice the amount of gas, will have the same temperature because the gas law considers the number of moles of gas, not the volume. Therefore, TA = TB.

The question is asking about the relationship between the amount of gas and the temperature in two containers. Using the formula PV=nRT, where P is the pressure, V is the volume, n is the number of moles of gas, R is the gas constant and T is the temperature, the question provided that the pressures and the gases in Cylinder A and B are identical but the volume of gas in Cylinder A is twice that of Cylinder B. This indicates that Cylinder A contains twice the moles of gas(n) as Cylinder B, since 'n' is proportional to 'V' when 'P','R' and 'T' are constant.

So, if Cylinder A contains twice as much gas as Cylinder B, it implicitly means it contains twice the moles of gas. But since their pressures are identical, by the ideal gas law (PV=nRT), therefore, their temperatures must also be the same. So, TA = TB.

https://brainly.com/question/12669509

#SPJ12

Explanation:

Work done by gravity is given by the formula,

           W = [tex]\rho A (h_{1} - h)g (h - h_{2})[/tex] ......... (1)

It is known that when levels are same then height of the liquid is as follows.

           h = [tex]\frac{h_{1} + h_{2}}{2}[/tex] ......... (2)

Putting value of equation (2) in equation (1) the overall formula will be as follows.

       W = [tex]\frac{1}{4} \rho gA(h_{1} - h_{2})^{2})[/tex]

           = [tex]\frac{1}{4} \times 1.23 g/cm^{3} \times 9.80 m/s^{2} \times 3.89 \times 10^{-4} m^{2}(1.76 m - 0.993 m)^{2})[/tex]

           = 0.689 J

Thus, we can conclude that the work done by the gravitational force in equalizing the levels when the two vessels are connected is 0.689 J.

Answer:

D- Only the 2nd law of thermodynamics

Explanation:

It violates 2nd law because according to 2nd law of thermodynamics, it is impossible that the sole result of a process is is to absorb energy and do equivalent amount of work. so some heat must lose to surrounding which is not specified here. so it violates 2nd law.

so option D is correct

The process violates the 2nd law of thermodynamics. The chair absorbing thermal energy from the floor and beginning to move spontaneously with kinetic energy equal to the thermal energy absorbed implies a perfect conversion of heat into work, which is against the principle of entropy increase stated by the 2nd law.

This process violates D- Only the 2nd law of thermodynamics.

The Second Law of Thermodynamics states that the total entropy of an isolated system can never decrease over time, and is constant if and only if all processes are reversible. Isolated systems spontaneously evolve towards thermal equilibrium—the state of maximum entropy of the system.

In the scenario described where a chair absorbs thermal energy from the floor and begins moving spontaneously with kinetic energy equal to the thermal energy absorbed, it would mean that 100% of the thermal energy has been converted into kinetic energy. This is a violation of the second law of thermodynamics because it implies a perfect conversion of heat energy into work with no increase in entropy, i.e., the thermal energy is fully converted into kinetic energy without any of it being 'wasted' or dispersed.

https://brainly.com/question/32826461

#SPJ3

Answer:

v = 3×10^8 m/s

s= 384,400 km= 3.84×10^8 m/s

t = ?

v = s/t = 2s/t

t = 2s/v

t = (2×3.84×10^8) ÷ 3×10^8

t = 2.56 seconds

Explanation:

Earth's moon is the brightest object in our

night sky and the closest celestial body. Its

presence and proximity play a huge role in

making life possible here on Earth. The moon's gravitational pull stabilizes Earth's wobble on its axis, leading to a stable climate.

The moon's orbit around Earth is elliptical. At perigee — its closest approach — the moon comes as close as 225,623 miles (363,104 kilometers). At apogee — the farthest away it gets — the moon is 252,088 miles (405,696

km) from Earth. On average, the distance fromEarth to the moon is about 238,855 miles (384,400 km). According to NASA , "That means 30 Earth-sized planets could fit in between Earth and the moon."

The speed of light is used to determine the time it takes for light to travel from Earth to the Moon and back. By applying the formula Time = Distance / Speed, the total round trip time can be calculated.

The speed of light is 3.00×108 m/s. To calculate how long it takes for light to travel from Earth to the Moon and back, we need to consider the distance. The average distance from Earth to the Moon is about 384,400 km. Using the formula Time = Distance / Speed, the total round trip time would be approximately 2.56 seconds.

The speed of the medicine as it leaves the needle's tip is the same as the speed of the medicine inside the syringe, which is 4.0 mm/s.

To determine the speed of the medicine as it leaves the needle's tip, we can use Bernoulli's equation.

Bernoulli's equation states that the sum of the pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy per unit volume is constant along a streamline in a fluid flow.

Applying Bernoulli's equation, we have:

P1 + (1/2)ρv1² + ρgh1 = P2 + (1/2)ρv2² + ρgh2

Where P1 and P2 are the pressures, v1 and v2 are the velocities, ρ is the density of the fluid, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h1 and h2 are the heights.

In this case, the medicine is moving horizontally, so the heights (h1 and h2) are the same. Also, the pressure everywhere is 1.00 atm, so P1 and P2 are equal. Additionally, the density of the medicine is the same as water. Therefore, the equation simplifies to:

(1/2)ρv1² = (1/2)ρv2²

Cancelling out the common terms, we have:

v1² = v2²

Taking the square root of both sides, we find:

v1 = v2

Therefore, the speed of the medicine as it leaves the needle's tip is the same as the speed of the medicine inside the syringe, which is 4.0 mm/s.

https://brainly.com/question/31047017

#SPJ3

Answer:

[tex]\frac{rad}{s}[/tex]

Explanation:

The most appropriate units for expressing the angular velocity are the [tex]\frac{rad}{s}[/tex], since they are the units assigned for this magnitude in the International System of Units. Which is derived from the fact that radians are dimensionless and the second is the unit assigned for time in this unit system.

Final answer:

The most appropriate units for expressing angular velocity in kinematics problems are radians per second (rad/s). This unit arises from the definition of angular velocity as the change in angular position (ΔΘ) over time (Δt).

Explanation:

When discussing angular velocity in kinematics problems, the most appropriate unit to express it is radians per second (rad/s). Angular velocity is the rate of change of the angular position over time, defined as ΔΘ/Δt. For example, if a disc makes one-fourth of a revolution in 0.0150 seconds, its angular velocity would be π/2 rad / 0.0150 s, equaling 104.7 rad/s.

In situations where the rotation rate is given in revolutions per second or cycles per second, we can convert it to angular velocity by multiplying by 2π rad, as one complete revolution is equivalent to 2π radians. It is also important to note that the centripetal acceleration in circular motion is related to the angular velocity, and the units are critical in deriving related kinematics equations.

According to the principles of physics, the magnitude of the electric field at the center of the square depends on the charge and location of the beads. Oppositely charged beads cancel out, while same-charged beads add up, resulting in a larger field.

The configurations need to be analyzed based on the direction of the electric field each bead creates at the center of the square. As known, the electric field generated by a positive charge points away from it, while for a negative charge it points towards it. In configurations where positive and negative charges are opposite each other, their fields at the center will cancel each other out, leaving a smaller net field. In a scenario where all beads are positively charged or all are negatively charged, the electric field at the center will be maximized due to the fields all adding up. Field magnitude is always proportional to the amount of charge - in this case +q or −q.

https://brainly.com/question/8971780

#SPJ12

Answer:

P (t = 0.3) = 164.5 mW

W ( 0 < t < 0.6) = 78.34 mJ

Explanation:

Given:

q (t) = 10*sin(4*pi*t) mC

V (t) = 2 *cos(4*pi*t) V

part a

The current i (t) flowing through the element is obtained as follows:

i (t) = dq / dt

= d (10*sin(4*pi*t)) / dt

= 40 * pi * cos (4*pi*t)  mA

Next P(t) delivered to the element is obtained as follows:

P (t)  = i (t)*V(t)

=  40 * pi * cos (4*pi*t) * 2 *cos(4*pi*t)

= 80*pi*(cos(4*pi*t))^2  mW

Finally the power delivered to element @ t = 0.3 s

P (t=0.3) = 80*pi*(cos(4*pi*0.3))^2 = 164.50 mW

Answer: P (t = 0.3) = 164.5 mW

part b

Energy delivered to the element time 0 to 0.6 s is obtained as follows:

[tex]W (0 <t<0.6) = \int\limits {P(t)} \, dt\\\\ =\int {80*pi*(cos(4*pi*t))^2} \, dt\\\\= (5 sin (8*pi*t) + 40*pi*t )\limits^0.6_0 \\\\= 78.33715mJ[/tex]

Answer: W ( 0 < t < 0.6) = 78.34 mJ

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle v'=4\ km/h[/tex]

Explanation:

Linear Momentum

The total linear momentum of an isolated system (with no external forces) is conserved regardless of the internal mutual interactions of its parts. Recall the momentum is obtained by multiplying the speed by the object's mass. We'll refer to the railroad diesel engine as mass 2 and the flatcar as mass 1.

We have the following data

[tex]\displaystyle m_2=4\ m_1[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle v_1=0[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle v_2=5\ km/h[/tex]

Since both objects remain coupled after their encounter, the final speed is common to both:

[tex]\displaystyle v_1'=v_2'=v'[/tex]

Let's sketch the principle of conservation of linear momentum as follows

[tex]m_1v_1+m_2v_2=m_1v_1'+m_2v_2'[/tex]

Using the mentioned conditions for the speeds

[tex]\displaystyle m_1\ v_1+m_2\ v_2=(m_1+m_2)\ v'[/tex]

Solving for v'

[tex]\displaystyle v'=\frac{m_1\ v_1+m_2\ v_2}{m_1+m_2}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle v'=\frac{m_1.0+4m_1\ v_2}{m_1+4m_1}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle v'=\frac{4\cancel{m_1} \ v_2}{5 \cancel{m_1}}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle v'=\frac{4}{5}v_2[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle v'=\frac{4}{5}\ 5km/h[/tex]

[tex]\boxed{\displaystyle v'=4\ km/h}[/tex]

To find the speed at which the two vehicles coast after coupling together, we can apply the principle of conservation of momentum. The railroad diesel engine weighs 4 times as much as the flatcar, so we can use this information to calculate the final velocity of the coupled vehicles.

To solve this problem, we can apply the principle of conservation of momentum. The momentum before the coupling is equal to the momentum after the coupling.

Let's assume the mass of the flatcar is m kg. According to the given information, the mass of the railroad diesel engine is 4 times the mass of the flatcar, so the mass of the engine is 4m kg.

Before the coupling, the momentum of the engine is (4m)(5 km/h) = 20m km/h, and the momentum of the flatcar is (m)(0) = 0.

After the coupling, the combined mass is (4m+m) = 5m kg, and their common velocity is v km/h. Using the principle of conservation of momentum, we can write the equation:

(20m) + (0) = (5m)(v)

Simplifying the equation, we have:

20m = 5mv

Dividing both sides by 5m, we get:

4 = v

Therefore, the two coast after they couple together at a speed of 4 km/h.

Answer:

The force that must be applied to the small piston = 18.02 N.

Explanation:

Hydraulic Press: This is a device that produce a very large force to compress something e.g printing press.

From pascal's principle,

In an hydraulic press,

f/a = F/A......................... Equation 1

Where f = force applied to the small piston, a = area of the small piston, F = force required to lift the load/ force produced at the large piston. A = Area of the large piston.

Making f the subject of the equation above,

f = F×a/A.............................. Equation 2

Given: F = 2.4 kN = 2400 N, a = 2.23 cm², A = 297 cm².

Substituting into  equation 2

f = 2400(2.23)/297

f = 18.02 N.

Thus the force that must be applied to the small piston = 18.02 N.

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

A fictional force (also called force of inertia, pseudo-force, or force of d'Alembert, 5), is a force that appears when describing a movement with respect to a non-inertial reference system, and that therefore it does not correspond to a genuine force in the context of the description of the movement that Newton's laws are enunciated for inertial reference systems.

The forces of inertia are, therefore, corrective terms to the real forces, which ensure that the formalism of Newton's laws can be applied unchanged to phenomena described with respect to a non-inertial reference system. The correct answer is A.

To solve this problem we will use Kepler's third law for which the period is defined as

[tex]T= 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{a^3}{GM}}[/tex]

The perigee altitude is the shortest distance between Earth's surface and Satellite.

The average distance of the perigee and apogee of a satellite can be defined as

[tex]a = R+\frac{r_1+r_2}{2}[/tex]

Here,

R = Radius of Earth

[tex]r_1[/tex]= Lower orbit

[tex]r_2[/tex]= Higher orbit

Replacing we have,

[tex]a = 6378.1+\frac{400+600}{2}= 6878.1km[/tex]

Time Taken to fly from perigee to apogee equals to half of orbital speed is

[tex]t = \frac{T}{2}[/tex]

[tex]t = \pi \sqrt{\frac{a^3}{GM}}[/tex]

Replacing,

[tex]t =\pi \sqrt{\frac{(6878.1*10^3)^3}{(6.67*10^{-11})(6*10^{24})}}[/tex]

[tex]t = 2832.79s[/tex]

[tex]t = \text{47min 12.8s}[/tex]

Therefore will take around to 47 min and 12.8s to coast from perigee to the apogee.

Final answer:

The task requires understanding of orbital mechanics and Kepler's laws to calculate the coasting time from perigee to apogee in a specific orbit, but the information provided is not sufficient for a direct calculation without additional details on velocity or using specific orbital mechanics equations.

Explanation:

The question asks about the time it takes for a spacecraft to coast from the perigee (the point in the orbit closest to Earth) to the apogee (the point in the orbit farthest from Earth) in a low Earth orbit (LEO) with altitudes of 400 km and 600 km respectively. To solve this, we would typically use Kepler's laws and orbital mechanics equations. However, the information provided does not directly enable the calculation of the coasting time without additional steps or assumptions about the spacecraft's orbit, such as its velocity, the mass of the Earth, and orbital mechanics principles that allow for the calculation of orbital period. An approximate method to find the orbital period (the total time for one complete orbit) involves using the semi-major axis of the orbit, which can be derived from the given perigee and apogee. However, without the specific velocities or applying advanced physics formulas, we can't provide an accurate answer.

To solve this problem we will apply the concepts related to the conservation of momentum. For this purpose we will determine the velocities in the three body in the vertical and horizontal components. Once the system of equations is obtained, we will proceed to find the angle and the speed at which the third fragment is directed.

Mass of third part is

[tex]m_3 = m-(m_1+m_2)[/tex]

[tex]m_3= 21.85-6.42-8.26[/tex]

[tex]m_3 =7.17 kg[/tex]

Assume that [tex]m_1[/tex] is along X-axis we have that [tex]m_2[/tex] makes an angle is 64 degrees with x-axis and [tex]m_3[/tex] makes an angle [tex]\theta[/tex]  with x-axis.

Using law of conservation of momentum along X-axis

[tex]0 = (6.42*6.8)+(8.26*3.54*cos(64))+(7.71v_3 cos\theta)[/tex]

[tex](7.71v_3 cos\theta) = 56.4741[/tex]

[tex]v_3 cos\theta = 7.3247[/tex] [tex]\rightarrow \text{Equation 1}[/tex]

Now applying the same through the Y-axis.

[tex]0=0+8.26*3.54*sin(64\°) + 7.71*v_3*sin\theta[/tex]

[tex]-8.26*3.54*sin(64\°)=7.71*v_3*sin\theta[/tex]

[tex]v_3*sin\theta = -3.409[/tex] [tex]\rightarrow \text{Equation 2}[/tex]

If we divide the equation 1 with the equation 2 we have that

[tex]\frac{v_3cos\theta}{v_3 sin\theta } = \frac{7.3247}{-3.409}[/tex]

[tex]tan\theta = \frac{7.3247}{-3.409}[/tex]

[tex]\theta = tan^{-1} (\frac{7.3247}{-3.409})[/tex]

[tex]\theta = -65.04\°[/tex]

Using this angle in the second equation we have that velocity 3 is,

[tex]v_3 = \frac{-3.409}{sin(-65.04)}[/tex]

[tex]v_3 = 3.7601m/s[/tex]

Therefore the speed of the third fragment is [tex]3.7601\frac{m}{s} \angle -65.04\°[/tex]

Answer:

The object is moving to the right

Question:

See attachment for the complete question

Explanation:

Position vs time graph is a graphical representation of the distance covered by a particular motion plotted against the time taken.

According to the attached image;

- since the position increases with increase in time as seen on the graph, the motion is positive that means the object is moving to the right.

- the graph is not straight which means the velocity is changing (not constant speed) and also according to the shape of the curve the velocity is decreasing with time(deceleration)

The velocity is the change in position of the object with time. The given object is moving in the right direction.

It is a graphical representation of the distance covered by a moving object plotted against the time taken by the object.

Therefore, the given object is moving in the right direction.

To know more about Position vs time graph:

https://brainly.com/question/24720210

Answer:

The kinetic energy of the merry-goround after 3.62 s is  544J

Explanation:

Given :

Weight w = 745 N

Radius r =  1.45 m

Force =  56.3 N

To Find:

The kinetic energy of the merry-go round after 3.62  = ?

Solution:

Step 1:  Finding the Mass of merry-go-round

[tex]m = \frac{ weight}{g}[/tex]

[tex]m = \frac{745}{9.81 }[/tex]

m = 76.02 kg

Step 2: Finding the Moment of Inertia of solid cylinder

Moment of Inertia of solid cylinder I =[tex]0.5 \times m \times r^2[/tex]

Substituting the values

Moment of Inertia of solid cylinder I  

=>[tex]0.5 \times 76.02 \times (1.45)^2[/tex]

=> [tex]0.5 \times 76.02\times 2.1025[/tex]

=> [tex]79.91 kg.m^2[/tex]

Step 3: Finding the Torque applied T

Torque applied T = [tex]F \times r[/tex]

Substituting the values

T = [tex]56.3 \times 1.45[/tex]

T = 81.635 N.m

 Step 4: Finding the Angular acceleration

Angular acceleration ,[tex]\alpha = \frac{Torque}{Inertia}[/tex]

Substituting the values,

[tex]\alpha = \frac{81.635}{79.91}[/tex]

[tex]\alpha = 1.021 rad/s^2[/tex]

 Step 4: Finding the Final angular velocity

Final angular velocity ,[tex]\omega = \alpha \times t[/tex]

Substituting the values,

[tex]\omega = 1.021 \times 3.62[/tex]

[tex]\omega = 3.69 rad/s[/tex]

Now KE (100% rotational) after 3.62s is:

KE = [tex]0.5 \times I \times \omega^2[/tex]

KE =[tex]0.5 \times 79.91 \times 3.69^2[/tex]

KE = 544J

Answer:We are usually not aware of the electric force acting between two everyday objects because most everyday objects have as many plus charges as minus charges. Option A

Explanation:An electric force is exerted between any two charged objects( either positive or negative). Objects with the same charge will repel each other, and objects with opposite charge will attract each other. The strength of the electric force between any two charged objects depends on the amount of charge that each object contains and on the distance between the two charges. Electric charges are generated all around us due to different surfaces bearing different types of charges. We are usually not aware of it because the quantity of positive charges equals the number of negative charges.

The electric force between everyday objects is typically not noticeable because these objects are generally electrically neutral, having an equal number of positive and negative charges cancelling out any major electrostatic force.

We are usually not aware of the electric force acting between two everyday objects because most everyday objects have as many plus charges as minus charges, which results in them being electrically neutral. This neutrality means that there are no noticeable electrostatic forces being exerted between such objects. In contrast, if everyday objects were not electrically neutral, we would experience significant electrostatic interactions on a daily basis. Furthermore, the electric force is actually one of the four fundamental forces in nature and is much stronger than gravity (considering two charged particles like protons). This force can be felt in the form of both attractive and repulsive forces depending on the nature of the charges involved. It is this force that governs several interactions at the atomic level including the bond between atoms in a molecule and the forces that we perceive as contact forces, like friction.

Moreover, Coulomb's law describes how the electric force varies as the product of the charges and inversely with the square of the distance between them. The fact that electric force can be both attractive and repulsive, whereas gravity is always attractive, can lead to forces cancelling out when objects have both positive and negative charges evenly distributed, as is the case with most macroscopic objects we encounter.

Answer:

There are [tex]2.12\times 10^{19}\ electrons[/tex] that must be removes from an electrically neutral silver dollar.

Explanation:

In this case, we need to find the number of electrons must be removes from an electrically neutral silver dollar to give it a charge of +3.4 C. Let n number of electrons removed. It is a case of quantization of electric charge. It is given by :

q = ne

[tex]n=\dfrac{q}{e}[/tex]

e is the charge on an electron

[tex]n=\dfrac{3.4\ C}{1.6\times 10^{-19}\ C}[/tex]

[tex]n=2.12\times 10^{19}\ electrons[/tex]

So, there are [tex]2.12\times 10^{19}\ electrons[/tex] that must be removes from an electrically neutral silver dollar.

Explanation:

From the curve given in the attachment,

a) minimum speed v0 required if the car is to travel beyond the top of the hill

climb to the top = 5.4 m

Therefore, [tex]V_0=\sqrt{2gh}[/tex]

[tex]V_0=\sqrt{2(9.81)(5.4)}[/tex] =  10.29 m/s

b) No, we cannot affect this speed by changing the depth of the valley to make the coaster pick up more speed at the bottom as this speed does not depend upon depth of the valley.

To develop this problem we will apply the concepts related to the Doppler effect. The frequency of sound perceive by observer changes from source emitting the sound. The frequency received by observer [tex]f_{obs}[/tex] is more than the frequency emitted by the source. The expression to find the frequency received by the person is,

[tex]f_{obs} = f_s (\frac{v_w}{v_w-v_s})[/tex]

[tex]f_s[/tex]= Frequency of the source

[tex]v_w[/tex]= Speed of sound

[tex]v_s[/tex]= Speed of source

The velocity of the ambulance is

[tex]v_s = 119km/h (\frac{1000m}{1km})(\frac{1h}{3600s})[/tex]

[tex]v_s = 30.55m/s[/tex]

Replacing at the expression to frequency of observer we have,

[tex]f_{obs} = 800Hz(\frac{345m/s}{345m/s-30.55m/s})[/tex]

[tex]f_{obs} = 878Hz[/tex]

Therefore the frequency receive by observer is 878Hz

Answer:

220.508 kPa

Explanation:

32 psi = 32 pound force per square inch = 32 lbf/in2 = 32 * (4.448 N/lbf) * (12 in/ft * 3.28 ft/m)^2

[tex] = 32*4.448*(12*3.28)^2 = 220508 N/m^2[/tex] or 220508 Pa or 220.508 kPa

So the maximum safe air pressure of a tire is 220.508 kPa

The correct conversion of 32 psi (gage) to kPa is approximately 220.6 kPa.

 To convert from psi (pounds per square inch) to kPa (kilopascals), one can use the conversion factor of 1 psi being equal to 6.89476 kPa. Therefore, to convert 32 psi to kPa, we multiply 32 by 6.89476:

[tex]\[ 32 \, \text{psi} \times 6.89476 \, \frac{\text{kPa}}{\text{psi}} = 220.632 \, \text{kPa} \][/tex]

 Rounding to a reasonable number of significant figures, we get approximately 220.6 kPa. This is the maximum pressure in kPa that the tire can safely withstand as indicated by the label.

Answer:

Part A:

[tex]r\geq 173.806 m[/tex]

Part B:

[tex]F=5289.5757 N[/tex]

Explanation:

Part A:

Airplane is moving in circular path so acceleration in circular path is given by:

[tex]a_c=\frac{V^2}{r}[/tex]

Where:

V is the velocity of object in circular path

r is the radius of circular path

In order to find radius r. Above equation will become:

[tex]r=\frac{V^2}{a_c}[/tex]

V=104 m/s

a_c=6.35*g=6.35*9.8=62.23 m/s^2

[tex]r\geq \frac{104^2}{62.23}\\ r\geq 173.806 m[/tex]

Part B:

Force on a object moving in a circular path is:

[tex]F=\frac{mV^2}{r}\\[/tex]

r=173.806 m

m=85 kg

V=104 m/s

[tex]F=\frac{85*(104)^2}{173.806} \\F=5289.5757 N[/tex]

Given:

(a)

We know,

→ [tex]a_c = mg[/tex]

       [tex]= 6.35\times g[/tex]

       [tex]= 6.35\times 9.8[/tex]

       [tex]= 62.23 \ m/s^2[/tex]

Now,

Acceleration in circular path will be:

→ [tex]a_c = \frac{V^2}{r}[/tex]

or,

→ [tex]r = \frac{V^2}{a_c}[/tex]

By substituting the values, we get

     [tex]= \frac{(104)^2}{62.23}[/tex]

     [tex]= 173.806 \ m[/tex] (radius)

(b)

The force on object will be:

→ [tex]F = \frac{mV^2}{r}[/tex]

      [tex]= \frac{85\times (104)^2}{173.806}[/tex]

      [tex]= 5289.58 \ N[/tex]

Thus the approach above is correct.

Learn more about net force here:

https://brainly.com/question/14473883

Answer: 20N

Explanation:

According to Newton's law of gravitation which states that every particle attracts every other particle in the universe with a force which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers

F = Gm1m2/r^2

Where

F = force between the masses

G universal gravitational constant

m1 and m2 = mass of the two particles

r = distance between the centre of the two mass

Therefore, weigh of an object on earth is inversely proportional to the square of its distance from the centre of the earth

W₁/W₂ = r₂²/r₁²

W₂ = W₁r₁²/r₂²

W₁ = 180 N

r₁ = R

r₂ = 3R

W₂ = (180 × R²)/(3R)²

W₂ = 180R²/9R²

W₂ = 180/9

W₂ = 20N

its weight at 3R is 20N

Final answer:

The weight of an object decreases with the square of the distance from the center of the mass it is orbiting. At 3R, the distance from the Earth's center, the gravitational force would be 1/9th of what it is on Earth's surface. Hence, an object that weighs 180 N on Earth would weigh 20 N at a distance of 3R from Earth's center.

Explanation:

To determine the weight of an object at a distance of 3R from the center of Earth, we need to understand how gravitational force decreases with distance. The gravitational force and, therefore, gravitational acceleration (g) at a distance r from a mass M is given by Newton's law of universal gravitation:

F = G(Mm/r²)

where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of Earth, m is the mass of the object, and r is the distance to the center of Earth. The weight (W) of an object is the product of its mass m and the gravitational acceleration g, so:

W = mg

The gravitational acceleration (g) on Earth's surface is 9.80 m/s². We can use the formula:

g' = GM/(3R)²

to find the gravitational acceleration at a distance of 3R. Since the mass of the object cancels out, we get:

g' = g/R²

And we know the object's weight on Earth's surface (W = 180 N), so:

W' = (W/R²) x 1/9

Substituting the values, we have:

W' = 180 N / 9 = 20 N

Therefore, at a distance of 3R from the center of the Earth, the object would weigh 20 N.

Answer:

Gemini

Explanation:

Zodiac Constellation or Sun sign is the constellation in which the Sun resides on the date of birth of a person. Throughout the year the Sun crosses across 12 constellations thus there are 12 Sun-signs. Though astronomically the Sun crosses across 13 constellations so there should be 13 zodiacs but most of the astrologers do not accept this. On the date of June 20, the Sagittarius which is a summer constellation and a zodiac can be seen high up in the sky in the night time. At this time the Sun will be in a constellation which is almost opposite to Sagittarius in the celestial sphere. That constellation is Gemini. Thus for a person born on 20 June, zodiac will be Gemini.

Your zodiac constellation according to modern Western astrology would be Gemini, not Sagittarius, if you see Sagittarius high in the sky around your birthday on June 20. This is due to the precession of constellations, which has caused a shift of about 1/12th of the zodiac, or roughly the width of one sign, since the astrological signs were first designated over 2000 years ago.

If you see Sagittarius high in your night sky on June 20 and today is your birthday, which would mean your birthday is also around June 20, your zodiac constellation is not Sagittarius but the one that precedes it. Due to precession, the sun signs are about a month behind the real constellations. Since Sagittarius is the zodiac for those born around December 22 to January 19, if we go back one sign from Sagittarius, we find Scorpio, which is for those born around October 23 to November 21. However, due to precession, you would actually be a Gemini by the sun sign astrology, which is designated for those born around May 21 to June 20. Another important aspect to consider here is the difference between astronomy and astrology: while astronomy is a scientific study of celestial bodies and the universe, astrology is a belief system that suggests a relationship between the positions of celestial bodies and events on Earth. Even though astrology assigns a sign to the dates when it was first set up, the actual constellations have since shifted.

Answer:

227.27 N

Explanation:

Torque: This can be defined as the force that tend to cause an object to twist or rotate. the torque of a body is also called moment of a body. The S.I unit of torque is N.m.

Mathematically

T = F×d ....................... Equation 1

Making F the subject of the equation,

F = T/d ..................... Equation 2

T = torque required to loosen the nut, F = force applied  , d = distance between the force and the center of the nut.

Given: T = 50 N.m, d = 22 cm = (22/100) = 0.22 m.

F = 50/0.22

F = 227.27 N.

Thus the minimum force required to loosen the nut = 227.27 N

Answer:

The time taken by Rick is Δt =  (D/2 / v_w ) + (D/2  /  v_r)

Explanation:

Hi there!

The equation of average velocity (v) is the following:

v = Δx / Δt

Where:

Δx = traveled distance.

Δt = elapsed time.

During the first half of Rick´s journey, the average velocity can be written as follows:

v_w = D/2 /  Δt1

Solving for Δt1:

Δt1 = D/2 / v_w

For the second half of the trip:

v_r = D/2 / Δt2

Δt2 = D/2 /  v_r

The time it takes Rick to cover the distance D will be equal to Δt1 + Δt2

Δt = Δt1 + Δt12

Δt =  (D/2 / v_w ) + (D/2  /  v_r)

The time taken by Rick is Δt =  (D/2 / v_w ) + (D/2  /  v_r)

The frequency, wavelength, and speed of the wave are equal to 14.65 Hz, 0.4299m, and 6.298 Hz.

The frequency can be described as the number of oscillations or cycles in 1 second. The SI unit of frequency has per second or hertz.

The wavelength can be defined as the distance between the two adjacent crests or troughs on a wave that is separated by a distance.

The standard equation of wave can be expressed as:

[tex]{\displaystyle y(x,t) = Acos (\frac{2\pi x}{\lambda} \pm 2\pi ft )[/tex]

Given the equation of the wave: y(x,t) = (3.5cm) cos (2.7x−92t)

Therefore, the wavelength can be calculated as:

2π/ λ = 2.7

λ = 2.7/2π

λ = 0.4299 m

The frequency of the given wave can be calculated as:

2πf = 92

f = 92/2π

f = 14.65 Hz

The speed of the wave can determine from the above-mentioned relationship:

V = νλ

V = 14.65 × 0.4299

V = 6.29 m/s

Learn more about wavelength and frequency, here:

brainly.com/question/18651058

#SPJ5

Answer:

 r =  1.45 Å

Explanation:

given,

λ = 1.436 Å

θ = 20.62°

d = a

n = 2

metal gold crystallizes in a face centered cubic unit cell

Radius of the gold atom = ?

using Bragg's Law

 n λ = 2 d sin θ

 2 x 1.436 Å = 2 a sin 20.62°

 a = 4.077 Å

We know relation of radius for face centered cubic unit cell

 [tex]a = \dfrac{4r}{\sqrt{2}}[/tex]

 [tex]4.077= \dfrac{4\times r}{\sqrt{2}}[/tex]

 r =  1.45 Å

the radius of a(n) gold atom. is equal to 1.45 Å

Answer:

The Coulomb’s Law is as follows

[tex] \vec{F} = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0}\frac{q_1q_2}{r^2}\^r[/tex]

According to this law, the force between two charged objects can be calculated using the distance between the objects. If the objects are large, then it is not possible to determine the distance, r, between that object and the other object. Because, the edge of the object contain charges as well as the center of the object.

In that case, you need to separate the object into infinitesimal points, apply the formula to those points, then integrate over the large object to find the force between objects.

Answer:

 f = 2 f₀

Explanation:

A mass-spring system has angular velocity

         w = √ k / m

The angular velocity is related to the frequency

          w = 2π f

          f = 1 /2π  √k / m

If we change the mass for another that is ¼ of the initial mass

            m = ¼ mo

We replace

             f = 1 / 2π √(k 4 / mo)

             f = (1 / 2π √k/m₀) √ 4

             f = 2 f₀

In summary the frequency doubles from the initial frequency

The frequency of oscillation of the system by a factor of should be considered as the  f = 2 f₀.

Since

A mass-spring system has angular velocity that applied the following equation

w = √ k / m

Also,

The angular velocity should be related to the frequency

         w = 2π f

         f = 1 /2π  √k / m

Now        

In the case when we change the mass for another that is ¼ of the initial mass

So,

           m = ¼ mo

Now

            f = 1 / 2π √(k 4 / mo)

            f = (1 / 2π √k/m₀) √ 4

            f = 2 f₀

Learn more about frequency here: https://brainly.com/question/22721527