The circumference of a particular circle is 18 cm. In square centimeters, what is the area of the circle? Express your answer as a common fraction in terms of pi.

Answer:

The theater is approximately 3.16 units from Sam's location.

Step-by-step explanation:

The distance between points [tex](x_{1}, y_{1})[/tex] and [tex](x_{2}, y_{2})[/tex] is given by:

[tex]d=\sqrt{(x_{2}-x_{1} )^{2}+(y_{2}-y_{1} )^{2} }[/tex]

So, the distance of the theater from Sam's location is:

[tex]d=\sqrt{(-3-(-4) )^{2}+(5-2 )^{2} }[/tex]

[tex]=\sqrt{1^{2}+3^{2} }[/tex]

[tex]=\sqrt{10}[/tex]

= 3.16 approximately

Hence, the theater is approximately 3.16 units from Sam's location.

Answer:

156.86

Step-by-step explanation:

136.40 + 15% is 20.46 added to 136.40 is 156.86

Answer:

$156.86.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have been given that the bill at a restaurant came to $136.40. The patrons decided to leave a 15% tip.

The total bill including tip would $136.40 plus 15% of $136.40.

[tex]\text{Total bill}=\$136.40+\frac{15}{100}\times \$136.40[/tex]

[tex]\text{Total bill}=\$136.40+0.15\times \$136.40[/tex]

[tex]\text{Total bill}=\$136.40+\$20.46[/tex]

[tex]\text{Total bill}=\$156.86[/tex]

Therefore, the total cost of bill including tip would be $156.86.

Answer:

We can fill 150 paper cup cones.

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a cone is

V = 1/3 pi * r^2 *h

The volume of one cone is

pi = 3.14

r = d/2 = 6/2 =3

h=9

Substitute what we know

V = 1/3 * (3.14) * (3^2) * (9)

   = 27* 3.14

   = 84.78  cm^3

The water cooler has 12717 cm^3 water

Divide the water by the volume of the paper cup cone  and we will know how many paper cup cones we can fill, assuming we fill them completely.

12717/ 84.78 = 150

We can fill 150 paper cup cones.

The volume of one cone-shaped paper cup is 84.78 cm³. With 12,717 cm³ of water in the cooler, approximately 150 cups can be filled.

To find out how many paper cups can be filled from the water cooler, we first need to calculate the volume of one paper cup. Given that the cup is shaped like a cone with a height of 9 cm and a base diameter of 6 cm, we can find the volume using the formula for the volume of a cone, which is V = (1/3)\u03c0r^2h, where V is the volume, r is the radius of the base, and h is the height of the cone.

The radius of the base is half the diameter, so r = 3 cm. Plugging in the values into the formula, we get: V = (1/3)*3.14*(3²)*9.

Calculating this, we get V \<= 84.78 cm³ per cup. Now, to determine how many cups can be filled from the cooler containing 12,717 cm³ of water, we divide the total amount of water in the cooler by the volume of one cup:

Number of cups = 12,717 cm³ / 84.78 cm³.

This gives us approximately 150 cups that can be filled from the water cooler.

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

She needs to have 6 portions of 1/5 pie size.

6 portions of 1/5 pie size is 6/5 of a pie.

6/5 of a pie is the same as 1 1/5 (one and one-fifth) pies.

Since she only bakes full pies, she must round up to the next higher whole number, so she must bake 2 pies.

Answer:

E 8

Step-by-step explanation:

y = w x^2

If we double w and x, replae w with 2w and x with 2x  and solve for y

y = (2w) * (2x)^2

Do the powers first

y = 2w * (4x^2)

y = 8wx^2

Y is now increased by a factor of 8

Answer:

Y will be multiplied by 8.

Right option is (E)

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,  y = wx²    

y is not 0.

If w and x are doubled

That means,

w' = 2w   and x' = 2x

So , y' =w'x'²

or y' = (2w)×(2x)²

or y' = 2w×4x²

or y' = 8wx²

Since y = wx²

so y' = 8y.  

That means if we double the w and x then y will be multiplied by 8.

Answer:

r>7

Step-by-step explanation:

Subtract 2.92.9 from both sides

-1.3-2.9>-0.6r−1.3−2.9>−0.6r

Simplify -1.3-2.9−1.3−2.9 to -4.2−4.2

-4.2>-0.6r−4.2>−0.6r

Divide both sides by -0.6−0.6

\frac{-4.2}{-0.6}<r

​−0.6

​​−4.2

<r

Simplify \frac{-4.2}{-0.6}

​−0.6 ​−4.2​​  to 77

7<r

Switch sides

r>7

Answer:

40%

Step-by-step explanation:

Take 8 and divide it by 20 to get the percent.

Answer:

40%

Step-by-step explanation:

To find this, the method I personally like to use is the is over of equals percent over 100.

Your ratio should look like this:

[tex]\frac{8}{20}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{x}{100}[/tex]

Then I cross multiplied; 8 x 100 divide that product by 20.

Hope this helps!

Answer: 17.3 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Perimeter = 2 ( l + w ). So I did 45 divided by 2 which would be 22.5 then subtract that by 5.2 ft which is 17.3. 17.3 + 5.2 = 22.5 x 2 = 45 ft.

x = number of minutes used, y = total cost in dollars

Plan A: y = 0.09x + 24

Plan B: y = 0.14x + 20

Equate the two right hand side (RHS) expressions and solve for x

0.14x + 20 = 0.09x + 24

0.14x - 0.09x = 24 - 20

0.05x = 4

x = 4/0.05

x = 80

The two plans will cost the same amount of money if you use up 80 minutes

Plug in x = 80 into either equation to find y

y = 0.09*x + 24

y = 0.09*80 + 24

y = 31.20

or

y = 0.14*x + 20

y = 0.14*80 + 20

y = 31.20

So both plans will cost $31.20 if you use up 80 minutes

X divided by 5 minus 4 =

The number . . . . . x

The quotient of the number and 5 . . . x/5

Four less than that . . . . . (x/5) - 4

Answer:

She drove 88 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Total cost =  fee per day + cost per mile * miles driven

We know the total cost was 70.46

The  fee per day  was 29.95 *2 =59.90.  She kept the van 2 days.  

The cost per mile was .12

Substitute in what we know

70.46 = 59.90 +.12 m

Subtract 59.90 from each side

70.46-59.90 = 59.90-59.90 +.12 m  where m is the miles driven

10.56 = .12m

Divide each side by .12

10.56/.12 = .12m/.12

88=m

Answer:

The discount is $79.80

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to solve this using proportions.  We take the percent out of 100 on one side of the ratio and the discount over the total price on the other.

30         discount

-----   = ----------

100        266

30* 266 = 100 * discount

7980=100 discount

Divide each side by 100

7980/100 = discount

79.80 = discount

Answer:

Maximum walking speed of camel is  31.749V feet per second

Step-by-step explanation:

Walking speed of an animal is given by :

Speed = 5.7VI (in feet per second) where l is the animal's leg length.

For a camel, leg length is 5.7feet.

So maximum walking speed of camel will be:

Speed of camel = 5.7V * 5.7 = 5.7² V feet per second

Speed of camel = 31.749V feet per second

hence, maximum walking speed of camel is  31.749V feet per second

The maximum walking speed for a camel with a leg length of 5.7 feet is calculated using the formula 5.7 x / (leg length) and is approximately 13.5945 feet per second.

The question asks us to calculate the maximum walking speed of a camel with a leg length of 5.7 feet using the formula provided, which is maximum speed = 5.7 x /(leg length). To find the camel's speed, we simply plug the leg length into the formula:

Maximum speed = 5.7 x / 5.7 = 5.7 x 2.385 = 13.5945 feet per second.

Thus, the maximum walking speed for a camel with a leg length of 5.7 feet is approximately 13.5945 feet per second.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: What you need to do is add if it has 2.5%  interest per year. And t starts with 500 you could do 2.5 + 500 tell you get to 750 . Hope this helps

To find out how long it will take for a bank account with an initial balance of $500 and an annual interest rate of 2.5% to reach a balance of $750, we use the time formula for simple interest. Substituting the relevant amounts into the formula, it will take approximately 20 years for the account to reach $750.

This problem pertains to simple interest in finance. The formula for simple interest is I = PRT, where I is the interest, P is the principal amount (the initial amount), R is the annual interest rate in decimal form, and T is the time in years. However, in this case, we want to find the time (T), so we will use the formula T = I / (PR).

In your case, the initial amount or principal (P) is $500, the interest (I) is the difference between the final amount and the initial amount ($750 - $500 = $250), and the interest rate (R) is 2.5% or 0.025 in decimal form.

Substituting these values into the formula, we will have T = $250 / ($500 * 0.025). Calculating this, we get approximately 20 years for the value of the account to be $750.

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Answer: A

Step-by-step explanation: I use synthetic division for problems like these:

-3 | 4 2 -18 38

     4 -10 12 2

Since -3 + 3 = 0, we use -3 in this process. Write out the coefficients in order separate from -3. Next, bring down the 4 and multiply -3 by 4 = -12. Add 2 and -12 = -10. Multiply -10 by -3 = 30. Add 30 to -18 to get 12. Multiply 12 and -3 = -36. Add -36 and 38 = 2

Answer:

A) 2

Step-by-step explanation:

correct answer on my test

Answer:

8800 yards.

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert miles to yards, you must multiply the amount of miles by 1760.

Because there are 5 miles, multiply 5 by 1760.

[tex]5(1760)=8800[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:To figure this out you must first put the equation up.1760 yards are in a mile so you can do 1760*5=y Just multiply 1760 to 5 which should give you 8800.Hope this helps!!!!!!!Please mark brainliest!!!!!

Answer:

Not factorable.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have a trinomial (3 terms). We factor by splitting the middle term 4t into factors of -7 (the last term) which add to 4.

-7 = 1 * -7

4t= 1t+-7t doesn't work

4t=-1t+7t doesn't work

This is not factorable.

Answer:

(t + 7) • (t - 11)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: B. [tex]150^{\circ}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given picture, we can see a circle with two perpendicularly intersecting chords .

The measure internal angle made by intersecting of chords : [tex]90^{\circ}[/tex]

The measure of minor arc : [tex]30^{\circ}[/tex]

The formula to find the internal angle is given by :-

[tex]\theta=\dfrac{\text{Minor arc + major arc}}{2}[/tex]

Let x be the Major arc AC, the we have the following equation:-

[tex]90^{\circ}=\dfrac{30^{\circ}\text{ + x}}{2}\\\\\Rightarrow\ 30^{\circ}+x=180^{\circ}\\\\\Rightarrow\ x=180^{\circ}-30^{\circ}\\\\\Rightarrow\ x=150^{\circ}[/tex]

Hence, the measure of [tex]\overarc{AC}=150^{\circ}[/tex]

The measure of the major arc AC is 150°.

In the given picture, a circle with two perpendicularly intersecting chords is shown. The angle formed by the intersection of the chords is labeled as 90°. Additionally, the minor arc formed by these chords has a measure of 30°.

To find the measure of the major arc, we use the formula: θ = (minor arc + major arc) / 2.

Let x represent the measure of the major arc AC.

The formula can be set up as follows: 90° = (30° + x) / 2.

Solving for x, we first multiply both sides by 2 to eliminate the fraction: 180° = 30° + x.

Next, we isolate x by subtracting 30° from both sides:

x = 180° - 30°.

Simplifying further, we get x = 150°.

Therefore, the measure of the major arc AC is 150°. This calculation ensures that the angle formed by the intersecting chords is indeed 90°, and the given information about the minor arc aligns with the solution.

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Answer:

y = 20x + 40

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the rental rate for a cement mixer has a flat rate of $40 plus $20 for each day of the rental.

That means fixed one time cost is $40 which doesn't changes with time.

If number of days is represented by "x" then rental cost for "x" days will be 20 times x or just 20x.

So the final cost will be sum of fixed cost and the rental cost per day which is:

20x+40

Now if "y" represents total rental cost over time then final cost equation can be written as:

y = 20x + 40

Hence final answer is y = 20x + 40y = 20x + 40.

Answer:The answer is Y=20x+40

Answer: Both 110 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

2= 110 thanks to corresponding angles theorm

1=2 because of vertical angles theorom

Answer: 4.875

Step-by-step explanation:

Starting fraction: 4  7/8

Make it mixed: 39/8

Now divide top by bottom: 4.875

Answer: 112

112 dollars because 560 divided by 5 equals 112

Answer:

$112

Step-by-step explanation:

You are going to take your total and divide that by how many it is to get the single one your looking for if that makes sense..

560(total)/5(how many)=$112

Hope that helps feel free to ask more questions

Brainliest??

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

given a parabola in standard form : y = ax² + bx + c : a ≠ 0

• If a > 0 then parabola opens up

• If a < 0 then parabola opens down

given y = 4x² - 8x + 8 ← in standard form

with a = 4, b = - 8 and c = 8

here a > 0 then parabola opens up

Answer:

Let x be the number.

It is given that a 15 : 9 aspect ratio and a screen that is 42 inches.

Aspect ratio states that  the ratio of the display image’s width to its height.

Then;

Width of the television of(w) = 15x

and height of the television(h) = 9x.

Since, television is in the form of Rectangle.

And it is also, given that the screen is 42 inches .

⇒Diagonal of the television(D) = 42 inches

Using formula of diagonal of the rectangle :

[tex]D^2 =w^2+h^2[/tex]

Substitute the given values to solve for x;

[tex]42^2 = (15x)^2+(9x)^2[/tex]

[tex]1764 = 225x^2 + 81x^2 = 306x^2[/tex]

or

[tex]x^2 = \frac{1764}{306} = 5.76[/tex]

[tex]x = \sqrt{5.76} = 2.4[/tex]

Then:

width of the television (15x) = 15(2.4) = 36 inches and

Height of the television (9x) = 9(2.4) = 21.6 inches.

Therefore, the actual dimensions of the television are;

width = 36 inches and height = 21.6 inches.

Answer:

-2700 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

The first year we have a loss of 1500 dollars. On the balance sheet we write -1500, with the negative indicating loss. Some accounting practices will use parenthesis to mean loss, so you might see it as (1500). But in this problem, we'll use negative signs for loss.

The second year is loss of 1200. Add up the two losses (the positive versions of each) to get 1500+1200 = 2700. Then make the result negative. Taking one loss and adding more loss to it means your loss has gotten bigger. So that's why the closing balance at the end of year 2 is -2700 dollars, which is a loss of 2700 dollars.

Answer:

1.

a. -3

b. 9

c. 5

d. -12

2.

a. 9 + (–6) = 3

b. (–5) + 8 = 3

c. (–12) + (–6) = -18

d. 10 – (–8) = 18

e. (–4) – (+2) = -6

f.  –9 – (–5) = 4

3.

a. 8 * 3 = 24

b. -7 * 5 = -35

c. -6 * -9 = 54

d. 8 / -2 = -4

e. -24 / -3 = 8

f. -36 / 6 = -6

4.

$65.00 - $82.00 = -$17

5.

$84

6.

-$1,500 + -$1,200 = -$2,700

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The length of wooden board = 9.4648 feet.

Step-by-step explanation:

The wooden board makes a Right triangle with the building in which we have wooden board as hypotenuse, building as opposite side, and ground as adjacent side, the angle of elevation is 65 degrees.

Given adjacent side = 4 feet and elevation angle = 65 degrees.

We can use cosine formula in right triangle as follows:-

Cos(65°) = Adjacent / Hypotenuse

cos(65°) = 4 / Hypotenuse

Hypotenuse = 4 / cos(65°)

Hypotenuse = 9.464806333 feet.

Hence, the length of wooden board = 9.4648 feet.

Final answer:

To find the length of the wooden board which forms a 65-degree angle with the ground and has its base 4 feet from the building, use the cosine function to calculate the hypotenuse of the right triangle formed. The length of the board is approximately 9.06 feet.

Explanation:

To find the length of the wooden board leaning against a building, we can use trigonometry. Since the base of the board forms a 65-degree angle with the ground, and the distance from the base of the building to the base of the board is 4 feet, we have a right-angled triangle where we know the angle and the adjacent side.

Step-by-step solution:

Identify the right triangle formed by the board, the ground, and the wall of the building.

Use the cosine function which relates the adjacent side and hypotenuse in a right triangle. The cosine of an angle is equal to the length of the adjacent side divided by the length of the hypotenuse (cos(θ) = adjacent/hypotenuse).

Rearrange the formula to solve for the hypotenuse: hypotenuse = adjacent/cos(θ).

Plug in the values: hypotenuse = 4 ft / cos(65°).

Calculate the length using a calculator: hypotenuse ≈ 4 ft / cos(65°) ≈ 9.06 ft.

The length of the wooden board is approximately 9.06 feet.

The least common multiple (and i apologize for my English) of 40 and 30 is 120.

23×3 69 11×4 44

-------= ------ -------= -------

40×3 120 30×4 120

69/120 - 44/120 = 25/120 witch is equal to 5/24 if you simplify with 5.

Answer:

AB

Step-by-step explanation:

the shape is in the wrong place