The modern Himalayas continue to grow as a plate carrying oceanic crust subducts beneath a plate carrying continental crust.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: True. The growth is as a result of and is the convergence between these crusts

Explanation:

Convergent: Continental to Continental then to Oceanic crust

A convergent boundary is created when an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate. The oceanic plates typically goes under the continental plate when this the case. The going under is because the oceanic plate is thinner and more dense than the continental plate. This type of convergent boundary is what probably create volcanic mountain ranges like Mount Rainier, the Ring of Fire. It can also cause earthquakes and some seismic activities.


Related Questions

Reptiles and birds excrete waste as an insoluble white solid that is called uric acid. How does this help them to maintain internal homeostasis in hot climates? by retaining water by conserving energy by reducing body temperature by maintaining heart rate

Answers

Answer:

This help them to maintain internal homeostasis in hot climates by retaining water  .

Explanation:

Homeostasis is maintaining balance within a system, as you can see this in cells. This in them conserve as much water as possible, they do this by converting their waste to a solid, since it doesn't require water to excrete. This helps them to maintain internal homeostasis in hot climates since the presence of water allows them to cool easily.  In case of the homeostasis the movement of particles takes place against the concentration gradient.

Answer: this helps them maintain homeostasi by maintaining water on edg 2020

Explanation:

Those arguing for the inclusion of a neutral option on an interval scale believe that some respondents do not have opinions formed on that item, and they must be given the opportunity to indicate their ambivalence.

Answers

Answer:

True .

Explanation:

An argument may be defined as the series of the statements that are known as premises.  The individual can be involved in the argument to prove the strength of the true statement.

The interval scale is also involved in the arguing. Some arguers or responders might do not have same thinking on the same items. Each individual must given a chance to prove their thinking or feelings.

Thus, the answer is true.

True or false? Pathogens include viruses, bacteria, ticks, fungi, and parasitic worms. (2 points)

Answers

Answer: False

Explanation:

A pathogen is a anything which can cause disease in a living being. A pathogen is an infectious agent or a germ. Infectious microorganism like bacteria, virus, viroids, protozoa and fungus are pathogenic in nature. Plants, animals and certain worms are also pathogen in nature.

Among the options given ticks and parasitic worms cannot be consider as pathogens as these can live as parasite in the body of the host organism by sucking blood and deriving nutrients but they do not cause any disease to them.

Gibbons are small apes that live in the trees of southeast Asia. A scientist predicts that at the current rate of deforestation in southeast Asia, the region's carrying capacity for gibbons will decrease by 10 percent every year. The scientist's prediction provides the strongest support for which of these conclusions? A. The gibbon population will decrease by 5 percent every year until reaching a certain minimum size, which it will maintain. B. The gibbon population will decrease by 10 percent every year until reaching a certain minimum size, which it will maintain. C. Gibbons will maintain their current population size as they adapt to new environments. D. Gibbons will eventually become extinct in the wild.

Answers

The scientist's prediction that Southeast Asia's carrying capacity for gibbons will decrease by 10 percent due to deforestation supports the conclusion that the gibbon population will also decrease by 10 percent yearly until stabilized at a minimum size (which corresponds to option B).

A scientist predicts that due to ongoing deforestation in Southeast Asia, the carrying capacity for gibbons will decrease by 10 percent every year. This prediction strongest supports the conclusion that the gibbon population will decrease by 10 percent every year until it reaches a minimum size, which it will then maintain (which corresponds to option B). This conclusion assumes that the gibbons' population size is directly correlated with the carrying capacity of the environment, which in this case is decreasing due to deforestation. As the carrying capacity shrinks, the number of gibbons that the region can sustain also goes down, potentially leading to a continuous decline in population until a new equilibrium with the reduced carrying capacity is found.

A sperm cell's acrosome ______.

A) contains the sperm's mitochondria
B) fuses with the plasma membrane of the egg cell
C) contains enzymes that are released when the sperm encounters an egg and dissolves a hole in the jellylike matrix that surrounds the egg
D) contains the sperm's nucleus and is the part of the sperm that enters the egg during fertilization

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Sperm cells do a great and tasking job in their quest for egg fertilization. First, they have to find an egg to fertilize by swimming a long distance, as not all released sperm finds an egg. The few that finds an egg still have to cross the egg's protective coat and fuse their own membrane with the plasma membrane of the the egg. This process of crossing the egg's barrier is referred to as ACROSOME reaction.

The acrosome is a lysosome-like vesicle located in between the sperm's plasma membrane and nuclear membrane (nucleus) derived from the golgi complex of the spermatid. It is closer to the plasma membrane at the tip of the sperm's head. The vesicle contains soluble proteolytic enzymes such as acrosin and inner membrane proteins such as bindin.

The acrosome reaction is the exocytosis of the acrosome, or the fusion of the acrosomal membrane with the sperm's plasma membrane. The process releases the acrosomal contents (lytic enzymes) to the outside of the sperm.

When the acrosome's proteolytic enzymes are released, they begin to degrade the egg's protein-rich protective coat. The egg's plasma membrane is surrounded by a thick ZONA PELLUCIDA layer made of extracellular matrix and a jelly-like cumulus layer surrounding it. This degradation creates a path for the sperm to swim through on its way to the egg's plasma membrane. This enables the plasma membranes of the egg and sperm to fuse placing both haploid nuclei (one from the sperm, the other from the egg) into the same cell, where they form the diploid genome of the new organism.

If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of

A) genetic drift.
B) bottleneck effect.
C) founder effect.
D) all three of these.
E) both the first and third of these.

Answers

Answer:

If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of

E) both the first and third of these.

Explanation:

Genetic drift was the process of changing of allele frequencies over generations in a random fashion.

Founder effect is closely linked with the genetic drift. In this case, a few individuals of the original population start a new colony isolated from the other members of the species.

A founder effect happens when a new colony started from few members of the original population. The small size of population means that the colony may have a small variation of the genes in the original population.

A founder effect event happens when a small group of individuals was separated from the rest of the population, whereas a bottleneck effect occurs when most of the population is destroyed.

Final answer:

The correct answer to the question is C) founder effect, which occurs when a new population is established by a subset of the original population, carrying with it an unrepresentative set of alleles. Genetic drift includes both the bottleneck and founder effects, but they occur under different conditions. The scenario described is not a bottleneck event but rather represents the founder effect.

Explanation:

If the original finches that had been blown over to the Galápagos from South America had already been genetically different from the parental population of South American finches, even before adapting to the Galápagos, this would have been an example of the founder effect. The founder effect is a form of genetic drift where a few individuals establish a new population that is not genetically representative of the original population. Since this scenario involves a new population being established by a subset of the original population and carrying with it an unrepresentative set of alleles, it matches the definition of the founder effect.

Genetic drift is the effect of chance on a population's gene pool and it can manifest in special cases such as the bottleneck effect and the founder effect. The bottleneck effect occurs when a population's size is significantly reduced due to a catastrophic event, leading to a random alteration in allele frequencies that is not based on the organisms' traits. However, since the finches in question were not subjected to a catastrophe that reduced their numbers, but rather were part of a group that started a new population, the bottleneck effect is not applicable in this case.

Therefore, option C, the founder effect, is the accurate answer. It is important to note that while both bottleneck and founder effects are examples of genetic drift, they occur under different conditions and are not interchangeable terms. The correct answer is C) founder effect.

You identify an RFLP in mice by digesting genomic DNA with HindIII enzyme and radiolabeling a piece of probe DNA. Southern blot analysis shows that the probe detects a 2-kb fragment in one strain of mice and a 4-kb fragment in another strain of mice. The two mice strains are crossed to produce an F1 generation. Two F1siblings are mated to produce a dozen F2 progeny. You isolate genomic DNA from several F1 and F2 individuals, digest with HindIII, and perform a Southern blot with the same probe.How many bands would be seen in the Southern blot of an F1 individual?A. twoB. fourC. one or twoD. oneE. three

Answers

Answer:

Part 1 =          (A) Two

Part 2 =         (B) Cleavage of X-gal

Explanation:

Part 1: As   probe detects a 2-Kb fragment in one strain of mice and a 4-kb fragment in another strain of mice.Thus 2 bands would be seen in the Southern blot of an F1 individual.

Part 2: The antibiotic & Xgal markers provide a selection scheme for recombinant bacterial colonies, as follows. First, only bacterial colonies that contain a plasmid-borne antibiotic-resistance gene can grow at all. Second, of those that grow, only those whose plasmids carry a functional LacZ in the poly-linker can metabolize Xgal.

From a physiological standpoint, the best breathing technique requires the lifter to inhale when lowering the weight and exhale when lifting the weight.
A) True
B) False

Answers

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

Respiration may be defined as the process of exchange of the oxygen and carbon dioxide between the body and the environment. The gaseous exchange depends on the partial pressure of the gases.

Different breathing techniques are used by the sportsman according to their exercise. The best breathing technique that are used by the lifters is the inhalation of the oxygen when lowers the weight. The air must be breathe out when lift the weight.

Thus, the answer is true.

What carries information for the rods and cones back out to the ganglion cells and then to the brain?

Answers

Answer: Fovea Centralis

Explanation:

Fovea Centralis is located at the center of the retina. It is responsible for interpreting visual detail with accuracy, by sending visual information to the ganglion cells, which eventually transmits them to the brain.

Thus, Fovea Centralis is the answer

Species that have a capacity for a high rate of population increase are called ____.

Answers

Answer:

r-selected species

Explanation:

Species that have a capacity for a high rate of population increase are called r-selected species.

What is the diversity in the species?

The species diversity index can be defined as the measure of the diversity of species. This takes into the account for the number of species present in an area, also the relative abundance of species in an area. If the species richness increases, evenness of the species also increases and the diversity of species also increases.

Biodiversity has been the variety and variability of all living organisms within a given environment. The main components that contribute to biodiversity has been given as follow:

1 - Species richness: It takes into account the number of different species present in an area. So the more species, the more richer that place is.

2 - Species evenness: It describes the relative abundance of the different species in an area. That is, the more similar the abundance (quantity) of a species, the more uniform it will be.

Therefore, Species that have a capacity for a high rate of population increase are called r-selected species.

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The study of human populations is called

Answers

Answer:

Demography

Explanation:

Demography: is the study of human populations; their size, composition and distribution across space and the process by which populations change.

An advantage of gas exchange in fresh water, compared with gas exchange in air, is that:
a. water usually contains a higher concentration of oxygen than air
b. ventilation requires less energy in water
c. the respiratory surface does not have to be as extensive in water
d. water is easier to move over the respiratory surface
e. water loss through evaporation across the respiratory surface can be minimized

Answers

Answer:

e. water loss through evaporation across the respiratory surface can be minimized

Explanation:

Exchange of gases, otherwise known as respiration is an important process in living organisms during which food material within the body is broken down to unlock their energies for the functioning of living organisms.

During gaseous exchange, oxygen gas diffuses into respiratory tissues and dissolves on respiratory surfaces while carbon dioxide diffuses in the other direction.

Respiratory surfaces are usually thin walled with moist inner surfaces that enables the dissolution of gases. Depending on the atmospheric temperature, respiratory surfaces in terrestrial organisms are at varying risks of losing moisture to the atmosphere due to evaporation.

In aquatic organisms however, evaporation from respiratory surfaces is minimized as the immediate environment is water.

Options a to d are not entirely true about water and respiration.

The correct option is e.

Final answer:

The major advantage of gas exchange in fresh water, compared to air, is that water loss through evaporation across the respiratory surface can be minimized. This is crucial for water-dwelling organisms' survival.

Explanation:

The advantage of gas exchange in fresh water, compared to gas exchange in air lies within option e). Water loss through evaporation across the respiratory surface can be minimized in water. Freshwater species often have additional adaptations to prevent excessive water loss. For instance, fish have gills which allows for effective gas exchange whilst maintaining water balance. Gas exchange surfaces in water-dwelling organisms are usually kept moist to facilitate this exchange. Consequently, these organisms minimize water loss through evaporation which is vital to their survival. Note that options a, b, c, and d are not correct because water does not usually have a higher concentration of oxygen than air, ventilation requires more energy in water, the respiratory surface needs to be more extensive in water, and water is not necessarily easier to move over the respiratory surface.

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BEST ANSWER GETS BRAINLIEST!!!!!!

Which of the following best describes the long-term impact of using a renewable energy source?

Hydropower involves blocking rivers, which disrupts ecosystems.
Geothermal energy can pollute water supplies.
Nuclear power produces radiation, which is harmful if leaked.
Natural gas causes air pollution when burned.

Answers

Answer:

Hydropower involves blocking rivers, which disrupts ecosystems.

Explanation:

Prolonged use of hydropower can disrupt the ecosystem since it involves the blocking of rivers. This is a long term impact hydropower generation.

Hydropower is a renewable source of energy in which water is used to generate electricity.

The water is sourced from large river bodies with a lot of kinetic energy in them.

Huge volumes of water discharge is needed for this process.

Therefore, water must be dammed for this purpose.

Damming of water bodies affects the ecosystem.

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Answer:

Hydropower involves blocking rivers, which disrupts ecosystems.

Explanation:

I got this correct

Which of the following statements about acid precipitation is NOT true?

a) An increase in the use of buses and trains decreases the effects of acid precipitation.

b) Acid precipitation forms when sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides combine with atmospheric moisture to create sulfuric acid and nitric acid.

c) A decrease in the use of cars would mean fewer nitrogen oxides would pour into the air and less acid precipitation would form.

d) Most nitrogen oxides that cause acid precipitation come from factories.

Answers

If I remember correctly, I believe the answer is a) An increase in the use of buses and trains decreases the effects of acid precipitation.

The decrease of using buses and trains would decrease the effects of acid precipitation.

Every other option seemed right to me!

~ Good luck!

The correct answer is D :)

California enacts a statute to ban advertising in "bad taste." This stat-ute would likely be held by a court to be

(A) anunconstitutional restriction of speech.
(B) constitutional under the First Amendment.
(C) justified by the need to protect individual rights.
(D)necessary to protect national interests

Answers

Answer:

Option A, an unconstitutional restriction of speech

Explanation:

Please see the attachment

Final answer:

The correct option is (A). A statute in California aimed to ban advertising in "bad taste" would likely be struck down as unconstitutional under the First Amendment, as prior case law supports the protection of speech unless it fails strict tests such as content-neutrality or imminent lawless action.

Explanation:

The correct option is (A). The question regards whether a California statute to ban advertising in "bad taste" would likely be held by a court to be constitutional or not. Based on relevant case law and First Amendment jurisprudence, such a statute would likely be deemed an unconstitutional restriction of speech. The United States Supreme Court has consistently held that statutes regulating speech must be content-neutral, not overbroad, and the least restrictive means to achieve a compelling government interest.

In cases like Stromberg v. California and Cohen v. California, the Supreme Court has protected symbolic speech and offensive language, respectively, under the First Amendment. Moreover, laws targeting obscenity or fighting words must pass strict scrutiny such as the Miller Test or be designed to prevent imminent lawless action. Broad regulations on speech based on taste are likely to be struck down as they are neither content-neutral nor narrow enough to avoid infringing on protected speech.

Nikhil asked 120 randomly chosenmoviegoers to watch a clip of an upcoming movie and choose the best title. The title "Everything" was chosen by 36 of the moviegoers as the preferred title. To the nearest percent, with a confidence level of 90% (z*-score 1.645), what is the confidence interval for the proportion of moviegoers who preferred the title "Everything"? E = z* and C = + E between 4% and 10% between 7% and 30% between 23% and 37% between 29% and 43%

Answers

Answer:

C. between 23% and 37%

Explanation:

Given:

The total viewers(n) = 120

The total number that chooses the title  "Everything” = 36

Therefore,

The mean proportion is p = 36/120 = 0.3.

Let's find the standard deviation of the proportion

=√(p*(1-p)/n)

= √(0.3*0.7/120)

= 0.0418.

Next step is to multiply 0.0418 by the z-score of 1.645 to get the deviation

The confidence interval

= (0.3 - 0.0688, 0.3 + 0.0688)

=(0.2312, 0.3688).

=(23.12%, 36.88%)

Answer:C

Explanation:

Large, slow brain waves called Delta waves are most associated with which stage of sleep?

Answers

Answer:

Deep stage 3 of NREM

Explanation:

Delta waves are a type of waves that are recorded in an EEG and has a frequency of 0.5 to 4 Hertz. These waves are known detected during the deep stage 3 of NREM and hence this stage is also known as slow wave sleep. Out of all the brain waves that are detected during an EEG, these waves are the ones with the highest amplitude and the slowest in nature .These waves are detected first at stage 3 and then dominates the stage 4 of the sleep. Since it is in the stage 3 that these waves are detected, the sleep during this stage is also known as delta sleep.

Answer:

Stage 4 for A P E X test

Explanation:

In pea plants, the allele for purple flower color is dominant to the allele for white flower color. If you were to perform a test cross to determine the genotype of a purple-flowered plant, what would you expect the phenotypic ratio of purple-flowered to white-flowered progeny to be if the plant is homozygous? And what would you expect if the plant is heterozygous?
A. If the purple-flowered plant is homozygous, then the progeny would all have purple flowers; if the purple-flowered plant is heterozygous, then the progeny would have purple to white flowers in a 1:1 ratio.
B. If the purple-flowered plant is homozygous, than the progeny would all have white flowers; if the purple-flowered plant is heterozygous, then the progeny would have purple to white flowers in a 1:1 ratio.
C. If the purple-flowered plant is homozygous, than the progeny would have purple to white flowers in a 1:3 ratio; if the purple-flowered plant is heterozygous, then the progeny would have purple to white flowers in a 1:1 ratio.
D. If the purple-flowered plant is homozygous, than the progeny would all have purple flowers; if the purple-flowered plant is heterozygous, then the progeny would have purple to white flowers in a 3:1 ratio.
E. If the purple-flowered plant is homozygous, than the progeny would have purple to white flowers in a 1:3 ratio; if the purple-flowered plant is heterozygous, then the progeny would have purple to white flowers in a 1:3 ratio.

Answers

Final answer:

The phenotypic ratio of purple-flowered to white-flowered progeny would be different depending on the genotype of the purple-flowered plant: all purple flowers if homozygous and a 1:1 ratio if heterozygous.

Explanation:

In a test cross to determine the genotype of a purple-flowered plant, if the plant is homozygous for the purple flower color allele, all the progeny would have purple flowers. This is because the purple flower color allele is dominant to the white flower color allele. On the other hand, if the plant is heterozygous, the progeny would show a 1:1 phenotypic ratio of purple to white flowers.

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A new kind of tulip is produced that develops only purple or pink flowers. Assume that flower color is controlled by a single-gene locus, and that the purple allele (C) is dominant to the pink allele (c). A random sample of 1000 tulips from a large cultivated field yields 847 purple flowers, and 153 pink flowers.
a. Determine the frequency of the purple and pink alleles in this field population.
b. Estimate the proportion of all purple flowering plants that are heterozygotes and homozygotes.
a. purple allele (C) = 0.609, pink allele (c) = 0.391
b. purple homozygotes = 371, pink homozygotes = 153, heterozygotes = 476

Answers

Answer:

a. purple allele (C) = 0.609, pink allele (c) = 0.391

b. purple homozygotes = 371, pink homozygotes = 153, heterozygotes = 476

Explanation:

Given -

Purple flowers - 847

Pink flowers - 153

The frequency of recessive genotype i.e

[tex]q^ 2 = \frac{153}{1000} \\q^ 2 = 0.153\\[/tex]

Frequency of recessive allele i.e q is equal to

[tex]q = \sqrt{0.153} \\q = 0.391[/tex]

As per hardy Weinberg's first equilibrium equation -

[tex]p + q = 1\\p = 1-q\\p = 1-0.391\\p = 0.609[/tex]

Frequency of purple homozygous species

[tex]= p^2\\= 0.609^2\\= 0.371[/tex]

Number of purple homozygous species [tex]= 0.371 * 1000= 371[/tex]

Number of pink homozygous species [tex]= 0.153 * 1000= 153[/tex]

Heterozygous species is equal to

[tex](1-0.371-0.153)* 1000\\= 0.476 * 1000\\= 476[/tex]

Answer:

a. purple allele (C) = 0.609, pink allele (c) = 0.391

b. purple homozygotes = 371, purple heterozygotes = 476

Explanation:

According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:

p + q = 1

p² + 2pq + q² = 1

where, p = frequency of dominant allele

q = frequency of recessive allele

p² = frequency of dominant homozygous genotype

2pq = frequency of heterozygous genotype

q² = frequency of homozygous recessive genotype

a. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium,

frequency of pink flowers (cc) = q² = 153/1000 = 0.153

frequency of pink allele c = q = √0.153 = 0.391

p + q = 1 where p = frequency of dominant allele

So, frequency of purple allele C = p = 1-0.391 = 0.609

b. Purple homozygotes = CC = p² * total population =

(0.609)² * 1000 = 370.88 = 371

Purple heterozygotes = Cc = 2pq * total population =

2 * 0.609 * 0.391 * 1000 = 476.23 = 476

Her appearance was pale, with a slightly jaundiced appearance noted. On 8/24, additional labs were drawn. Which lab abnormality likely explains KS's symptoms?

Answers

Answer:

Excess amount of Bilirubin in the blood stream.

Explanation:

When there is an excess amount of bilirubin in the blood stream, it causes jaundice, with symptoms like; yellow eyes and skin, among others.

Adjustments are made to ensure that:

A. Expenses are recognized in the period in which they are incurred
B. Revenues are recorded in the period in which the performance obligation is satisfied
C. Balance sheet and income statement accounts have correct balances at the end of an accounting period
D. All the above

Answers

Answer:

D. All the above

Explanation:

Adjustments are made to ensure that

A. Expenses are recognized in the period in which they are incurred✔

B. Revenues are recorded in the period in which the performance obligation is satisfied✔

C. Balance sheet and income statement accounts have correct balances at the end of an accounting period✔

Choose all the right answers.

Insects and amphibians:

have six legs
are both vertebrates
go through a metamorphosis
are both invertebrates
do not look like their parents at birth

Answers

Answer:

go through a metamorphosis

Explanation:

METAMORPHOSIS is the change in the form and often habits of an animal after the embryonic stage during normal development.

For Example: the transformation of a caterpillar into a butterfly, OR a tadpole into a frog.

Note that the other options given are WRONG because they are characteristics or features of either of them, NOT both.

Which is known as the most venomous spiders in north america?

Answers

Answer:

Recluse Spiders (Loxosceles)  is known as the most venomous spiders in north america.

Explanation:

There are 3,000 species of spiders  described in North America.

Among the spiders found in North America, only the Loxosceles and Latrodectus species are considered really dangerous and an average of 4 people die from venomous spider bites a year in the USA.

The Brown Recluse Spider's venom can cause significant cutaneous injury with tissue loss and necrosis, and can be deadly to humans. However, though it is very dangerous to people, it is not an aggressive species and it only bites when threatened.

The most venomous spider in noth America is the brown recluse

A _____ is the surgical fixation of a prolapsed rectum to an adjacent tissue or organ.

Answers

Answer: Proctopexy

Explanation:

A Proctopexy is the surgical fixation of a prolapsed rectum to an adjacent tissue or organ.

Proctopexy is a medical procedure that involves the joining/sewing of a PROTRUDING rectum to a nearby tissue or organ like the Sacrum

So, Proctopexy is the answer

When people receive organ transplants, they often need to take medications that decrease immune responses because:________
(1) transplanted organs contain antigens that can trigger white blood cell activity
(2) hormones present in replacement organs prevent the synthesis of antibiotics
(3) transplanted organs produce their own antibiotics
(4) antigens present in these organs attack antibodies already present in the blood

Answers

Answer:

Option 1

Explanation:

The organ transplanted is a foreign element for the body and the medication prescribed after transplantation surgery prevents this organ from the attack of immune system of the body.

Since the immune system is in habit of attacking all foreign agents, it poses highest risk in transplantation surgery and hence effective medication can prevent the organ form being rejected.  

In general, immuno-suppressant or anti-rejection drugs are given to the patient. Along with anti-rejection drug some additional drugs are given to eradicate the side effects of anti-rejection drugs.

Hence, option 1 is correct

Glucose is reabsorbed _______. a) by secondary active transport b) by facilitated diffusion through transmembrane proteins c) into the peritubular capillaries d) All of the above are correct.

Answers

Answer:

All of the above are correct.

Explanation:

The plasma membrane is the selectively permeable membrane that allows the movement of some selected particles only. Different types of movement like diffusion, osmosis and active transport occurs in the body.

Glucose acts as the primary energy source of the body. Glucose can be reabosrbed in the body by the facilitated diffusion and by the secondary active transport as well depending on the site of the cell. Glucose can enter in the peritubular capillaries as well.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

What body systems remove toxins from the body? What are "toxins," and where do they come from? Are all "toxins" alike? Do toxins really cause you to gain body fat or prevent you from losing weight?

Answers

Answer:

Basically, detoxification means cleansing the blood. This is done by removing impurities from the blood in the liver, where toxins are processed for elimination. The body also eliminates toxins through the kidneys, intestines, lungs, lymphatic system, and skin.

Toxins created by the body and even your emotions. These toxins come from industry, car exhausts, air and water pollution, pesticides, herbicides and radiation. They also are found in your hair care products, soaps, make-up, perfumes and cleaning products.

Obesity is a continually growing trend in countries that follow more Western diets and lifestyles, but what if this spike in weight gain can’t be entirely blamed on sugary or fatty foods and a lack of exercise? Turns out toxins contribute to fat storage and make it more difficult to lose those extra pounds too.

Hope it helps!!!!!!!!!!

Brainiest?

Final answer:

The excretory system and the liver play key roles in removing toxins, which are diverse substances from various sources that can affect health. The direct relationship between toxins and weight gain is not well-established, but a healthy excretory function supports overall health and can influence weight management.

Explanation:

The body systems responsible for removing toxins from the body are primarily the excretory system and the liver, which is part of the digestive system. Toxins can be substances such as pollutants, chemicals, and metabolic by-products that need to be cleared out to maintain health. They come from various sources like the environment, food, and the breakdown of bodily tissues. Not all toxins are alike, as they can be both external substances and internal waste products.

Beliefs that toxins are directly causing fat gain or preventing weight loss are not strongly supported by scientific evidence. While an accumulation of certain toxins in the body could potentially lead to negative health outcomes, how much they contribute to body fat gain is not well-established. However, a healthy functioning liver and excretory system are crucial for overall health and can indirectly support weight management by maintaining proper metabolism and bodily functions.

In general, the percentage of body weight that comes from bones, muscles, organs, or body fat varies from person to person, and factors such as diet, exercise, and individual metabolism can influence body composition. Health outcomes can indeed differ based on where body fat is stored, with abdominal (visceral) fat being linked to higher health risks than subcutaneous fat located in other body areas.

What is responsible for keeping the percentage of atmospheric oxygen at a relieve constant rate?

Answers

Answer:  Green plants

Explanation:

The constant  process of photosynthesis which  mopped cabondioixide from the atmosphere  (and the activities of phytoplanktons ) and replace this with Oxygen through photolysis of water, and   is the main driving force that keep the percentages of atmospheric oxygen relatively constant at 20.95%

Additionally the constant release of Carbon dioxide  by animals, and man, as by product of cellular respiration, and the intake of Oxygen  ensured  constant maintenance of continuous  cycle of oxygen for relative constant percentage.

The codon AUG specifies the amino acid methionine. What would the tRNA anitcodon be that recognizes this codon?

Answers

Answer:

UAC

Explanation:

This example portrays that translation, which is the second process of protein synthesis, is about to occur. Translation cannot occur without a special type of RNA called tRNA or transfer RNA.

A tRNA contains a set of three nucleotides called ANTICODON. The tRNA matches an mRNA codon with the amino acid it encodes. The tRNA initially binds to the mRNA and reads the mRNA codon using its anticodon (which is complementary to the mRNA's codon). The actual reading is done by matching the base pairs through hydrogen bonding following the base pairing rule i.e. A-U, G-C. After reading the mRNA codon using its anticodon, it then carries the specific amino acid encoded by that codon it binds to, in order to add to the growing polypeptide chain.

For example, a codon AUG (start codon that signals beginning of translation) will be read by tRNA anticodon, UAC. Since the codon AUG codes for amino acid, Methionine. The tRNA then carries Methionine via its amino acid attachment site and adds to the polypeptide chain (future protein).

During the process of _____, the cell's nucleus—including the chromosomes—duplicates itself and the cell divides resulting in the formation of two cells.

Answers

This sounds like mitosis to me

During the process of mitosis, the cell's nucleus—including the chromosomes- duplicates itself and the cell divides resulting in the formation of two cells.

MITOSIS:

Mitosis is a kind of cell division in which two daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell is produced.

In mitosis, the daughter cells produced are genetically identical to the parent cell.

Mitosis is the process that enables new cells to be formed from existing ones in an organism.

During the mitotic process, the cell's nucleus- including the chromosomes initially duplicates itself and the cell divides resulting in the formation of two cells.

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