Answer:
The correct answer is herd immunity.
Explanation:
Herd immunity is the resistance against a contagious disease provided by the immune individuals which makes the major part of the population to few susceptible individuals in the community.
So as most of the population is immune to the disease therefore that disease is not able to overpass these immune individuals and the susceptible person is protected indirectly from that contagious disease. By vaccinating most of the people against a disease we can gain herd immunity. So the right answer is herd immunity.
Operant behavior is: a. Controlled primarily by its antecedents b. Controlled primarily by its consequences c. Elicited d. Voluntary e. Both b and d
Answer: E). Both b and d
Explanation:
Operant behaviour or conditioning which is also known as Instrumental conditioning is a type of learning process in which the strength of an organism or individuals behaviour is modified by punishment or reinforcement either positively or negatively.
Operant behavior is said to be "Voluntary" because the responses of the organism are under its control.
Which variables most likely have the greatest impact on how our bodies function, life expectancy, and the symptoms, course, and treatment of the diseases that strike us?
Answer:
Sex and Gender most likely have the greatest impact on how our bodies function, life expectancy, and the symptoms, course, and treatment of the diseases that strike us.
Explanation:
As we know some of the diseases are specific for a specific gender.
There are biological differences in both the genders based on function, age expectancy and diseases. There is a higher deposition of fat in females than males. Similarly some of the hormones begin to decrease in females in their 40s resulting in bone pains and weaknesses while theses hormones in males decreases at a very elder age. Similarly treatments also vary in both sexes.
The child life specialist (CLS) is preparing a 6-year-old child for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. Which statement reflects the use of atraumatic principles when explaining the procedure?
A)'You will be taken to a magnetic resonance imaging machine for an x-ray of your liver.'
B)'You may hear some loud noises when you are lying in the machine, but they won't hurt you.'
C)'You have nothing to worry about; the MRI machine is safe and will not cause you any pain.'
D)'Let's just get you to the x-ray department for your test and you'll see how simple it is.'
Answer:
You may hear some loud noises when you are lying in the machine, but they won't hurt you.
Explanation:
MRI (magnetic resonance imaging ) is the medical technique to diagnose the specific parts of the body. The MRI uses the magnetic waves to produce the images of the body parts.
The different sounds are produced by the machine when an individual is placed for the MRI scan. The CLS must explain to the child that machine do not produce any harm and tries to keep the child comfortable with the machine.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
PLS HELP!
Most grocery stores place the ________ along the inner aisles of the store.
freshest, healthiest foods
frozen and processed foods
dry, packaged goods
produce and dairy products
Most grocery stores place the dry, packaged goods along the inner aisles of the store.
Dry , Packaged Goods.Dry, packaged goods are typically grocery items such as grains, sugar, flour, and coffee, powdered milk, dried beans and peas, potatoes pasta, and rice etc.
These goods make up the majority of Grocery department and occupies the inner aisles of the store because it is a department in which almost every customers shops from.
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Grocery stores usually place frozen and processed foods, as well as dry, packaged goods along their inner aisles. Fresh produce and dairy are often put around the store's perimeters.
Explanation:Most grocery stores strategically position various types of products to maximize sales. Usually, frozen and processed foods as well as dry, packaged goods are placed along the inner aisles of the store, while perishable, fresh items like produce and dairy products are generally positioned on the outer perimeters of the store. This is meant to draw customers deeper into the store, where they may be more likely to make additional purchases.
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The nurse is planning a class for nurses learning to teach early prenatal classes. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective?
Answer:
Option B is correct
Explanation:
Prenatal classes is a non-mandatory class(although, it is mandatory in some hospital), the classes covers all what pregnant women should expect during pregnancy and how to prepare for them. The course last for about four to six weeks in many hospitals. The main goal if these classes is to educate and ensure that the expecting mothers are health with their unborn babies.
Pre-natal classes also educate pregnant women on what to expect during Labor and childbirth. Also, during breastfeeding (that is, the beginning of Parenthood).
From all what has been said above, we can see that For a nurse planning a class to teach in early prenatal classes option option B statement indicates that teaching has been effective.
General hospitals are also known as ______. a. Unselected health maintenance organizations b. Unselected long-term care facilities c. Unselected acute care hospitals d. Unselected transitional care facilities
Answer:
Acute care Hospitals
Explanation:
Which type of dependence involves the habitual use of a drug, where the body requires repeated administration of the drug to prevent negative physical withdrawal symptoms.
Answer:
Physical dependence
Explanation:
Physical dependence is a physiological condition in which continuous use of a drug makes the brain to adapt and develop tolerance against the effect of the drug, and as a result, the body would require continuous use of that drug to maintain the positive effect the individual gets from using such drugs. A withdrawal from the use of the drug by the individual would bring about uncomfortable and unpleasant withdrawal symptoms. Misuse of drugs such as opioids, amphetamines etc can result in physical dependence.
Health education specialists can access and understand background information to develop a rationale by:_______.
a. conducting a literature review.
b. conducting a longitudinal study.c. selecting a planning model.d. writing a grant proposal.
Answer:
Conducting a literature review.
Explanation:
The health may be defined as the condition of fit, healthy and well being of the physical, mental and social health of an individual. The personal and public hygiene is important for the maintenance of proper health.
The health education must be given in schools to explain the importance of health in the human life. The experiments and any research related to the health information is mainly developed by the study of the literature review and conducting the surveys.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Health education specialists develop a rationale by conducting a literature review, which helps in understanding existing knowledge, identifying critical issues, and designing sustainable health interventions.
Explanation:Health education specialists can access and understand background information to develop a rationale by conducting a literature review. This involves systematically gathering, analyzing, and synthesizing published material relevant to the research topic or question of interest. It is a crucial step for understanding existing knowledge and avoiding duplication of research efforts, as well as ensuring that new interventions or educational strategies are based on comprehensive and up-to-date information.
Through a literature review, health professionals can identify critical issues, evaluate previous strategies, and design sustainable health education and disease prevention interventions. This step is essential in developing informed opinions on biological and health-related issues, including their cultural and ethical implications.
Suna passes an electric current through a sample of clear, colorless, and odorless liquid. As the experiment continues, bubbles form, and the volume of liquid decreases. Suna collects samples of two colorless, odorless gases that bubble out of the liquid. One of the gases burns. Neither the original liquid nor the other gas burns. Which is the best explanation of her results?
Answer:
The sample was broken down by electric current and formed a new burnable substance The initial substance, then, is a compound.
Answer:
The sample was broken down by the electric current and formed a new substance that could burn. Therefore, the original liquid is a compound.
A 78 Y/O female was admitted with heart failure to the ICU from home. By day 3 of hospitalization, she had improved and was transferred to the medical cardiac unit. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 1 area of persistent, nonblanchable redness on her right heel. Review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed that she had 4+ lower right leg edema and brown discoloration of the lower calf and ankle skin. A 2 cm by 4 cm wound with serous drainage also was also documented over her medial lower leg midpoint between her calf and ankle. The skin assessment documented on arrival to the medical cardiac unit noted a Stage 1 pressure injury at this site in addition to the wound, edema, and brown discoloration on her left lower leg as noted on the admission assessment. For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:__________
Answer:
A hospital acquired pressure injury only.
Explanation:
the pressure injury was not observed and documented in the admission assessment record. Since, the pressure injury is obtained after hospitalization, it is a hospital acquired injury. When the patient is admitted into the cardiac unit, the presence of Stage 1 pressure injury was documented which was already present on arrival to medical unit. Hence, the pressure injury is not cardiac unit acquired pressure injury. The admission assessment record does not contained information about the venous ulcer which the patient already had upon admission and this ulcer was in the same lower proximity as the pressure injury and this venous ulcer might have been the reason of this injury.
The termination of a group produces the same reactions that characterize the termination of other significant relationships, including the feeling of being rejected.True / False.
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Termination may be defined as the ending of something that might e a relationship or trust. Termination, its importance and effects has been well explained in psychology.
The termination from any thing or from a group can effect the mental health of an individual. The termination against the will of an individual can create the felling of being rejected and the feeling of not worth for the other person of the group.
Thus, the answer is true.
How long can hives last when you're in a medical condition?
Answer:
Hours, weeks or months depending on the severity of the case.
Explanation:
Usually, out breaks may last for a few minutes, sometimes hours, and even several weeks to month but most individual hives doesn't stay up to twenty-four (24) hours. However, chronic hives last more than six weeks to several months or years.
Hives vary in duration depending on the cause and the individual, lasting from a few hours to several weeks. Treatments can help minimize their duration. A tested medication reduced hive presence to 12-20 adults in a batch of 200 after 30 minutes.
Explanation:The duration of hives can vary depending on the cause and the individual's health condition. Commonly, hives can disappear within 24 hours, but certain types can last for several days or even weeks.
However, there are variations as demonstrated in the example of Kerry, a 40-year-old woman, who experienced a rash persisting for 7 to 10 days each time. She had a health condition causing a rash developing whenever she spends time in the sun.
It's also important to note that tests for allergies, which can include hives, can show a reaction within 30 minutes.
Treatment can help reduce the duration and severity of hives. For instance, two types of medication for hives were tested and post 30 minutes of medication administration, 20 out of 200 adults given Medication A still had hives while only 12 out of 200 adults given Medication B had hives.
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The purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV. This purpose statement indicates that this is probably a (n): a. Correlational study b. Descriptive study c. Experimental research d. Quasi experimental research
The statement 'the purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV' indicates that this is probably a descriptive study (Option b).
A descriptive study refers to a type of study where data are collected without producing any change in the environmentIn consequence, in a descriptive study, the environment is not manipulated to obtain data.The main objective of a descriptive study is to provide basic data on the variables analyzed in the dataset.In conclusion, the statement 'the purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV' indicates that this is probably a descriptive study (Option b).
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Based on the information given, it can be deduced that it's a descriptive study.
A descriptive study simply means a study where information is collected without changing the environment. It's typically used to describe a particular population.
Since the purpose of a study was to identify caring behaviors desired by patients with AIDS or HIV, this is a descriptive study.
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After enduring the stress of a flood that destroyed her home and most of her possessions, Ashley's cancer began spreading more rapidly. This may have been due, in part, to her _____.
Answer:
reduced NK cell count.
Explanation:
The tumoricidal capacity of the NKs is enhanced in vitro by certain interleukins, especially IL-2. The in vivo activity of the NKs is not yet fully known, but it has been observed that patients with low NK count are more susceptible to certain types of tumors, for example certain types of lymphomas. It is currently used in humans of IL-2 as a therapy against tumors, especially in kidney cancer.
Ashley’s cancer may have spread more rapidly due to the significant stress and anxiety caused by the flood.
After enduring the stress of a flood that destroyed her home and most of her possessions, Ashley's cancer began spreading more rapidly. This may have been due, in part, to her experiencing significant stress and anxiety. Natural disasters, such as floods, create conditions that drastically affect individuals' daily lives, often leading to heightened levels of stress, anxiety, and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). These psychological stressors can weaken the immune system, making it harder for the body to fight diseases, including cancer. A disrupted routine and lack of essential resources can exacerbate underlying health issues, leading to a rapid progression of diseases like cancer.
A 15-year-old boy visits his primary care physician's office with fever, headache, and malaise, along with complaints of pain on chewing and pain in the jawline just in front of the ear lobe. The boy asks his mother to leave the exam room for a minute and then tells the nurse that he is also experiencing testicular pain and swelling. The nurse recognizes that this client most likely has which condition?
a) Infectious mononucleosisb) Poliomyelitisc) Herpes zosterd) Mumps
Answer:
The nurse recognizes that this client most likely has "Mumps"
Explanation:
Primary signs of mumps comprise fever, headache, anorexia, and malaise. Within 24 hours, discomfort on eating and an "earache" happens. Once the child ideas to the place of the earache, however, he points to the jawline just in visible of the ear lobe, the site of the parotid gland. By the next day, the gland seems inflamed and feels tender; the ear develops expatriate upward and backward. Boys may also grow testicular pain and inflammation (orchitis). None of the other conditions listed matches the symptoms indicated.
The cooperative social interaction in which one person responds to another's suggestions, which in turn can produce changes in perception, memory, thoughts, and behavior, is called _______.
Answer:
Hypnosis
Explanation:
Hypnosis refers to a mental state in which the person experiences a trance-like state with higher concentration and focus. An average person enters the hypnotic stage twice during a day in which the person feels relaxed and focussed.
The hypnosis therapy is provided to the person with the soothing verbal communication and mental imagery which relaxes the mind and can transform the mind of the patient. The transformation could be in the form of their perception, thoughts, memory and behaviour.
Thus, Hypnosis is the correct answer.
Answer:
Hypnosis.
Explanation:
Hypnosis may be defined as the psychological condition in which humans are in the state of extreme focus attention. The individual is more aware to respond to the different suggestions.
The hypnosis is a kind of psychological social interaction between the people and mainly linked with the suggestions. This kind of interaction can change the memory, behavior and thinking perspective of an individual. The individual is more concentrated for the particular thing.
Thus, the answer is hypnosis.
A pharmaceutical company was forced to recall a pain reliever medications that had been linked to the fatalities of 200 people. Analysis of the recalled drug revealed the presence of 2 isomers due to an asymmetrical carbon atom in the drug molecule. What can be hypothesized from the observation? (4.2)
- The isomers are enantiomers, with 1 having toxic effects on humans
Answer:
The isomers are enantiomers, with 1 having toxic effects on humans
Explanation:
Many drugs marketed presently are "acemic mixtures of stereoisomers". They are either enantiomers or geometric isomers. What this means is that they are 2 isomers that are mirror images of each other but cannot be superimposed in each other (enantiomers), or they are 2 isomers that aren't mirror images. In the case of the pain reliever drug, there were two mirror isomers, however one of them had toxic effect on humans and rersulted to the fatalities recorded.
Conditioned emotional responses that include an increase in heart rate, perspiration, or a change in blood pressure are examples of __________.
Answer: They are examples of Classical Conditioning or Respondent Conditioning.
Explanation:
Classical conditioning or, also known as respondent conditioning, is the first type of learning where an organism responds to an environmental stimulus. This theory was developed by the Russian scientist Ivan Pavlov.
This theory is based on the fact that the stimulus triggers the response of an organism, that is, according to what the person perceives in their environment, they will react in a certain way. Pavlov, through the experiment of dog salivation, could see how people are conditioned to act in a certain way to various events.
Carmella does not enjoy her job, but she shows up every day because she wants her paycheck at the end of every week. The theory of motivation that best explains Carmella's behavior is _____ theory.
Answer:
Incentive theory
Explanation:
Incentive theory explains that human actions or behaviors are extrinsically motivated. In simple words, it means humans are motivated to behave or perform certain activities if such behavior or activities performed would be reinforced or rewarded. It explains that humans who are extrinsically motivated by rewards or incentives do not necessarily find joy performing certain activities, but are rather driven by the rewards they will get from such.
Carmella’s behavior is best explained by the incentive theory of motivation.
The parents of a 12-year-old girl report their daughter is missing an increasing amount of school. They further share that the child says she feels ill and begs to stay home. What action by the parents will be most therapeutic?
Answer:
This kind of issues in growing children is very persistent. On joining school, they figure that staying at home was more fun and easy as compared to going school and taking classes. So they makeup excuses like feeling ill so they can miss school ans stay at home as long as possible.
In such a situation, parents should start with home tutoring. That way the child would be aware that home is going to be the same as school. It can also motivate children into going school and making new friends.
The top portion of the nutrition label lists foods that we should limit in our daily diet. The top portion of the nutrition label lists foods that we should limit in our daily diet. true false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
This statement is false because the top of a Nutrition Facts label will give you the number of servings contained in the package. It will give you an estimate of the serving size (and it would normally appear in cups and/or grams). And it will tell you how much servings you could use. All these facts are an estimate/average of the amount of food people eat of that specific product. This is not a recommendation of how much you should eat.
Final answer:
The top portion of the nutrition facts label indeed includes information on nutrients that should be consumed in moderation, which makes the statement true. Labels help consumers identify foods high in beneficial nutrients and those high in less desirable ones such as sodium and sugar.
Explanation:
The statement that the top portion of the nutrition facts label lists foods we should limit in our daily diet is true. The label is designed to provide information about the nutritional content of packaged foods. By examining the percent daily values (% DV) on a nutrition facts label, you can identify nutrients that are present in high or low amounts. Foods high in nutrients like fiber and protein are generally encouraged, whereas those high in sodium, sugar, and saturated fats should be limited.
Reading and understanding nutrition labels can help you make healthier food choices by recognizing foods that have high nutrient density and those with ingredients that might be less beneficial, like processed grains and sugars. The list of ingredients is also valuable as it is ordered by quantity; ingredients listed first are present in the largest amounts, helping consumers to avoid foods with undesirable ingredients as the main component.
The nurse is caring for a patient who was prescribed bethanechol 1 month ago. Which statement made by the patient indicates the medication is effective?
Answer: That is when the patient state that he or she can now urinate with ease without any form of discomfort.
Explanation:
Bethanechol is used to treat urinary retention (difficulty urinating), which may occur after surgery, after delivering a baby, and in other situations. Bethanechol may also be used for purposes other than those listed in this medication guide.
Bethanechol is used to improve urine flow in patients suffering from urinary retention. A patient's statement indicating its effectiveness could involve affirming regular bathroom visits or mentioning no more trouble urinating.
Explanation:The medication, bethanechol, is a cholinergic drug which mainly is used to treat urinary retention. It works by stimulating the bladder muscle in order to improve urine flow. Thus, an effective outcome would be one that indicates an improvement in urinary symptoms. For example, a statement that would reflect effectiveness could be 'I don't have trouble urinating anymore' or 'I go to the bathroom regularly now'.
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Melissa's doctor diagnosed her with cancer in both of her ovaries. What procedure would Melissa have to undergo in order to remove the cancerous tissue? Melissa's doctor recommends to remove the cancerous tissue from her body
Melissa, with cancer in both of her ovaries, would likely undergo a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. This procedure involves the surgical removal of her ovaries and fallopian tubes. Her recovery and post-surgery quality of life would largely depend on individual factors and should be discussed thoroughly with her healthcare team.
Explanation:If Melissa has been diagnosed with cancer in both of her ovaries, and her doctor recommends removal of the cancerous tissue, the procedure she would likely have to undergo is called a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. This procedure involves the surgical removal of both ovaries and fallopian tubes. This approach is typically used when cancerous tissue is present in both ovaries, as seems to be the case with Melissa.
The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and can be conducted laparoscopically or through a larger incision (laparotomy). Recovery time and post-surgery quality of life can vary. It is important that Melissa discusses all options, risks, and benefits with her healthcare team.
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A woman experiences a viral infection while pregnant. Which type of immunity does an infant have at birth against this infection?
Answer:
Naturally Acquired Passive Immunity
Explanation:
Naturally acquired passive immunity can be described as a type of immunity in which antibodies are transferred from the mother to the infant through placenta or through breast feeding. This type of immunity tends to protect the child until the child can develop his/her own immune system. However, this type of immunity is not life long and usually remains from a period of few weeks to 6 months.
In a controlled experiment, if a researcher wants to examine the effect of radon exposure to rat longevity, which one would be the independent variable?
a) the rats' longevity.
b) the cage the rats were kept in.
c) radon exposure.
d) neither the radon exposure nor the rats' longevity, because both variables are manipulated.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The radon exposure is the independent variable; independent variable is the variable that we controlled or change while the dependent variable, longevity, is what we measure as a result of the change in the independent variable ( radon exposure)
Dr. Jenkins uses the Diagnostic Interview Scale, which is a published interview schedule, to help her diagnose posttraumatic stress disorder. Each of the following statements is true EXCEPT that the questions:
a. can be used with all clientsb. are mostly specificc. are preparedd. reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation
Answer:
-Reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation
Explanation:
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) symptom scale interview is an interview semi structured with 17 items for assessment and proper diagnosis.
Respondents with a known traumatic history identify a single traumatic event that causes the most current stress.
It can be used with all clients hence option a is excluded.
they are mostly specific so option b is also excluded.
They are prepared, so 3rd option is also excluded.
They don't reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation.
Hence the last option reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation is the right answer
A female client with the beta-thalassemia trait plans to marry a man of Italian ancestry who also has the trait. Which client statement indicates that she understands the teaching provided by the nurse?
Answer: Two people with the beta-thalassaemia trait have a 25% chance of having a child with thalassaemia major, a potentially life-threatening disease
Beta-thalassemia is a genetic blood disorder resulting in smaller, less oxygen-carrying red blood cells. A person with a beta-thalassemia trait is a carrier with one normal and one faulty gene. If both parents are beta-thalassemia carriers, their children may have a 25% chance of having the disease, 50% chance of being a carrier, and a 25% chance of not inheriting the gene.
Explanation:In this context, the client demonstrating an understanding of the teachings provided by the nurse could potentially say: "If both my partner and I have the beta-thalassemia trait, there is a 25% chance our child will have beta-thalassemia disease."
Beta-thalassemia is a genetic disorder of the blood characterized by a mutation in the beta subunits of hemoglobin. This leads to the production of smaller red blood cells that carry less oxygen. When a person has the beta-thalassemia trait, it means they are a carrier and have one normal and one mutated beta-globin gene. As such, they generally don't exhibit symptoms of the disease and may not even realize they carry the gene until they have a child who has beta-thalassemia disease.
If two carriers of the trait have a child, there is a 25% chance that their child inherits the faulty gene from both parents, resulting in the child having beta-thalassemia disease, a 50% chance of the child being a carrier like the parents, and a 25% chance the child will not inherit the gene at all.
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The nursing instructor is teaching about the importance of communication in nursing and relates it to the family. Which statement by a student nurse would indicate that the teaching has not been effective?
Answer:
The communication is used as a means of the expression or the sharing of any information between or among the people. Communication can be done in a specific language by speaking known as verbal communication.
The non verbal communication can be done by smiling, gestures and actions that can easily express the feeling of other individual. The statement by the child that the non verbal communication is meaning less determines that teaching is not effective.
For Sara Ruddick, "maternal thinking" a. values particular virtues important for mothering. b. is a way of thinking and acting. c. results from maternal practice such as rearing children. d. all of the above.
Answer:
d. all of the above.
Explanation:
Sara Ruddick (born Sara Elizabeth Loop; the author of Maternal Thinking:Toward a Politics of Peace was a feminist philosopher
Ruddick is best known for her study of the learning patterns that come out of childcare. She argued that mothering is a conscious activity that requires choices, everyday decisions and a continuous, alert reflection.
Final answer:
Correct option is d. all of the above. Sara Ruddick's concept of "maternal thinking" includes virtues important for mothering, a unique way of thinking and acting, and results from the experience of raising children, thus embodying all of the mentioned options.
Explanation:
For Sara Ruddick, "maternal thinking" encompasses a broad spectrum of concepts and practices that are intrinsic to the ethos of mothering. This concept of maternal thinking is multi-faceted, intertwining the development of specific virtues essential for nurturing, a distinctive mode of reasoning and acting that arises from maternal tasks, and the wisdom accrued through the hands-on practice of child-rearing. Therefore, the correct answer to what encompasses maternal thinking according to Sara Ruddick is d. all of the above. Maternal thinking is a comprehensive way of understanding the world, shaped profoundly by the experiences and responsibilities of motherhood, signifying a blend of cognitive, moral, and practical dimensions that guides the care and upbringing of children.
A researcher conducts a study to test whether attending weekly support groups decreases depressive symptoms. Based on this information only, is this an example of descriptive or analytic epidemiology?
Answer:
Based on the information given, that is an example of Analytic epidemiology.
Explanation:
While descriptive epidemiology generates hypothesis, goes deep into answering questions and try to develop the causes, patterns or factors that increase the risk of disease, analytic epidemiology test those hypothesis trying to anser WHY and how something OCCURS. In this case, this study is testing whether attending weekly support groups decreases depressive symptoms. The key feature of analytic epidemiology is a comparison group.