Answer:
True.
Explanation:
CPT ( Current procedure terminology) may be defined as the set of the medical code that are maintained by the American Medical Association. The CPT code the surgical, medical and diagnostic service.
These codes are generally designed to communicate within the coders, physicians and patients. The three different part included in the CPT manual are alphabetic index, main text and the appendices. These codes are quite useful in the medical field.
Thus, the answer is true.
Explain why the transplant recipient can have a different blood type than the donor and still have a successful transplant.
Answer:
Patients with living donors who do not have a matching blood type can still receive a successful kidney transplant. The Johns Hopkins Comprehensive Transplant Center pioneered a method of removing harmful antibodies prior to transplant. This method is called plasmapheresis.
Explanation:
__________ can be counted as representing individual infectious virions from a phage suspension.
Answer:
Plaques
Explanation:
When the nurse is providing client education regarding food allergies, what statement made by the client would indicate a need for further education on the subject?
Answer and Explanation:
Food Allergy is an adverse reaction to a particular food. It involves an immune mechanism and has a very variable clinical presentation, with symptoms that may appear on the skin, gastrointestinal and respiratory system. Reactions can be mild with simple itchy lips to severe reactions that can compromise multiple organs. Food Allergy results from an exaggerated response of the body to a particular substance present in foods.
Any food can trigger allergic reaction. However, cow's milk, egg, soy, wheat, fish and crustaceans are the most involved. Sensitization to these foods (formation of IgE antibodies) depends on the eating habits of the population. Peanuts, crustaceans, cow's milk and nuts are the foods that most often cause severe (anaphylactic) reactions.
Reactions involving the skin (urticaria, swelling, itching, eczema), the gastrointestinal tract (diarrhea, abdominal pain, vomiting) and the respiratory system such as cough, hoarseness and wheezing are more common. More intense manifestations, affecting several organs simultaneously (Anaphylactic Reaction), may also occur.
There is no specific drug to prevent Food Allergy. Once diagnosed, specific medications are used to treat the symptoms (crisis) and it is extremely important to provide guidance to the patient and family to avoid further contact with the triggering food. The patient should always be attentive checking the label of processed foods to identify names related to the food that triggered the allergy. For example, the presence of butter, whey, lactalbumin or caseinate points to the presence of cow's milk. All guidance should be provided to patients and family members.
Approximately 85% of children lose sensitivity to most foods (eggs, cow's milk, wheat and soy) that causes them food allergies between the ages of 3-5. The skin test remains positive despite the appearance of food tolerance. Sensitivity to peanuts, walnuts, fish and shrimp rarely disappears.
About how many total kilocalories does one serving of crackers provide if it contains 5 g of fat, 22 g of carbohydrates, and 3 g of protein?
Answer:
The correct answer will be-0.145 kcal/serve.
Explanation:
The Carbohydrates on oxidation produces 4 calories per gram, the proteins provide 4 calories per gram and the Fats provides 9 calories per gram.
If one serve of crackers contains
1. Carbohydrates- 22 g, will produce calories- 22 x 4= 88 calories
2. Proteins- 3 g will produce calories- 3x4= 12 Calories
3. Fats- 5 g will produce calories- 5 x 9= 45 calorie
Therefore, the total calories in a single serve will be 88 +12 + 45
Total calorie = 145 calorie
OR
Kilocalorie= 145/1000 = 0.145 kcal/serve.
Thus, 0.145 kcal/serve is the correct answer.
Answer:
145 total kilocalories.
Explanation:
An adolescent that had an inguinal hernia repair is being prepared for discharge home. The nurse provides instructions about resumption of physical activities. Which statement by the adolescent indicates that the client understands the instructions?
1) "I can ride my bike in about a week."
2) "I don't have to go to gym class for 3 months."
3) "I can't perform any weightlifting for at least 3 weeks."
4) "I can never participate in football again."
Answer:3) "I can't perform any weightlifting for at least 3 weeks."
Explanation:
Inguinal hernia repair is a surgical procedure in which bulding tissues can be placed back into the abdomen. It requires the opening of the abdominal wall remove hernia.
The recovery after surgery takes 1-2 weeks. The patient can perform light activity in 1 to 2 weeks and must avoid strenous exercises until the completition of 3-4 weeks of recovery.
On the basis of above description, this can be stated that the patient has understood about the recovery process after hernia repair.
The development of chronic diseases has a connection to poor diet and:________ a) can be completely prevented by eating a good diet. b) will not be affected by lifestyle choices. c) is not affected by genetics. d) can be completely prevented by altering genes. e) can be reduced by food choices along with lifestyle choices.
Answer:
e). can be reduced with food choices along with lifestyle choices
Explanation:
One of the method that can be used to curb chronic diseases through their diet is by Interventions.
Interventions aimed at changing diet and lifestyle factors include educating individuals, changing the environment, modifying the food supply, undertaking community interventions, and implementing economic policies.
A laboring client who is positive for Group B Streptococcus is given an initial dose of ampicillin (Omipen) 2 g at 9 am. According to established guidelines for intrapartum management of this client, the next dose should be:__________1. 2 g given at 10 am2. 1 g given at 11 am3. 2 g given at noon4. 1 g given at 1 pm
Answer:
1 g given at 1 PM
Explanation:
One of the most significant changes that Zanmi Lasante initiated in rural Haiti was the training of local community members as health-care workers. What factor was responsible for their success in identifying local health-care problems and providing basic health services?
Answer:
Zanmi Lasante is one of the most famous health organisation partner with the Boston. This organization is located in the the central plateau of Haiti, out of the Cange.
This organisation become successful and keeps monitoring on the health care problems in the locality. The main factors responsible for this set up is the ability of the members to understand the language spoken by the local people. The members of the organization has developed the social values and social structures of the locality.
Zanmi Lasante's success in Haiti was due to their 'O for the P' approach, which provided high-quality healthcare, the training of local community members as health-care workers, and income-generating projects that sustained health services beyond donor funding cycles.
The significant change that Zanmi Lasante initiated in rural Haiti was the training of local community members as health-care workers. The factors responsible for their success in identifying local health-care problems and providing basic health services include their approach of 'O for the P' (preferred option for the poor), which meant that the healthcare provided should be of top quality, equivalent to what the wealthy receive, ensuring no one is seen as less deserving of optimal care.
This principle, along with a deep understanding of the local community and the structural violence that the population faced—such as displacement by an IMF-funded dam project—allowed Zanmi Lasante to tailor its healthcare initiatives to meet the specific needs of the rural Haitian population. By training community health workers, whom they referred to as accompagnateurs, they emphasized the importance of accompanying individuals on their journey through sickness and back to health, bridging the gap between patients and healthcare services.
Rose, a 75-year-old great-grandmother, blames her great-grandson's recent incarceration at a juvenile detention center on the fact that his parents recently finalized their divorce. Rose believes in which of the following frames?
Answer:
Social Breakdown Frame.
Explanation:
Social breakdown frame may be defined as a theory in which the individual is socially isolated from the society.These individuals support the right-wing populist parties.
This theory believes that social structures are mainly based on the religion and class. This might breakdown the individual and may lack the sense of emotions and more attracted to the ethnic parties that belong to the nation and increases the self esteem.
Thus, the answer is support right-wing populist parties.
What is the best indicator of the status of women, particularly their health status?
Answer:
maternal mortality.
Explanation:
It's also called maternal death. When does it occur? It usually occurs during pregnancy or maximum 42 days after giving birth. There are many maternal deaths on the global level and some of the causes are: severe bleeding, infections, extremely high blood pressure during and after pregnancy, complications and last but not least, abortions with risks ( in the further months of pregnancy ).
A group of students are reviewing the drugs that are available for treating Alzheimer's disease. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which drug as appropriate for treatment?
Answer:
Rivastigmine
Explanation:
Rivastigmine is used to treat mild to moderate dementia caused by Alzheimer's or Parkinson's disease.
Answer:
Usually are used cholinesterase innhibitors drugs and memantine. Although other types of substances are used in combination with treatment, like ginkgo biloba, antioxidants, etc.
Explanation:
Alzheimer disease (AD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that manifests with cognitive and short-term memory impairment and a variety of neuropsychiatric symptoms and behavioral changes that worsen over time.
The treatment of Alzheimer's disease involves pharmacological strategies and psychosocial interventions for the patient. Regarding pharmacological treatment, various psychoactive substances have been used to preserve cognition, behavior and functional abilities of the patient, which is called symptomatic treatment. However, the effects of drugs currently approved for the treatment of AD are limited to the delay in the natural course of the disease, allowing only stabilization or temporary improvement of the patient.
Some drugs used for AD treatment are:
Cholinesterase Inhibitors : are the major drugs approved for the specific treatment of AD. Its use is based on increased synaptic availability of acetylcholine by inhibiting the enzymes acetylcholinesterase and butyrylcholinesterase. In addition to the effect on cognition, there is also an additional benefit on behavioral symptoms and functional changes of the disease compared to the placebo group (first generation: Tacrine; second generation: rivastigmine, donepezil and galantamine) Memantine: is a noncompetitive N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor affinity antagonist, allowing its physiological activation during memory formation processes, but blocking channel opening and pathological activation. There is evidence that the formation of oxygen free radicals may contribute to the pathogenesis of AD, which would justify the use of antioxidant substances, like vitamin E (α-tocopherol) and selegiline, which were used as adjuncts to AD treatment, exerting a supposed neuroprotective effect. Ginkgo biloba is used in traditional Chinese medicine to improve alertness and cognition. Its protective effects are related to the presence of terpenic and flavonoid constituents with antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties. Its active principles promote increased brain irrigation and reduced free radicals, preventing β-amyloid neurotoxicity.The Security Rule portion of HIPAA requires that administrative, physical, and technical safeguards are in place to prevent the improper use or disclosure of PHI.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A true
Explanation:
The HIPAA Security Rule has established the standards to protect the electronic health information of individuals which is created, used and received and maintained confidentially. The security rule uses appropriate physical, administrative and technical safeguards to protect the information by maintaining the integrity and confidentiality.
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
a. Shark skill test
b. Bench press
c. Davies test
d. Single-leg squat
Answer:
D. Single-leg squat.
Explanation:
Single leg squats are an excellent functional bodyweight training exercise that will develop leg strength, flexibility, improve balance and increase your vertical jump.
The most appropriate assessment for a pregnant client is the single-leg squat, as it measures lower body strength and balance without excessive stress.
Explanation:When working with a pregnant client, the most appropriate assessment from the options provided is the d. Single-leg squat.
This test is a good measure of overall lower body strength and balance without putting excessive stress on the body which could potentially harm both the expectant mother and the baby. It's particularly important when working with pregnant women to consider safety and comfort at all times.
Other tests like the Shark skill test, Bench press or the Davies test could potentially pose risks during pregnancy.
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John consumed a large margarita that contained 14 grams of carbohydrate and 24 grams of alcohol. How many kilocalories did he consume?
Answer:
total calories consumed by John is 224 calories
Explanation:
given data
carbohydrate = 14 grams
alcohol = 24 grams
to find out
How many kilocalories did he consume
solution
we know that 1 gram carbohydrate contains = 4 calories
and 1 gram of pure alcohol contains = 7 calories
so here he consumed carbohydrates 14 grams so calories will be
calories by carbohydrates = 4 × 14 =
calories by carbohydrates = 56 calories
and
now we get calories obtained by alcohol is
calories obtained by alcohol = 7 × 24
calories obtained by alcohol = 168 calories
so total calories consumed by John is
total calories consumed = 56 + 168
total calories consumed by John is 224 calories
Answer:
224 calories
Explanation:
A calorie is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius. Calories in food provide energy in the form of heat so that our bodies can function. Our bodies store and "burn" calories as fuel.
After teaching a group of nursing students about herbal products used for sleep and relaxation, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which as being used to improve overall sleep quality, shortening the length of time it takes to fall asleep and decreasing the number of nighttime awakenings?
Answer:
The missing options are:
a) Ginseng
b) Valerian
c) Licorice
d) Feverfew
The answer is b) Valerian.
Explanation:
Ginseng is used to prevent loss of memory. Licorice is used to stop coughing and as a disinfectant. Feverfew is used to help with headaches. Valerian is used to helping with sleep, shortening the length of time it takes to fall asleep and decreasing the number of nightmare awakenings due to its anxiolytic and sedative properties.
You have revised your budget so that your
entertainment expenses have been replaced.
Now, you need to revise your budget to meet your
long-term goal of saving $4.500. You will need to
increase your savings to $300 month.
How will you revise your budget to meet this goal?
Answer: sample
Explanation: I will reduce my discretionary spending to $165 in order to increase my savings budget to $300. This will allow me to meet my long-term goal, while also letting me keep some discretionary spending each month.
Some selected trends and developments that are likely to have an impact on physical education, exercise science, and sport in the future include.
Answer:
Some selected trends and developments that are likely to have an impact on physical education, exercise science, and sport in the future include Zumba and yoga.
Explanation:
In the recent times, kids are so attached to their mobiles, social medias, that they have adopted a very unhealthy lifestyle. They rarely exercise, or engage in outdoor activities and the only physical activity they engage in is PE classes. A huge trend happening in physical education is trying to engage kids in various activities to help them adopt healthy lifestyle, and maintain this as an adult. They are experimenting with Zumba, yoga and various sports that they enjoy and can continue for long run.Alicia's goal is to become a world-class endurance athlete. She trains aerobically for at least 90 minutes daily. She weighs 60 kg. Based on this information, what is the minimum number of kilocalories she needs to consume daily to maintain her body weight while in training?
Answer:
2700
Explanation:
It is important to maintain healthy eating when exercising, this is because if you lose more calories than you take in, you are at a deficit, meaning you are losing weight. Simultaneously, if you eat the same amount of calories you burn, you will maintain your weight.
(60 kg x 90 minutes/day) / 2
= 5400 / 2
= 2700
Faye is in a treatment program in which, rather than using confrontational techniques, the therapist adopts an empathic interaction style, using the clients own reasons and values to bolster their commitment to change. This type of treatment is called ____.
Answer: client-centred therapy
Explanation:
Client-centred Therapy is also known as Rogerian Therapy. Client-centred therapy uses empathic interaction interaction style rather than using confrontational techniques using the clients own reasons and values to bolster their commitment to change. Client-centred therapy requires the clienst to take an active role in their treatment. The therapist will not be directive and but the therapist will be supportive.
The aims of client-centered therapy are;
(1). To increase self-esteem.
(2). Client-centered therapy help clients to live a self-understanding lives.
(3). To decrease guilt, and insecurity. Also, comfortable relationship.
Client centred therapy as stated about does not focus on therapeutic procedure or techniques. Importantly, it involves the quality of the relationship between the therapist and the client.
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List and describe the components of exercise prescription such as overload principle, type, progression, or specificity.
Answer:
Principle of progression says you should increase overload, which can be done by using frequency, intensity, time, and type, when your body gets used to its current routine. The specificity principle states that only certain exercises will make fitness goals get better.
Explanation:
The components of exercise prescription include the overload principle, type of exercise, progression, and specificity. Each component plays a crucial role in designing an effective exercise program.
1. Overload Principle: This principle states that to improve or maintain a certain aspect of fitness, the body must be subjected to a load or stress that is greater than what it is accustomed to. This can be achieved by increasing the intensity, duration, or frequency of the exercise. For example, if one is used to walking 2 miles a day, to apply the overload principle, they might increase the distance to 3 miles, or they could walk the same distance but at a faster pace or carry weights to increase the intensity.
2. Type of Exercise: The type of exercise refers to the specific activities chosen for the exercise program. There are four main types of exercise: aerobic (endurance), strength (resistance), flexibility, and balance. Aerobic exercises, such as running or swimming, improve cardiorespiratory fitness. Strength exercises, like weightlifting, enhance muscle strength and endurance. Flexibility exercises, such as stretching or yoga, improve the range of motion around joints. Balance exercises help prevent falls and are particularly important for older adults.
3. Progression: Progression involves gradually increasing the workload over time to continue the improvement in fitness. This can be done by manipulating various aspects of the exercise program, such as increasing the weight lifted, increasing the number of repetitions or sets, or decreasing the rest time between sets. Progression should be systematic and individualized based on the person's adaptation to the current exercise regimen.
4. Specificity: The principle of specificity dictates that the body adapts specifically to the demands placed upon it. Therefore, to become better at a particular activity, one must perform that activity or exercises that closely mimic the movement patterns and energy systems used in that activity. For instance, a swimmer would focus on swimming and supplementary exercises that improve their performance in the water, rather than solely engaging in running or cycling.
In summary, when prescribing exercise, it is important to consider these components to ensure that the program is effective, safe, and tailored to the individual's goals and fitness level. By adhering to the overload principle, selecting appropriate types of exercise, ensuring systematic progression, and applying the principle of specificity, an exercise program can be designed to optimize fitness outcomes.
Active individuals involved in moderate intensity exercise do not benefit from nutritional supplementation to reduce susceptibility to illness.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
One of the main premises in the study of the immunology of exercise is the possible role that exercise or physical activity may have in both prevention and cure of diseases; and, specifically, in the chronic and acute responses of the immune system to exercise.
While assessing the muscle tone of a client, the client demonstrates a full range of muscle motion against gravity with some resistance. What score on the Lovett scale can be given to the client?
1. Fair (F)
2. Good (G)
3. Trace (T)
4. Normal (N)
Answer:
2. Good (G)
Explanation:
The Lovett scale is a 6-point scale starting at 0 which "no evidence of contractility" and goes up to 5 which is normal, unimpaired ROM. It is used to measure musculoskeletal strength based contractility and ROM,
Find below the full scale with definitions:
Zero (0) : "No evidence of contractility". Trace (T) : "Evidence of slight contractility". Poor (P): "Complete range of motion with gravity eliminated".
Fair (F) : "Complete range of motion with gravity".
Good (G) : "Complete range of motion against gravity with some resistance".
Normal (N) : "Complete range of motion against gravity with full resistance"
The pharmacology instructor is discussing cardiac glycosides with a class of pre-nursing students. According to the instructor, what physiologic effect do cardiac glycosides trigger?
Answer:
Increased force of heart contraction.
Explanation:
Pharmacology may be defined as the branch of the pharmaceutical science that are mainly concerned with drug action. The drug can be natural or the man-made type.
Cardiac glycosides are the organic compounds that mainly works with the increase in the output force of the heart. This increases the rate of the heart contractions and mainly acts on the sodium potassium ATPase pump in the cells.
Thus, the answer is increased force of heart contraction.
Which of the following statements about flexibility and flexibility training is FALSE?
a. Stretching programs can reduce flexibility loss associated with aging.
b. Flexibility is highest in the teenage years.
c. Stretch before your other exercise in order to see the greatest improvement in flexibility.
d. Aging results in rigidity, shortening of tendons, and, thus, reduced flexibility.
Answer:
The answer is: c. Stretch before your other exercise to see the greatest improvement in flexibility.
Explanation:
Stretching allows you to stretch your muscles, relax body tensions and maintain joint mobility.
With the stretching program that is always done at the beginning of any exercise, your body looks for a greater breadth to gain flexibility. For this reason the heating phase is so important. Otherwise you run the risk of suffering an injury.
The answer is: c. Stretch before your other exercise to see the greatest improvement in flexibility.
The false statement is: 'Stretch before your other exercise in order to see the greatest improvement in flexibility.' It's better to stretch after a light warm-up, and again after your other exercises when muscles are most pliable.
Explanation:The false statement among those provided about flexibility and flexibility training is: 'c. Stretch before your other exercise in order to see the greatest improvement in flexibility.'
This is because the benefit from stretching exercises is maximized when the muscles are already warmed up. So it's often recommended to do a light aerobic activity, like brisk walking, for five to ten minutes before stretching to warm up the muscles. Then, after your other exercises, when muscles are most pliable, you should stretch again.
Statements 'a', 'b', and 'd' are correct. Regular stretching programs can help decrease the loss of flexibility that occurs with aging. Flexibility is generally at its peak during our teenage years and decreases with age due to physiological changes such as the shortening of tendons and increased rigidity.
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The nurse educator is describing the yin and yang theory of the ancient Chinese philosophy of Tao to a group of nursing students. The nurse educator explains that in this theory, foods are classified as hot and cold and are transformed into yin and yang energy when metabolized by the body. The nursing student understands this theory when the student makes which statement?
Answer:
Continue with the instructions, verifying client understanding.
Explanation:
A correct understanding of the yin and yang theory in the context of health and dietary choices involves recognizing the importance of balancing these complementary energies for maintaining health.
Explanation:The nurse educator is describing the yin and yang theory of the ancient Chinese philosophy of Tao to a group of nursing students, explaining that foods are classified as hot and cold and are transformed into yin and yang energy when metabolized by the body.
The correct understanding of this theory by a nursing student would be acknowledged when the student makes the statement that acknowledges the importance of maintaining a balance between yin (cold) and yang (hot) energies through dietary choices to ensure health and well-being. This understanding reflects the principle that achieving harmony between these two complementary energies is essential for physical and emotional health, according to traditional Chinese medicine which views health as the result of balancing these opposite but complementary forces.
Why is it important to model optimism when working with a client with disabilities?
Answer:
To allow the families to see what their loved one can do.
Explanation:
Model optimism is the mental attitude that reflects the hope that the outcome some endeavor might be desirable, positive and favorable. Optimism see the things positively.
The client that has some disability requires the model optimism. This optimism generates the hope that he might get well soon and generates the positive thinking in the patient. The treatment of the patient with the families and loved one is quite fruitful.
Modelling optimism when working with clients with disabilities is crucial because it fosters a positive environment, improves overall health outcomes, and fosters hope and positivity in the client, potentially increasing their quality of life and satisfaction with treatment.
Explanation:Modelling optimism when working with clients with disabilities is important for several key reasons. Firstly, the positive view and expectations from optimism provide a supportive therapeutic environment. Optimists, defined as those who generally expect good outcomes and view life's difficulties as temporary and not personal faults, tend to have better overall health outcomes. This includes lower rates of rehospitalization, better physical functioning, less pain, and better treatment adherence, functions which could all assist in rehabilitation and treatment processes for disabled clients.
The power of optimism has also been shown to contribute to better overall life satisfaction, resilience, and ability to cope with stress – all of which are important in ensuring the client feels hopeful and positive about their journey.
Finally, demonstrating optimism could help the client to internalize a similar outlook, potentially increasing their perceived quality of life and overall happiness. This can foster a more positive attitude towards treatment and foster productive and pleasurable working relationships.
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_____ abilities may lead them to question their parents and other authority figures far more strenuously, and may make adolescents impatient with imperfections in institutions such as schools and the government.
Answer:
Abstract reasoning
Explanation:
Adolescents' increased abstract reasoning abilities may lead them to...
That is the full statement.
Abstract reasoning is defined as the ability to analyze information, detect patterns and relationships, and solve problems on a complex, intangible level. Examples of abstract reasoning may be questioning or formulating theories as to why we exist, and debate the existence of a higher power watching over us.
It is at this stage that many adolescents develop their own morals and understandings of the way the world works. They may feel rebellious against their parents or other authoritative figures.
Answer:
The missing part of the question is: Adolescents' increased __________ abilities may...
Adolescents' increased abstract reasoning abilities may lead them to question their parents and other authority figures far more strenuously, and may make adolescents impatient with imperfections in institutions such as schools and the government.
Explanation:
Abstract reasoning is developed during the adolescence and last our entire life. It is the ability to solve problems, analyze and deduce things, without needing concrete objects to do so. For example, the ability to make mental calculations, or start questioning things that you perceive as wrong in an institution such as the school or the government but that are not concrete things like laws, or schemes inside a system.
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Describe 2 steps someone can take to reduce risks from stress.
Answer:
Find good hobbies and organize your time wisely
Explanation:
1. Finiding a good hobby like listening to music, reading a book and more is scientifically proven to reduce stress and improve cognitive performance during tasks and work
2. Organizing your schedule is important as you generally dont want to cramp all of your tasks together so you have to finish them all at once. Try to do one assignment/task for an hour or so, take a break for 5 or 10 minutes, then keep going!
______ transfers substances to the brain faster than when a drug is injected or swallowed.
A. Smoking
B. Eating
C. Inhalation
D. Snorting
Answer:
A. Smoking
Explanation:
Nicotine modifies the functioning of the brain, specifically acts on the nicotine cholinergic receptors that are part of the reward circuit, releasing dopamine, which is the neurotransmitter of motivation and reward. In addition, it does so very quickly, between only 10 to 15 seconds it is transported from the lungs to its receptors through the bloodstream. In fact, the fastest way to carry a substance to the brain is to smoke it, which generates much stronger effects of conditioned reinforcement. Tobacco is the drug that has the highest probability of dependence just by trying it once (32%).
Tobacco addiction is due, as we have already said, to the release of dopamine, specifically in the cerebral zone of the ventral striatum (nucleus accumbens), the so-called mesolimbic dopamine pathway, the reinforcement pathway and the brain's reward.
Mammograms Many women choose to have annual mammograms to screen for breast cancer after age 40. A mammogram isn’t foolproof. Sometimes the test suggests that a woman has breast cancer when she really doesn’t (a ""false positive""). Other times the test says that a woman doesn’t have breast cancer when she actually does (a ""false negative""). Suppose the false negative rate for a mammogram is 0.10. Explain what this probability means. Which is a more serious error in this case: a false positive or a false negative? Justify your answer.
A false negative rate of 0.10 means there's a 10% chance that a mammogram could incorrectly show no breast cancer when it is present. While both errors are significant, a false negative is more serious because it could delay the treatment of a potentially active disease thereby reducing survival rates.
Explanation:The probability of having a false negative result from a mammogram is 0.10. This means that, statistically, 10% of the women who undergo a mammogram and receive a negative result for breast cancer may, unfortunately, have breast cancer.
When comparing false positives and false negatives, a false negative could be considered more serious in the context of cancer screening. A false positive, while it can cause much anxiety and unnecessary treatment protocols, will eventually lead to further tests that should rectify the error and rule out the presence of cancer.
However, a false negative can lead to a dangerous delay in treatment as it gives a false sense of security to the woman which can delay the diagnosis and treatment of the active disease. This delay could decrease survival rates because, in many cancers, early detection and treatment significantly increase the odds of survival.
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The false negative rate in a mammogram means there is a 10% chance that a woman who actually has breast cancer is told she doesn't. A false negative is more serious than a false positive, as it can delay life-saving treatment.
Explanation:The false negative rate of 0.10 suggests that in 10% of the cases, a mammogram might incorrectly indicate that a woman does not have breast cancer when she, in fact, does. Between a false positive and a false negative, the false negative is more detrimental. This is because a false negative can delay essential treatment for breast cancer. On the other hand, while a false positive can lead to unnecessary stress and further testing, it does not pose the same level of health risk as a false negative.
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