Answer:
The affirmation that sufficient intakes of calcium-rich foods may increase the risk of colon cancer, is false.
Explanation:
According to several studies carried out both in the U.S and other countries, although with not a significant evidence, it was seen that on the contrary, people whose diets had a consumption of calcium in their diet, above 700 mg, more or less depending on the study being researched, the possibility of suffering of colon cancer, particularly of the distal parts, was much less than in those with a low dietary consumption of this mineral. Most of the studies that have been published, like the Nurses´ Health Study, among others, show that a good level of consumption of calcium, within the appropriate limits set for daily dietary intake, may lower the risk of suffering colon cancer in people.
Which of the following is/are true of pericytes?
A) They can generate new capillaries
B) They are contractile stem cells associated with capillaries
C) They stabilize capillary walls
D) All of these statements are true
Answer:
D
Explanation:
all of these statement are true.they are multi functional mular cell of microcirculation.
Vascular mural cells buried in the basement membrane of blood microvessels are known as pericytes. They are present at intervals along the walls of blood capillaries.
They play role in the development of blood vessels, the maintenance of the blood-brain barrier, and the control of cerebral blood flow.They play role in the regulation of immune cell entry the CNS.They stabilize capillary walls.Pericytes are contractile cells associated with capillaries. Contractile properties of pericytes help in the regulation of blood flow through the capillary.So, the correct answer is option D) All of these statements are true.
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CD8 helps with recognition of which of the following molecules on the surface of a cell?
Question 12 options:
A)
TLRs
B)
selectins
C)
MHCII
D)
MHCI
E)
BCRs
Answer:
MHCI
Explanation:
Major histocompatibility complex I (MHCI) is present on the nucleated cells of the body. Endogenous pathway represents the pathway of MHC class I molecules.
MHCI display peptide fragment of proteins to the cytotoxic T cells with the help of CD8 ( Cluster of differentiation). CD8 binds with the MHCI and expressed on the surface of cytotoxic T cells.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
You are studying several alleles of an E. coli helicase gene. One allele, called rsR, confers resistance to RS2014, an antibiotic that works by inhibiting helicase activity. Bacteria with the rsS allele are sensitive to RS2014. Another allele, called ts-, produces a temperature sensitive mutation of the helicase. In bacteria with the ts- allele, helicase is inactivated at 42 °C but functions normally at 37 °C. Helicase functions normally at both temperatures in bacteria with the ts allele. You obtain the following data while testing four strains of E. coli at different temperatures and doses of RS2014. Each number represents the percentage of maximal DNA synthesis. Based on this data, assign the appropriate genotype to strains A–D in the spaces provided
Answer:
refre
Explanation:
Based on the data provided, the appropriate genotypes for strains A-D are assigned.
Explanation:Based on the given information, we can assign the appropriate genotype to strains A-D as follows:
Strain A is rsR ts-Strain B is rsS ts-Strain C is rsR tsStrain D is rsS tsThese assignments are made by analyzing the behavior of each strain in response to different temperatures and doses of the RS2014 antibiotic. The rsR allele confers resistance to RS2014, while the rsS allele makes the bacteria sensitive to RS2014. The ts- allele causes the helicase to be inactivated at 42 °C, but function normally at 37 °C.
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What is this bug called?
Answer:
ASSASSIN BUG
What is the blind spot of the retina?
Answer:
The region of retina devoid of photoreceptor cells (rod cells and cone cells)
Explanation:
The retina is the layer of the eyeball and is packed with rod cells and cone cells responsible for night and day vision respectively. The blind spot is the region in the retina where no rod cells and cone cells are present.
Absence of these photoreceptor cells ensures that no vision is formed in this part of the retina. However, the blind spot serves as the site from where the optic nerve passes through the retina and serves to transmit the impulse to the brain.
g In pea plants, the allele for yellow seeds (Y) is dominant over the one for green seeds (y) and the allele for round seeds (R) is dominant over the one for wrinkled seeds (r). A homozygous yellow, round seed is crossed with a homozygous green, wrinkled seed. The offspring of this cross are then crossed. What is the probability that an offspring of the second generation will be yellow and wrinkled? (Express your answer as the simplest fraction.)
Answer:
3/16
Explanation:
The P generation is said to gave homozygous yellow and round seeds; homozygous green and wrinkled seeds. Homozygous means that they have the same alleles for the trait.
For the P generation the cross would be:
YYRR x yyrr
This means that all offsprings in the first generation (F1) would have a genotype of:
YyRr
16/16
(Look at the Punnett attached to see this cross.)
The cross in the F1 generation would then be:
YyRr x YyRr
Now for yellow and wrinkled seeds to come out, the genotype should have at least one Y allele and a pair of r alleles. So the following genotypes is what you need to look out for:
Yyrr
YYrr
So if you will count it you will find:
Yyrr = 2/16
YYrr = 1/16
Just add them up to get the probability:
3/16
The probability that an F₂ generation offspring will be yellow and wrinkled is 3/16, considering that the genes for color and texture sort independently.
Explanation:In this question, you're considering the probability of an offspring being yellow and wrinkled from the F₂ generation in a dihybrid cross. Considering only seed color, we know that three-quarters (3/4) of the offspring would be yellow. Likewise, considering only seed texture, we'd expect one-quarter (1/4) of the offspring to be wrinkled. Because these are independent events, we use the product rule to find the probability of both events happening together. This gives us a probability of (3/4) × (1/4), or 3/16. Therefore, the probability of an F₂ generation offspring being yellow and wrinkled is 3/16.
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Name, in order, the five main components of a reflex arc. Briefly explain what each component is or does.
Answer:
The five parts of reflex arc are sense organs (receptor) followed by sensory neuron, then the inter neuron, motor neuron and lastly by the muscles/body organs.
Explanation:
The five parts of reflex arc are -
a) The first part is the receptor which comprises of sense organ whose function is to sense the impulse and pass the perceived information to the sensory neuron.
b) The sensory neuron then carry the information from sense organs to the central nervous system (CNS) for processing.
c) The inter neurons carry the information from CNS to the motor neuron
d) After receiving processed information/ action potential from inter neuron it is sent to the other parts of the body and away from the CNS .
e) Lastly, the muscles/body organs which receive information from the motor neuron, enact as directed by the CNS as a response to the impulse received.
As you lift a heavier weight, what is happening? (Select all that apply.) a. You increase the number of muscle fibers activated in each motor unit. b. You increase the number of motor units that are active in each activated muscle. c. You increase the frequency of action potentials in your motor neurons. d. You increase the diameter of muscle fibers activated in a motor unit.
List the types of proteins found in the cell membrane.
When RBCs are placed in a hypotonic solution, they undergo
a. crenation
b. hemolysis
c. isotonicity
d. homeostasis
Answer: b. hemolysis
Explanation:
A hypotonic solution is the one where the solute concentration is less than that of the RBCs. Therefore, the solvent will enter inside the RBCs due to osmotic pressure. This will lead to the increase in concentration of the solvent inside the cells this will lead to the swallowing of the cell and with generation of the high internal pressure inside the cell the cell will burst. This will result in hemolysis.
A long, thin, oblique muscle of anterior thigh
a. Sartorius
b. Masseter
Answer:
The answer is A Sartorius
Explanation:
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Discuss briefly, the different factors that can affect the rates of chemical reactions in our body.
Answer:
Factors that can affect the rate the rates of chemical reactions in the body are temperature, substrate concentration and presence and absence of enzymes.
Explanation:
Rate of a reaction may be defined as the speed of the reaction or the rate at which reactants are converted into products.
Increase or decrease in the range of temperature can affect the rate of a chemical reactions of the body. With increase in the temperature the rate of a reaction increases as the effective collision between the substrate increases and then decreases.
Enzymes are the biocatalyst that can increase the rate of a chemical reaction. The absence of the enzymes decreases the rate of a reaction.
The increase in the concentration of substrate increases the rate of a chemical reaction of the body.
The diploid cells in the testes that undergo meiosis I to produce haploid cells are the ___________.
a. secondary spermatocytes
b. primary spermatocytes
c. interstitial cells
d. spermatogonia
e. Sertoli cells
Answer:
b. Primary spermatocytes
Explanation:
Primary spermatocytes are the diploid cells present in seminiferous tubules of testes. These diploid cells enter meiosis I and produce haploid cells. Each diploid primary spermatocyte produces two haploid cells by meiosis I which are called secondary spermatocytes.
The secondary spermatocytes then enter meiosis II to produce sperms.
Final answer:
In spermatogenesis, diploid primary spermatocytes undergo meiosis I to produce haploid secondary spermatocytes, which then become spermatids after meiosis II.
Explanation:
The diploid cells in the testes that undergo meiosis I to produce haploid cells are the primary spermatocytes. Spermatogenesis begins with spermatogonia, which are diploid cells that divide by mitosis to create more spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes. The primary spermatocytes are the ones that undergo meiosis I to form haploid secondary spermatocytes.
Spermatogonia are also diploid cells that start the process of spermatogenesis, ultimately leading to the production of sperm. The process of spermatogenesis involves several stages where diploid cells transition into haploid cells, culminating in the production of sperm. These haploid cells then quickly proceed through meiosis II to become spermatids, which are also haploid.
Which muscle is responsible for inhalation ?
Answer:
The muscles of respiration are those muscles that contribute to inhalation and exhalation, by aiding in the expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity. The diaphragm and, to a lesser extent, the intercostal muscles drive respiration during quiet breathing.
the answer is diaphragm
Immoveable joints are
a. diarthrotic
b. synathrotic
c. amphiarthrotic
d. syndesmose
Answer:
D syndesmose
Explanation:
An immovable joint connects the ends of the bones by a tough fibrous tissue.
Which of the following would not be involved in performing synergism when making a fist?
a. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
b. Extensor Digitorium
c. Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
d. Extensor Carpi Ulnaris
Final answer:
The muscle that would not be involved in performing synergism when making a fist is the b) extensor digitorum, as it is responsible for extending the fingers and hand, which is the opposite motion of making a fist.
Explanation:
When making a fist, muscles called synergists work together to perform the action required. The extensor digitorum is involved in extending the fingers and the hand at the wrist, not in flexing them to make a fist. The muscles that would be involved in making a fist are the flexors. Therefore, the muscle that would not be involved in performing synergism when making a fist is: b. Extensor Digitorium
The other muscles listed are extensors of the wrist and would not actively contribute to the flexion required for making a fist. To clarify, the extensor muscles listed (including the extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, and extensor carpi ulnaris) primarily act to extend the wrist and fingers, which is the opposite motion required for making a fist.
What type of hormones are secreted by troph cells in the anterior pituitary gland?
a. Releasing hormones
b. Stimulating hormones
Answer:
Option (b). stimulating hormone.
Explanation:
The pituitary gland is an endocrine gland, present at the base of the brain. The anterior lobe of pituitary consists of various endocrine cells or troph cells that synthesize and secret various hormones.
The hormones released by these cells are mainly stimulating hormones that regulate functions of some other glands. For example, TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) and FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) are secreted by anterior pituitary gland that regulate function of thyroid gland and ovaries, respectively.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
These vessels transport blood to the right and left lungs.
A. aorta
B. right atrium
C. pulmonary trunk.
D. pulmonary arteries
E. pulmonary veins
Answer: D. Pulmonary Arteries
Explanation: The pulmonary artery channels oxygen-poor blood from the right ventricle into the lungs, where oxygen enters the bloodstream.
Please tell me if I did the answer incorrectly.
The frequency of a deleterious recessive disease in a large, randomly-mating population is 1 in 1000. Calculate the probability of an individual being a carrier for this recessive disease?
a) 0.74
b) 0.06
c) 0.03
d) 0.001
e) All individuals will be homozygous
Answer:
The frequency of carriers for the recessive disease is 0.062.
Explanation:
The frequency of recessive allele in the generation is 1 in 1000.
Let the frequency be q²=1/1000.
q=√1/1000.
q=0.032.
Let p be the frequency of dominant allele
p+q=1 ( According to hardy weinberg equillibrium)
p=1-q
p= 1-0.032
p=0.968.
The frequency of carriers for the recessive disease = 2×p×q
=2×0.032×0.968
=0.062.
On which bone does Sella Turcica occurs?
Answer:
Sella Turcica occurs on the sphenoid bone.
Explanation:
Sella Turcica is the saddle shaped bone of the skull and acts as cephlaometric landmark. The inner aspect of sella turcica consists of hypophysis or pituitary gland.
Sella Turcica is present in the sphenoid bone of the skull just behind the tuberculum sellae and chiasmatic groove. The shrink pituitary gland is indicated by the empty Sella Turcica.
What is the densest layer
Answer:
Explanation:
The densest layer is the solid metal inner core, the mantle is of intermediate density, and the least dense layer is the lithosphere, particularly the continental lithosphere.
Brainiest please thx.
Select the correct answer.
Which of the following statements is a scientific claim?
A.
The early solar system had large amounts of water; so, the oldest objects in the solar system should also be abundant in water.
B.
The mass of the universe is much greater than current models predict; it is not possible to explain this inconsistency.
C.
Planet Earth is abundant in water, but there is no way to scientifically determine from where Earth's water originated.
D.
Earth is shaped like a sphere even if not all of the scientific observations related to its shape support this idea.
Answer:
B maybe
Explanation:
Answer:
Option A, The early solar system had large amounts of water; so, the oldest objects in the solar system should also be abundant in water.
Explanation:
A scientific claim is a evidence based statement that is tested and tried through experiment and reasoning.
Among all the given options none of the statement except the option A has a logical reasoning support or backup.
However, in option A the statement "old object in solar system are abundant of water" is based on the reason that "early solar systems had large amount of water"
Thus, option A is correct
With the exception of olfaction, all sensory pathways first travel to the __________, which acts as a relay and processing station.
a. cerebrum
b. thalamus
c. cerebellum
d. hypothalamus
e. medulla oblongata
Answer:
The correct answer is option B-thalamus.
Explanation:
Thalamus is a small olive shaped structure located in the brain beneath the cerebrum.
Thalamus serves as a relay station of the brain which has an important role in directing the sensory input signals to the appropriate location in the cerebral cortex of the impulses travelling from the body, ears, eyes and other senses (except for smell).
This happens as the thalamus is subdivided into a number of nuclei which deals with analyzing particular information and then sending the information from that nucleus to cerebral cortex.
Thus, option B-thalamus is the correct answer.
All sensory pathways, except for olfaction, first travel to the thalamus in the brain.
Explanation:With the exception of olfaction, all sensory pathways first travel to the thalamus, which acts as a relay and processing station. The thalamus is a part of the brain and is responsible for relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. It receives information from various sensory organs and sends it to the appropriate areas of the cerebrum for further processing and interpretation.
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A spindle apparatus is associated with
a. compact bone
b. metaphase
c. syndesmoses
d. spongy bone
Answer: b. metaphase
Explanation:
In cell biology, the spindle apparatus can be define as a cytoskeletal structure can be found in the eukaryotic cells that actually develops during the process of cell division which can be used to separate sister chromatids so as to distribute them equally in the daughter cells. Metaphase is the phase of mitotic division where spindle apparatus can be seen for the distribution of the sister chromatids to the daughter cells.
The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule is?
A) secretion of acids and ammonia
B) filtration
C) adjusting urine volume
D) secretion of drugs
E) re-absorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins, and water
A) secretion of acids and ammonia
The primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is re-absorption of ions, organic molecules, vitamins, and water. Therefore, option (E) is correct.
The PCT is essential to the nephron, which filters and processes blood to generate urine. The PCT re-absorbs chemicals from the filtrate into the bloodstream after the glomerulus.
The glomerulus filters ions, organic compounds, vitamins, and water into the tubule. The PCT actively re-absorbs a large part of these chemicals, returning them to the bloodstream for body retention. Re-absorption prevents urine loss of important chemicals. Therefore, option (E) is correct.
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What is Inflammation?
A. Is a tissue response to injury
B. Is characterized by redness, swelling, heat and pain
C. Is the body’s first and foremost defense against infection
D. A and B are correct
E. A, B and C are correct
Answer:
A, B and C are correct
Explanation:
Inflammation may be defined as one of the process of immune system that defend the individual's body from harmful pathogens.
Inflammation generally occurs in a tissue and response against an injury. This is the first defense of an individual's body against an infection. The tissue or particular area of body may get swell, red and an individual feels pain and heat.
Thus, the correct answer is option (E).
Inflammation is the body's immediate response to tissue injury or infection, marked by redness, swelling, heat, and pain. It aims to restore homeostasis and is crucial for body defense, involving the innate immune system. The correct comprehensive answer to the provided question would be that inflammation includes all the described aspects, making option E the correct choice.
Explanation:Inflammation is fundamentally a tissue response to injury, which can be due to invading pathogens or simple physical damage. This response is a critical aspect of the body's first line of defense and aims to restore and maintain homeostasis following injury. When inflammation occurs, there are several hallmark signs, including redness, swelling, heat, and pain, which are caused by increased blood flow and the influx of immune cells and chemicals to the affected area. Additionally, inflammation serves as the method for immune elements within the blood to exit the bloodstream and access the tissue around the site that is injured or infected.
Inflammation can be categorized as either acute or chronic. Acute inflammation is generally short-lived and localized, whereas chronic inflammation may persist over a longer period and can lead to tissue damage and diseases such as tuberculosis and hepatitis C. It's important to note that while inflammation is part of the innate immune system's response to infection, it can also be triggered by non-infectious tissue injuries.
The correct answer to the student's question would be option E, as all statements A, B, and C correctly describe aspects of inflammation. It serves as a tissue response, has characteristic symptoms, and is the body's primary defense against infection.
Cells which are joined tightly together are characteristics of?
Answer:
Epithelial tissue
Explanation:
Functions of epithelial cells include secretion, selective absorption, protection, transcellular transport, and sensing. Epithelial layers contain no blood vessels, so they must receive nourishment via and diffusion of substances from the underlying connective tissue, through the basement membrane.
Epithelial tissue
What is epithelial tissue?
The cells in epithelial tissue are very intently packed collectively and joined with a little area between them. With its tightly packed structure, we'd assume epithelial tissue to serve some kind of barrier and shielding function and this is certainly the case.
No matter there being many exclusive forms of epithelial tissue all epithelial tissue has just 5 characteristics, these are
cellularitypolarityattachmentvascularityregenerationLearn more about Epithelial tissue here
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On which bone does Jugular Foramen occurs?
Answer:
The petrous temporal bone
Explanation:
Jugular Foramen is a cavity or aperture which is formed at the junction of two bones of the skull. Jugular Foramen occurs at the junction of the occipital bone and petrous temporal bone. The petrous temporal bone has carotid foramen. The Jugular Foramen is located posterior to the carotid foramen but anterior to the occipital bone of the skull.
Why is the action of phagocytes considered a nonspecific response?
Answer:
Since phagocytes are effective against any type of infectious/toxic agent.
Explanation:
Phagocytes are the cells of the immune system that are involved in the non-specific immune response. These cells serve to engulf and kill any pathogenic or infectious microbe that has entered the body. Since phagocytes do not require the presence of specific antigens or pathogens to mount the immune response, their action is "non-specific response".
Answer:
D. It is not a response to a specific type of pathogen.
Explanation:
this is the answer to this question on edge2021 :)
As the popliteal vein ascends the leg, it becomes the
A. peroneal vein.
B. saphenous vein.
C. common iliac vein
D. femoral vein.
E. deep femoral vein.
Answer:
D. Femoreal vein.
Explanation:
Close to the popliteal artery, the popliteal vein extends and transports blood from the knee (and also the muscles from the thigh and calf) once again up to the heart. This vein has its origin in the joint between both the anterior and posterior tibial veins, proximal to the knee.
Also, the popliteal vein starts its extension from the popliteal artery, which can be found behind the knee, and the drainage of the peroneal vein is performed by it prior to reaching the knee joint, where the popliteal vein becomes known as the femoral vein.
As the popliteal vein ascends the leg, it becomes the D. femoral vein. This is the correct option among the choices provided.
The popliteal vein is a deep vein that drains the lower leg and knee area. When it travels upwards in the leg, the popliteal vein becomes the femoral vein as it enters the thigh region. The femoral vein plays a crucial role in the circulatory system as it drains the upper leg and receives blood from several other veins, including the great saphenous vein, the deep femoral vein, and the femoral circumflex vein. Upon reaching the inguinal ligament, the femoral vein continues as the external iliac vein, which then contributes to the common iliac vein. Confusion may arise among the terminology, such as with the peroneal vein and others, but knowledge of vascular anatomy makes clear that the direct upward continuation of the popliteal vein is indeed the femoral vein.