Answer:
c) prevent deficiency diseases.
Explanation:
Vitamins are essential and specific organic compounds that are required mainly in the diet to facilitate the digestion of protein, however, they are not categorized with amino acids and as such they can't provide essential amino acid.
Vitamins are categorized into fat soluble vitamins(A,D,E and K) and water soluble vitamins (B anc C). Vitamins provides several to hundred of roles, majorly they helps to prevent deficiency diseases. Few of their roles are:
Vitamin A helps to prevent blindness. Food sources to obtain vitamin A include spinach, cod liver oil etc.
Vitamin D helps to maintain skeletal structure due to the calcium content embedded in Vitamin D. Therefore, lack of vitamin D can cause rickets.
Vitamin B-complexes e.g B-1 (thiamin) helps in synthesis of certain hormones, B-2 (riboflavin) which asssists in breakdown of fats and energy production. It can be gotten from Milk, youghurt etc. Deficiency in these vitamin B-complexes can cause heart-related disease, skin disorders, anemia etc.
Inside one osmosis bag*, A, is a 50% glucose solution and inside bag B is a 20% glucose solution. Both bags are put into beakers containing 100% water. What will happen to the bags?
A) Bag A will gain weight.
B) Bag B will gain weight.
C) Both bags will gain weight.
D) Both bags will lose weight.
E) Both bags will remain the same.
Answer:C) Both bags will gain weight.
Explanation: osmosis is the movement of water molecules from a region of low concentration of solute to a region of high concentration of solute, through a semi permeable membrane.
It is one of the ways in which living cells move substances across it's membrane.
In the above case,the bags are semi-permeable and so can allow the movement of water molecules through it.
Both bags contains water with glucose dissolved in them, although bag A has a higher concentration of solute (glucose).
When placed in the 100% water,water would flow into both bags through osmosis.this will occur because the concentration of solute in the bags is higher than that outside the bags.
As a result both bags would gain weight due to entry of water.
However ,Bag A which has more glucose in it, would gain more water.
In this osmosis process, water in the beaker (lower concentration) will move into the bags A and B (higher concentration) that contain glucose solution. Therefore, both bags A and B will gain weight.
Explanation:The process being described here is osmosis, a fundamental concept in biology. Osmosis is the process where solvent molecules move from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration through a semi-permeable membrane. In this context, the bags are semi-permeable membranes and the water inside the beakers is the solvent. Both bag A and bag B are filled with solutions that have a higher concentration of glucose (the solute) compared to the water in the beakers. Therefore, water will move from the beaker (area of lower concentration) to inside the bags (area of higher concentration). So, both Bag A and Bag B will gain weight, as water enters them. Thus, the correct answer is C) Both bags will gain weight.
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What are homologous chromosomes?
a. chromosomes that are similar in their size, shape, and gene content.
b. any chromosome in a diploid cell.
c. the two chromatids in a replicated chromosome.
d. similar chromosomes that are found in different individuals of the same species.
Answer:
The correct answer is a. chromosomes that are similar in their size, shape, and gene content.
Explanation:
A homologous chromosome is the chromosome which is similar in shape, size, centromere position and they contain the same genes at the same locus also.
One homologous chromosome comes from the father and the other homologous chromosomes come from the mother. These chromosomes have the same gene at the same locus but the alleles of that gene can be different in homologous chromosomes.
The homologous chromosome separates during the meiosis so that the gamete has half the number of chromosomes. So the correct answer is a.
Homologous chromosomes are similar in size, shape, and gene content. They are pairs of chromosomes found in diploid cells, one inherited from each parent. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes undergo crossing over to create genetic variation.
Explanation:Homologous chromosomes are chromosomes that are similar in their size, shape, and gene content. They are pairs of chromosomes that carry the same genes, although they may have different versions of those genes. Homologous chromosomes are found in diploid cells, which have two sets of chromosomes, one inherited from each parent.
For example, in humans, we have 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes, giving us a total of 46 chromosomes. Each pair consists of one chromosome inherited from the mother and one from the father.
These pairs of chromosomes are important for genetic diversity and inheritance. During meiosis, the process of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and eggs), homologous chromosomes line up and swap genetic material through a process called crossing over. This results in genetic variation and the shuffling of traits between generations.
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Salmon hatcheries are commonly found near rivers along the West Coast of the United States because of decline in wild salmon populations due to what activities?
Answer:
Salmon populations in the United States is declining due to the following factors:
1. Over-fishing and human activities have put a major influence on the population of salmon.
2. Due to industrialization, urban growth, unplanned farming, deforestation, and pollution would have imparted strains on the stocks of salmon. Apart from this chemical contamination from the industrial run-off and agricultural activities are also declining populations of salmon.
3. Genetically modified fish from hatcheries usually escape and interbreed with wild fish, thus, changing the genetic features of the populations.
4. Construction of hydropower dams is also a major cause of the salmon population declining.
Answer:
The Salmon are endothermic animals and there internal environment changes according to the external environments. The change in the external environment can lead to the sudden decline in the population.
The main factors that are responsible for the decline in salmon populations are habitat fragmentation, habitat loss, hatcheries, increased urbanization and sudden change in the external environment. The increase in the environmental population also decreases the Salmon population.
Select all that apply chromosomes____. always occur in pairs are tight coils of DNA can be analyzed in a karyotype carry thousands of genes are carried on genes
Answer:
The correct answers are:
Are tight coils of DNACan be analysed in a karyotype.Carry thousand of genes.Explanation:
Chromosome occur: In pairs only in diploid organisms, who have two sets of genes, one obtained from the father and other from the mother. But circular chromosomes in single form can be found in haploid organisms, like prokaryotes, which have a single copy of the genome.Polyploid organisms carry multiple copies of a chromosome. This is observed mostly in plants like rice or wheat.Chromosomes are formed by the compaction of the double-stranded DNA with the help of proteins. The DNA coils sequentially into the nucleosome, 10 nano-meter fibre, 30 nano-meter and then into the metaphase chromosome.DNA is analysed by the method of karyotyping in which the chromosomes are observed, counted and checked for abnormality in the cells, in metaphase stage of cell-division ( when the chromosomes can be distinctly identified).Each chromosome carries multiple genes as the chromosome is formed by the coiling up of the long DNA carrying genes.Chromosome carry genes, chromosomes are not carried on genes.What do you think would be the most satisfying part of a career as an MRI or CT radiographer? Explain why. 5. What do you think would be the most frustrating part of a career as an MRI or CT radiographer? Explain why.
Answer:think the most satisfying part of a career as an MRI or CT radiographer would be that you're helping people to find out their diagnosis to get better.
Why? You will develop a magnetic personality, You will work in a clean environment, High salaries, you can avoid long night shift, You will be a certified health profession.
What do you think would be the most frustrating part of a career as an MRI or CT radiographer?
Competition, physical work, radiation and union.
MRI and CT scans are the different types of scans that are used to produce body images to diagnose a disease or internal condition of the body.
Career as MRI and CT radiographerMRI scans or Magnetic Resonance Imaging is a type of scanning procedure, in which a radiographer diagnoses the condition and helps in the treatment better. CT scans or Computed Tomography is an X-ray scan in which computers control the source and detectors to process the data and produce the image.The benefits of CT and MRI radiographer includes high salary, safe environment, ability to diagnose the disease, rapid career growth, and is one of the highest growth rate jobs.
MRI and CT radiographer Jobs can be FrustratingThe primary risk is that the radiographers will be exposed to radiation, which can cause mutations, cancer, and other diseases.
The radiographer while interacting with the patient can be exposed to airborne or other pathogenic agents.The mental stress and emotional trauma while observing the patients with critical conditions.
Thus, a career as a radiographer can be beneficial and frustrating.
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What 5-carbon sugar makes up the DNA backbone? *
A. splenda
B. cane sugar
C. deoxyribose
Answer:
C. deoxyribose.. Hope that helps :)
A group of registered dietitian nutritionists is planning to conduct a scientific study to investigate the effects of eating honey on school-age children's behavior. At first, the researchers will ________.
Answer: Make observations
Explanation:
The observation is very essential when it comes to a scientific study. The first step is making observation related to the topic.
The observation is a type of inference which is made before conducting an experiment. The data which is collected related to the experiment is known as observation.
A person should have all the information based on that the hypothesis is given.Then the experiment is performed.
You have identified a plant in your garden with a new flower color. You want to determine if this phenotype is dominant or recessive. Which cross would tell you this?
Answer:
A monohybrid cross will be able to determine whether the trait is dominant or recessive.
Explanation:
In order to determine whether the flower colour is dominant or recessive, we should cross the plant with the other type of the plant with different flower color. The results from the cross could be illustrated in a punnet square and will be able to determine whether the trait is dominant or recessive. If the plant will be recessive then it will be seen in lesser number in the upcoming population.
Answer:
Test cross
Explanation:
A testcross is a cross between an organism of unknown genotype with a double recessive individual. One way of establishing the genotype of a plant bearing the characteristics of the dominant gene is by self pollination. If all the offspring are similar, then the unknown genotype is homozygous dominant. If the offspring are different at a ratio of 1:1 then the unknown genotype is heterozygous.
As trees get larger and the number of leaves increases, transpiration rates rise and demand for water increases. How do mature plant stems meet this added demand for water?
Cells of secondary phloem adjacent to the vascular cambium differentiate into xylem cells.
Vascular cambium continues to divide, and cells of its inner surface differentiate to form additional secondary xylem cells.
Cells of the xylem continue to divide and produce more cells that transport water.
Cells present in the pith closest to the xylem differentiate into xylem cells.
Answer:
Vascular cambium continues to divide, and cells of its inner surface differentiate to form additional secondary xylem cells.
Inhibitory neurotransmitters such as glycine and GABA make a postsynaptic cell harder to depolarize by allowing what?
Inhibitory neurotransmitters such as glycine and GABA make a postsynaptic cell harder to depolarize by allowing "an influx of Cl-".
Explanation:
The neurotransmitters which have inhibitory influence on the neuron are termed as "Inhibitory neurotransmitters". The major inhibitory neurotransmitters involve serotonin and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain and brain stem (spinal cord) respectively.
GABA uptake is temperature and ion-dependent as require both [tex]N a^{+}[/tex] and [tex]C l^{-}[/tex]. Even glycine transporters are also members of the large family of [tex]N a^{+} / C l^{-}[/tex] dependent neurotransmitter transporters. Both of them with the GABA transporters share approximately 50% sequence identity.
Lipids are not like the other macromolecules we have discussed that are formed from polymerization of specific subunits. Instead lipids are grouped by being_____________
Answer:
chemically reacted (dehydrated)
Explanation:
By definition, polymers are macromolecules formed by the combination or interlinking of a single repeating unit i.e. a monomer. Unlike carbohydrates and proteins, lipids do not form polymers. Lipids consist of a unique starting molecule that is different from the other units.Lipids are formed by the chemical combination of sub-units through reactions such as dehydration. Fatty acids combine through dehydration and release water.This process only allow lipids to elongate in one direction only whereas carbohydrates and proteins can form complex, branched structures.An example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint is the...
A. intervertebral discs
B. pubic symphysis
C. interosseous membrane between the radius and the ulna
D. sagittal suture
Answer: The correct answer is : D. sagittal suture
Explanation: The sagittal suture connects the two parietal bones of the skull, it is a type of synartrotic fibrous joint. Fibrous joints with very little or no mobility are called synartrotic, the bones are held together by fibrous connective tissues. Synarthrosis occurs where there is bone growth. Synarthrosis protects and supports ligaments and muscles.
The sagittal suture is an example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint.
Explanation:An example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint is the sagittal suture. Synarthrotic joints are immovable joints, and fibrous joints are connected by fibrous connective tissue.
An example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint is the sagittal suture (option D). Synarthrotic joints, also known as immovable joints, are firmly held together by fibrous tissue. In the case of the sagittal suture, this joins the two parietal bones of the skull together. These joints are generally found in areas where strength and stability are necessary and movement is not, such as the skull.
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To be considered part of the same population organisms must have a reasonable chance of mating with each other. Are two wild roses separated by a wide road part of the same population?
Two questions have been asked, and responded to
Answer:
For question 1: The statement is true
For question 2: Yes, the two wild roses are of the same population
Explanation:
Population is simply the total number of organisms of the same species LIVING and BREEDING together in a given area.
I) To be considered part of the same population, two of more organisms MUST BE able to mate i.e produce gametes that are viable enough to fuse together and create new offsprings.
2) Yes! Two wild roses separated by a wide road belong to the SAME POPULATION because
- it is still a given area or habitat
- transfer of pollen grains by agents such as wind or insects is possible, thus breeding still occurs.
1: The statement is true
2: Yes, the 2 wild roses are of the identical population
Population organismsWhen the Population is just the overall number of organisms of the identical species LIVING and also BREEDING together in an exceedingly given area.
I) Then To be considered a part of the identical population that two or more organisms MUST BE able to mate that's produce gametes that are viable enough to fuse and make new off-springs.
2) Yes! When Two wild roses separated by a good road belong to the identical POPULATION because it's still a given area or habitat transfer of pollen grains by agents like wind or insects is feasible, thus breeding still occurs.
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In a diploid individual, one chromosome carries A and B genes, and the homologous chromosome carries different forms (alleles) of these same genes, a and b. If there is a single crossover between these two genes involving non-sister chromatids during metaphase I of meiosis, the resulting four gametes are:
A. AB, AB, ab, ab.
B. AB, ab, AB, ab.
C. AaBb, AaBb, AaBb, AaBb.
D. AB, Ab, aB, ab.
E. Ab, Ab, aB, aB.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
This involves a dihybrid inheritance I.e. two genes are being passed on. During meiosis, specifically, the Prophase stage, homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes received from each parent) line side by side. According to the question, one chromosome contains A and B alleles and its homologue, received by the other parent carries a and b alleles. This means that the diploid individual has a genotype AaBb for that gene.
According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, the alleles separate independently of one another into gametes. I.e. allele A and a separates into the gametes without affecting alleles B and b of the other gene.
Crossing-over, which is the exchange of chromosomal segment occurs between the two homologues. Hence, the exchange of chromosomal segments containing alleles in the individual will possibly produce four gametes with the genotypes: AB, Ab, aB, ab.
What does an antigen presenting cell encounter that allows the activation of both the humoral response and the cell mediated response in your immune system?
Answer:
Exogenous Antigen
Explanation:
An antigen-presenting cell (APC) is an immune cell that detects, engulfs, and informs the adaptive immune response about an infection. APC present the antigen complexed with with major histocompatibility complexes (MHCs). There are two type of APC: professional APC that presesnt MHCII and non professional APC that present MHCI. Macrophages, Dentritic cells and B cells (before maturation) are examples professional APC cells.
T cells are major cells in cell mediated immunity and B cells are key component for humoral immunity beacuse they are involved in the production of antibodies. There are three types of T cells; helper,cytotoxic and supressive. Foreign antigen presented by professional APC cell with MHC class II are recognized by helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells can recognize endogenous antigen presented on MHC class I. The virus infected cells are destroyed by T cytotoxic cells and T helper cells play a part to activate the cell mediated response and humoral response by stimulating the rapid division of B cells & cytotoxic T cells by producing compounds called interleukins.
T cell can only recognize foreign non viral antigen presented by professional T cells and only T helper cell can induce both cell mediated and humoral immune response.
A person who fakes symptoms for a goal is called a _________, while a person who fakes a disease for no clear goal has a ________disorder:
Answer:
A person who fakes symptoms for a goal is called a malingerer, while a person who fakes a disease for no clear goal has a factitous disorder:
Explanation:
Malingerer is someone who attempts to shirk or escape from duty/ responsibility by feigning. Malingering is the result of a person desire to gain a reward or avoid something and it is not caused by any physical factors. While Factitious disorder entails a person acting as if he or she has a physical or mental illness.
Answer: malingerer; factitious
Explanation:
Malingerer and factitious disorders both involve people who exaggerate symptoms or make up symptoms of a certain illness. However, those disorders have some differences.
Factitious disorder is classified as a somatic symptom disorder so it is a mental illness. People with this disorders exaggerate or lie about having medical or psychiatric symptoms and there are two kinds of factitious disorder:
Factitious disorder imposed on self (FDIS) also known as Munchausen syndrome: The person lies about their own health.
Factitious disorder imposed on another (FDIA) also known as Munchausen syndrome by proxy: The person lies about someone else’s symptoms or disease. The victim is usually a child or any person who can’t take care of themselves.
People with these disorders often go to see a doctor in a hospital or clinic. They talk about symptoms of a made up illness and they also may injure themselves or somebody else. And usually, they may try to fake diagnostic test results.
Malingerers exaggerate or make up symptoms of an illness which can be physical or psychiatric and they do it for personal gain. However, they have clear external motivations that drive their behavior. Some of those reasons include:
A financial gain Reducing work obligations To avoid prison timeTo get time off work To get prescriptions for medicationsAll of this also means that treatment is different for each disorder.
Jane is using progestin-only pills. Which of the following best explains how this form of birth control protects her from an unplanned pregnancy?
A) It prevents the release of an egg.
B) It kills sperm.
C) It thickens cervical mucus and interferes with implantation.
D) It thickens the lining of the fallopian tubes to impede the travel of both egg and sperm.
Final answer:
Progestin-only pills prevent pregnancy primarily by thickening cervical mucus and secondarily by impacting the lining of the uterus to interfere with implantation.
Explanation:
Jane is using progestin-only pills, a form of hormonal contraception that works to prevent unplanned pregnancy primarily through two mechanisms. Firstly, by thickening the cervical mucus, it makes it more difficult for sperm to pass through the cervix and fertilize an egg. Secondly, it works by altering the endometrium (the lining of the uterus) which may interfere with the implantation of a fertilized egg, though this is considered a secondary mechanism. It is important to note that while the primary mechanism for combined pills (those containing both estrogen and progestin) is preventing ovulation, progestin-only pills rely more significantly on the mechanism of cervical mucus thickening and may also prevent ovulation, but not as consistently as combined pills.
1. ATP is used in the cell to transfer energy. __________ (True or False).2. When ATP is used in a reaction, the last phosphate is transferred to the substrate __________. (True or False). 3. Once phosphates are released from ATP they can be added back in an endergonic reaction. __________ (True or False). 4. The Gibbs free energy for the conversion of ATP to ADP is __________ .
Answer:
ATP is used in the cell to transfer energy True. 2. When ATP is used in a reaction, the last phosphate is transferred to the substrate True. 3. Once phosphates are released from ATP they can be added back in an endergonic reaction True. 4. The Gibbs free energy for the conversion of ATP to ADP is water .
Consider the following statement: "If all vertebrates have backbones, and turtles are vertebrates, then turtles have backbones." This statement is an example of_______
Answer: Deductive reasoning
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Final answer:
The given statement is an example of deductive reasoning, using the classification of animals in biology, specifically the characteristic of having a vertebral column, to conclude that turtles have backbones.
Explanation:
The statement 'If all vertebrates have backbones, and turtles are vertebrates, then turtles have backbones' is an example of deductive reasoning. This kind of reasoning starts with a general statement or hypothesis and examines the possibilities to reach a specific, logical conclusion. This is represented in biology when we classify organisms based on their characteristics. For example, all vertebrates exhibit certain traits such as a vertebral column, which includes the backbone. Since turtles are classified as vertebrates, they must have a backbone as well. This logical progression from the general to the specific is a hallmark of deductive reasoning.
In a population of plants with a diploid number of 12, a new individual appeared with a chromosome number of 24. If this organism could self-fertilize, forming offspring with the same number of chromosomes (24), scientists would consider this an example of
not an answere but im looking for the same one
Identify whether each of the following is a component of the intracellular fluid or extracellular fluid.1. cytoplasm of a neuron2. cytosol of a red blood cell3. interstitial fluid4. blood plasma
Answer:
1 and 2 are components of intracellular fluids, while 3 and 4 are of extracellular fluids.
Explanation:
The fluid in the body can be categorized as either extracellular or intracellular, based on the fluid component as well as where they are found.
Extracellular fluids are found outside the body cells, while intracellular fluids are found inside of cells enclosed by the plasma membranes.
1. cytoplasm of a neuron and 2. Cytosol of a red blood cells are components of intracellular fluids found within cells.
3. Interstitial fluid and 4. Blood plasma are primary components of extracellular fluids found outside the surrounding of cells.
The cytoplasm of a neuron and the cytosol of a red blood cell are components of the intracellular fluid, while the interstitial fluid and blood plasma are part of the extracellular fluid.
Explanation:The components mentioned fall into different categories of body fluids based on their location. Number 1, cytoplasm of a neuron, and Number 2, cytosol of a red blood cell are components of the intracellular fluid. This is because they are located inside the cells. On the other hand, Number 3, interstitial fluid, and Number 4, blood plasma, belong to the extracellular fluid category, since they are found outside the cellular structure.
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do you think resident of the great plains are the only people who have an interest in conserving the orgallala aquifer? write an editorial that expresses your point of view
Answer:
No they are not the only one.
Explanation:
Orgallala aquifer is very important. In first impact is to the people that surround the area, this aquifer cover 8 states in the US, that mean that around 3 million people depend on their water to drink and to their daily activities.
Also this aquifer is used to produce nearly the 30 % of the agricultural products for the whole country. That means that a lot of US residents consume veggies and cereals from this area. Also, the meat that this country produces, depends of the production of plants as food for animals.
Finally, this is one of the largest aquifer around the world. That means, plenty of leaving things occur in this are, among others.
These are the reason why not just the people around the aquifer is worry about.
Hope this info is useful.
The Ogallala Aquifer, also called the High Plains Aquifer, is one of the world's greatest underground freshwater sources.
No, not only the resident of the great plains are conserving water of orgallala, but many farmers from different states also interested in conserving the orgallala groundwater because they need water from farming.
Conservation of Orgallala Aquifer waterEvery summer, the Central Plains of the United States become parched, forcing farmers to rely on groundwater to irrigate sorghum, soy, cotton, wheat, and corn, as well as keep big herds of cattle and hogs.As the temperature rises, concerned irrigators congregate to debate if and how they should implement more strict conservation measures.They understand that unless they conserve, the Ogallala Aquifer, which is the source of their wealth, will run dry.Thus, I don't think that resident of the great plains are the only people who have an interest in conserving the orgallala aquifer.
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As fluid moves toward the injury site, which cells of the immune system follow to remove pathogens and cellular debris through phagocytosis__________.
Answer:
macrophages
Explanation:
Macrophages are the specialized cells that perform phagocytosis which refers to the intake of microbes, pathogens, toxins, etc. to remove them from the body. During any injury, capillaries become more permeable under the influence of histamine and other substances. This allows the tissue fluid to move towards the site of infection. Monocytes are the phagocytes that arrive at the site of injury or infections along with neutrophils. Monocytes are transformed into actively phagocytic macrophages. Macrophages ingest the debris and pathogens and kill them by the hydrolytic enzymes present inside them.
What is a condition caused by some strains of staphylococci and streptococci in which toxic enzymes produced by the bacteria digest the connective tissue and spreads into muscle layers called
Answer:
Necrotizing fascilitis
Explanation:
It is a flesh eating disease that causes death to parts of the body's soft tissues such as the connective tissues and spreads to the muscles.
It is caused by multiple types of bacteria such as some strains of staphylococci and Streptococci. They do so by producing toxic enzymes which in turn digests these soft tissues.
Prevention include wound care and hand washing to prevent infection.
It is treated by surgically removal of the infected tissues and intravenous antibiotics.
When too much sugar is consumed in the diet, glucose in the blood exceeds the body's need for energy, and glucose is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles, and as ________ in fat tissue.
Excess glucose is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles, while the surplus is converted into fatty acids and stored as fat in adipose tissue.
Excess glucose in the blood, beyond the body's energy requirements, is stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles, and as fat in adipose tissue. When glycogen stores are full, additional glucose is converted into fatty acids, which are stored in adipose tissue cells as triglycerides.
In the flask experiment (Pasteur's experiment) showing that living organisms arise from other living organisms, which one of the following statements MOST accurately describes hypothesis? Group of answer choices
1. Microbes should be capable of growing equally well in sterile broth contained in both straight-neck and swan-neck flasks.
2. The first cells must have come from chemical reactions occurring in early Earth.
3. Sterilization of broth kills microbes.
4. Straight-neck flasks allow for more contamination than swan-neck flasks.
5. If microbes arise from nonliving matter, they should appear spontaneously in sterile broth.
Answer:
The statement that most accurately describes the hypothesis is Statement 5 - If microbes arise from nonliving matter, they should appear spontaneously in sterile broth.
Explanation:
The statement is most accurate because he exposed two broth culture dust particles, one in a broken flask left opened while the other in an enclosed unbroken flask. So the one left open in a broken flask indicated microbial growth while the other was clear, simply showing that microorganisms do not occur from non-living materials alone.
Plants are susceptible to bacterial infections, which can damage their structure or even kill them. Which of the following would be the best antibiotic to treat a plant that is infected with bacteria?
Complete Question:
Plants are susceptible to bacterial infections, which can damage their structure or even kill them. Which of the following would be the best antibiotic to treat a plant that is infected with bacteria?
A) a drug that interferes with mitochondria function
B) a drug that disrupts cell wall structure and function
C) a drug that destroys the central vacuole
D) a drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes
Answer: Option D (a drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes.
Explanation: Circular chromosomes are chromosomes found in prokaryotes (including bacteria). Gene expression process in the cell is powered by the barterium’s circular chromosomes.
However, gene expression refers to process in which the information present in the gene (DNA and RNA) are used to produce proteins for specific cell functions. Part of the functions enables the cell to respond to change in it’s fluctuating environment. Which in turn, enable the inner environment fairly stable.
Some proteins are synthesized to regulate the proper functioning of other organelles of the cell including the cell wall, vacuole and etc.
Thus, introduction of antibiotics that disrupts the gene expression in the circular chromosomes will be the best way to eliminate the bacteria affecting the plants. Since, if there's no gene expression in action, no protein is produced for proper organelles and the whole cell functioning. Hence, the bacteria are rendered dead.
A drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes would be the best antibiotic to treat a plant.
What is an antibiotic?Antibiotics are antimicrobial medicines that fight against microorganisms.
Antibiotic drugs are commonly used in the treatment and control of bacterial infections.
Bacteria may be killed or inhibited by these substances.
Thus, the correct option is D, A drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes.
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A microorganism has the following characteristics: Its cells have a nucleus and cell walls, it is multicellular, and it grows in long filaments. What is its general classification?
Answer:
It must belong to the Kingdom Fungi.
Explanation:
Fungi are the organisms that have long thread-like structures called hypha in their body. Many hyphae together form a mass called mycelium. Fungi are eukaryotes and have a well-defined nucleus in their cells. They also have cell walls that are made up of chitin. Fungi are mostly multicellular. However, yeast is the fungi that have a single cell in their body. Fungi are heterotrophs and derive their nutrition by parasitic or saprophytic mode of nutrition. Therefore, the given description tells that the microbe should be a fungus.
A strand of tRNA (anticodon) has a sequence of Adenine, Uracil, Guanine. What codon in mRNA attracts this strand of tRNA? A Adenine, Uracil, Guanine
Answer:
uracil, adenine, cytosine
Explanation:
The anticodon of tRNA binds to the triplet codon of mRNA. Adenine of tRNA would pair with uracil of mRNA codon. Uracil of the tRNA anticodon would pair with adenine of the mRNA codon. Similarly, the guanine of the tRNA anticodon binds to the cytosine of the mRNA codon. The codons of mRNA are read from 5' to the 3' direction. And the polarity of the anticodon of tRNA is opposite to that of the mRNA codons. Therefore, if a tRNA anticodon has a sequence of "Adenine, Uracil, Guanine", it would pair with the mRNA codon with a sequence "uracil, adenine, cytosine".
Answer:Uracil, Adenine,Guanine
Explanation: we have two nitrogenous base in both DNA and RNA this includes purine and pyrimidine.
Purine includes-Adenine and Thyamine or Uracil as in case of RNA while pyrimidine includes cytosine and guanine. Purine base pairs with pyrimidine base in both RNA and DNA i.e
Adenine-Thyamine/Uracil
Cytosine- Guanine.
For this question the pairing includes,
Adenine-Uracil(RNA)
Uracil-Adenine
Cytosine-Guanine
Match the following:________ 1. chloroplast genes are made of this substance 2. DNA body that releases energy from foods 3. nucleus food-making body 4. mitochondria cell headquarters 5. cell wall layers of cellulose outside the cell
Answer: 1. Chloroplast: food-making body
2. DNA: genes are made of this substance
3. Nucleus: cell headquarters
4. Mitochondria: body that releases energy from foods
5. Cell wall: layers of cellulose outside the cell
Explanation:
Chloroplasts are the cell organelle that helps in food-making. Present only in plants.The DNA which means DeoxyriboNucleic Acid is the carrier of genetic information. Genes are made of DNA. The Nucleus is referred to as the cell headquarters; it is the central and most important part of an cell. Mitochondria is the power house of the cell; it is the body that releases energy from foods. The Cell wall is a layer of cellulose outside the cell.