Answer:
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Target full product cost $500, 000 per year
Actual fixed cost $280, 000 per year
Actual variable cost $3 per unit
Production volume 150, 000 units per year
We can't lower the variable cost. Therefore, the cost reduction must be on fixed costs.
Target cost= 500,000
Variable cost= $3*150,000 units= 450,000
Target fixed costs= 500,000 - 450,000= $50,000
Deb and Rusty know that buying a house will save them money on taxes because they get to deduct the interest they pay to the bank each year and the property taxes they pay each year. First create a separate worksheet from the amortization schedule. Title this worksheet Analysis. In this worksheet, create a column titled Income starting at $90,000 and increasing at 3% for 20 years. What is their income after 20 years
Answer:
Their income after 20 years would be 72,550 dollars.
Explanation:
The income after 20 years can easily de determin by using compounding
formula
Future Value = Present Value (1 + I)^ 20
= 90,000 (1 + 0.03)^ 20
= 162,550 dollars
Income can be determing by subtracting Pv from Fv i.e
Income = 162,550 - 90,000 = 72,550
Calculation on excel sheet
A B C D
1 90,000 1.03 = A1 * 1.03 = C1-A1
2 = D1 1.03 = A2 * 1.03 = C2-A2
20 = D19 1.03 = A20 * 1.03 = A20 - C20
* In work sheet colunm D will show income on investment.
Apply the appropriate label to each market situation. 1. Two countries agree to lower import tariffs on selected goods. (international trade) 2. A country loosens its restrictions on foreign-based land ownership. (flow of funds across national borders) 3. A nation permits private firms to compete with the state-owned mail service. (competitive markets)
Answer: 1 Bilateral trade agreement, 2. Foreign direct investment , 3. Deregulation
Explanation:
Bilateral trade agreement : This can be defined as the agreement between two countries to give each other a free access to each other market. This kind of agreement create a level playing field for the citizens of both countries to compete favourably in each other market without any form of discrimination or restriction whatsoever. The agreement is reached in order to eliminate tariff on goods coming from each other countries or to lower the tariff on goods coming from each other countries.
Foreign direct investment : This is the free movement of money from one country to another for the purpose of investment in business ventures or in properties in that country. It is the ownership of business or investment in one country by an individual or corporate body based in another country. For instance when a foreigner owns an asset such as land or building in another country or business venture.
Deregulation : This is the economic policy by which a government of a nation decides to remove the existing control or any form of regulation in the market with a view to further promote competition in the market. It applies to when a government allows a privately own business to compete in the same market with the government owned business. In this case each company's will compete favourably for its own share of the market which are previously reserved only for the government owned business to operate.
Firms HD and LD are identical except for their level of debt and the interest rates they pay on debt. HD has more debt and pays a higher interest rate on that debt. Based on the data given below, what is the difference between the two firms' ROEs?Applicable to Both Firms Firm HD Firm LDAssets $200: EBIT $40: Debt Ratio: 50% 30%Interest Rate: 12% 10%Tax Rate 35%:
Answer:
Firms HD has higher ROE than firm LD.
In details, LD's ROE = 15.79%; HD's ROE = 18.20%. So the difference between LD's ROE and HD's ROE is (2.41%) with LD has lower ratio.
Explanation:
*For firm HD:
Value of debt = 200 * 50% = 100; Value of equity = 200 - 100 = 100.
Interest expenses = 100 * 12% = $12 => EBT = 40 -12 = $28
Net income = EBT*(1 - tax rate) = 28 * (1-35%) = $18.2
ROE = net income / equity = 18.2 / 100 = 18.2% .
*For firm LD:
Value of debt = 200 * 30% = 60; Value of equity = 200 - 60 = 140.
Interest expenses = 60 * 10% = $6 => EBT = 40 -6 = $34
Net income = EBT*(1 - tax rate) = 34 * (1-35%) = $22.1
ROE = net income / equity = 22.1 / 140 = 15.79%
The difference between Firm HD's and Firm LD's ROE is 2.41%, which is calculated by first determining each firm's net income, then their equity, and finally, their ROE based on the given levels of debt and interest expense.
Explanation:The student's question is related to the calculation of the Return on Equity (ROE) for two firms with different debt structures and interest rates. To determine the difference between the two firms' ROE, one must first calculate the net income for each firm and then divide it by the firm's equity. Given the EBIT is $40, the tax rate is 35%, and the debt ratio and interest rates differ (HD: 50% at 12%, LD: 30% at 10%), we can find the interest expense for each firm and subsequently calculate the net income after taxes. Then, equity is determined as the total assets minus total debt. Finally, ROE is computed and the difference between the two firms' ROE can be determined.
Step 1: Calculate Interest Expense and Net IncomeThe difference in ROE between Firm HD and Firm LD is 18.2% - 15.79% = 2.41%.
High school football is arguably more popular in West Texas than in any other region of the country. During football season, small towns seem to shut down on Friday nights as local high school teams take to the field, and for the following week the results of the games are the talk of each town.
Taking into consideration that many of these towns are one hundred or more miles away from any medium-sized or large cities, what might be an economic explanation for the extreme popularity of high school football in these small West Texastowns?
A.Opportunity costs are relatively low.
B.Only a small share of household budgets are expended on the games.
C.Few entertainment substitutes are available.
D.All of the above are plausible.
E.A and B only.
Answer:
The answer is D. All of the above are plausible
Explanation:
A. Opportunity costs are relatively low is reasonable because as football game is taking place, most of the local people will go to the field to enjoy the field rather than spending their time at local shops/restaurants. Moreover, there are not many people from other towns visiting these facilities because of far distance.
B. is reasonable because it is high school football not professional football so the expenses spent on watching the game is low.
C. is is plausible because these towns are quite remote so watching their young neighbors/relatives playing may be one of the few entertainment choices available to them in weekend.
=> So, the answer is D.
Final answer:
High school football's popularity in small West Texas towns can be attributed to low opportunity costs, minimal impact on household budgets, and a lack of entertainment substitutes.
Explanation:
The extreme popularity of high school football in small West Texas towns can be economically explained by considering a few key factors. First, the opportunity costs for attending these games are relatively low since there are fewer entertainment options available, making football games a primary social event. Also, attending these games typically represents only a small share of household budgets, particularly in these smaller towns where there may be fewer demands on discretionary spending and where entertainment options are limited. Moreover, the lack of entertainment substitutes plays a significant role. With limited access to the broader entertainment amenities found in larger cities, local high school football games become a focal point for the community, providing entertainment as well as a sense of local pride and community identity. Thus, one could argue that all the factors mentioned contribute to the high school football's popularity, making 'D. All of the above are plausible' the most comprehensive answer.
Select the best statement about the use of Technical Reviews in the current acquisition environment. [Relate the different types of program unique specifications to their appropriate configuration baselines and technical review requirements.]
a. Technical Reviews should be tailored to assess development maturity and risk and to determine readiness to proceed to the next phase.
b. Technical Reviews waste valuable Government and contractor time and should be eliminated to allow more focus on program execution.
c. The same standard set of Technical Reviews should always be conducted on every program to ensure the PM has complete data to support decisions.
d. Technical Reviews are essential since they are vehicles for program problem solving and training new people on the details of the program.
Option A , Technical Reviews should be tailored to assess development maturity and risk and to determine readiness to proceed to the next phase.
Explanation:
By funding from the United States EPS has planned and executed the regional collaborative effort with CA Trade Agreement (CAFTA-DR) clients for Central America and the Dominican Republic to create environmental impact evaluation rules for three fields identified as priorities of our regional allies: energy, mining, and hospitality.
EPA has also coordinated the regional collaborative project. Agency for Global health.
Volume 1 provides guidance which follows globally understand elements of environmental impact assessment through the use of a glossary and references. Each EIA Technical Review Guideline consists of these components.
For various types of mining, energy and/or tourism projects for the use by t, Volume 1, Part 2 includes examples of Terms of Reference linked to Volumes 1 and 2.
Technical Reviews in the acquisition environment should be tailored to assess development maturity and risk and are essential for ensuring technical accuracy and proceeding to the next phase. They are not a waste of valuable time but rather a necessary component for quality control and informed decision-making in product development.
The use of Technical Reviews in the current acquisition environment is critical for assessing development maturity and risk, and determining readiness to proceed to the next phase. Technical Reviews should be considered as a crucial tool for quality control and validation that ensures the use of appropriate technology, and aids in effective project and requirements management. These reviews should be tailored to match the characteristics of the specific project, such as its complexity, length, and cost, rather than following a one-size-fits-all approach or being disregarded as a waste of time. They play a pivotal role not only in solving program problems but also in validating technical solutions and contributing to the knowledge base of stakeholders involved in product development.
Considering the rapid pace of product development, specifications may not always keep up, which makes subject matter experts' reviews even more important. These experts can review working models or prototypes and provide critical feedback to ensure technical accuracy and completeness. Moreover, by involving technical writers and experts in product meetings, live demonstrations, and feasibility testing, a comprehensive understanding is fostered, allowing for informed decision-making. Therefore, it is clear that the evaluations of Technical Reviews should be thoughtfully planned and executed to be both useful and practical, aligning with the unique demands of each project.
The idea of Manifest Destiny included all of the following beliefs EXCEPT:
a. Commerce and industry would decline as the nation expanded its agricultural base.
b. The use of land for settled agriculture was preferable to its use for nomadic hunting.
c. Westward expansion was both inevitable and beneficial.
d. God had selected America as a chosen land and people.
e. The ultimate extent of the American domain was to be from the tropics to the Arctic.
Answer:
(A). Commerce and industry would decline as the nation expanded its agricultural base.
Explanation:
"Manifest destiny" (coined by John Sullivan in 1845) is an idea that God has destined the United States to expand its territories and dominate the whole North American continent from the Atlantic to the Pacific.
Expansion of territory led to availability of more lands for farming and as such, agricultural expansion and increase in food supply. It also brought about an increase in commerce and industry.
Final answer:
The belief that commerce and industry would decline with national expansion is not a part of Manifest Destiny; rather, Manifest Destiny encompassed the expansion of American democratic institutions and commerce from coast to coast, the Americanization of new territories, and the divine right to expand.
Explanation:
The idea of Manifest Destiny included several core beliefs but did not suggest that commerce and industry would decline as the nation expanded its agricultural base. This notion contradicts the widely-held beliefs of the time that American expansion was about spreading and enhancing commerce and industry, not diminishing it. According to the beliefs intrinsic to Manifest Destiny, the nation's domain was to extend "from sea to shining sea", expanding democratic institutions and American values across the continent. It was believed that God had conferred upon America the right and destiny to expand its territory and influence, Americanizing the diverse populations encountered. Moreover, this expansion was seen as a way to spread freedom, with the idea that the settled agricultural use of the land was superior to nomadic hunting.
The quantity theory of money is based upon the equation of exchange and assumes that V and Q are both ________ over time..
Answer:
stable
Explanation:
The quantitative theory of money is an economic theory that aims to explain the causes of inflation, that is, the variations in prices and the value of money in a country. To explain inflation, the quantitative theory of money relates the money supply to the general price level.
An article in the New Yorker magazine states, "the main burden of trade-related job losses and wage declines has fallen on middle- and lower-income Americans. But...the very people who suffer most from free trade are often, paradoxically, among its biggest beneficiaries." Explain how it is possible that middle- and lower-income Americans are both the biggest losers and at the same time the biggest winners from free trade. Source: James Surowiecki, "The Free-Trade Paradox," New Yorker, May 26, 2008. It would be possible for middle- and lower-income Americans to be both the biggest losers and at the same time the biggest winners from free trade if they are the ones most likely to O A. work in industries that do not have an absolute advantage and purchase those goods in O B. work in industries that have a comparative advantage and purchase those goods in which O C. work in industries that produce at higher total cost than do other countries and purchase 0 D. work in industries that do not have a comparative advantage and purchase those goods in O E. work in industries that produce at higher opportunity cost than in other countries and which other countries have an absolute advantage. other countries have a comparative advantage. those goods that can be produced at lower total cost in the United States. which the United States has a comparative advantage. purchase those goods that can be produced at lower opportunity cost in other countries.
Answer:
Option E.
Explanation:
In free trade, a country with a comparative advantage in a good produces that good in the long-term. Therefore, if these people are working in an industry in which it has a higher opportunity cost i.e. it does not have a comparative advantage; they will eventually see job loss or fall in income or both. On other hand, when they purchase goods which has lower opportunity costs in foreign, they get access to these at a lower price and can purchase a higher quantity. So, these people are both harmed and benefitted by free trade.
Wozniacki and Wilcox form Jewel LLC, with Wozniacki receiving a one-half interest in the capital and Wilcox receiving a one-half interest in the capital of the LLC. (Ignore any profits interest for this problem.) Wozniacki receives his one-half interest as compensation for tax planning services he rendered prior to the formation of the LLC. Wilcox contributes $50,000 cash. The value of a one-half capital interest in the LLC (for each member) is $50,000.
a. How much income does Wozniacki recognize as a result of this transaction, and what is the character of the income?
b. How much is Wozniacki’s basis in the LLC interest?
c. How will Jewel treat this amount?
Answer and Explanation:
a. $50,000 compensation income (As it is already mentioned that Wozniacki receives the money for tax planning service prior to the formation of the LLC as compensation.
b. $50,000 (For each member it is $50,000. Therefore, for Wozniacki it will be also be $50,000)
c. As a business deduction (due to partnership) Wozniacki and Wilcox have formed Jewel LLC, therefore, distribution is a business deduction in the form of payments to both the partners.
Financial data for Joel de Paris, Inc., for last year follow: Joel de Paris, Inc. Balance Sheet Beginning Balance Ending Balance Assets Cash $ 127,000 $ 135,000 Accounts receivable 334,000 485,000 Inventory 562,000 490,000 Plant and equipment, net 827,000 780,000 Investment in Buisson, S.A. 407,000 428,000 Land (undeveloped) 245,000 252,000 Total assets $ 2,502,000 $ 2,570,000 Liabilities and Stockholders' Equity Accounts payable $ 386,000 $ 341,000 Long-term debt 1,024,000 1,024,000 Stockholders' equity 1,092,000 1,205,000 Total liabilities and stockholders' equity $ 2,502,000 $ 2,570,000 Joel de Paris, Inc. Income Statement Sales $ 4,114,000 Operating expenses 3,579,180 Net operating income 534,820 Interest and taxes: Interest expense $ 122,000 Tax expense 203,000 325,000 Net income $ 209,820 The company paid dividends of $96,820 last year. The "Investment in Buisson, S.A.," on the balance sheet represents an investment in the stock of another company. The company's minimum required rate of return of 15%. Required: 1. Compute the company's average operating assets for last year. 2. Compute the company’s margin, turnover, and return on investment (ROI) for last year. (Round "Margin", "Turnover" and "ROI" to 2 decimal places.) 3. What was the company’s residual income last year?
Answer:
See Explanation.
Explanation:
1.
Lets compute the average operating assets first.
Avg Operating assets
= Opening Operating Assets + Closing Operating assets / 2
We assume that Investment in Buisson and undeveloped land did not contribute in operating income and thus are omitted from our calculations.
Opening Operating Assets = 127000+334000+562000+827000=$1,850,000
Closing Operating Assets=135000+485000+490000+780000=$1,890,000
Avg operating assets = 1850000 + 1890000 / 2 = $1,870,000
2.
Margin = Net operating Income / Total Turnover
Margin = 534,820 / 4,114,000 = 0.13 or 13%
Turnover on assets = Sales / Average operating assets
Turnover on assets = 4,114,000 / 1,870,000 = 2.2
ROI = NP after Interest and Tax / Avg Total investment
Avg total investment = (Op+Cl/2)
ROI = 209,820 / (2502,000+2570,000/2) = 0.0827 or 8.27%
3.
Residual Income = Net income - ( Minimum ROR * Common equity value)
For Common equity value we take the closing value.
Residual Income = 209,820 - (0.15 * 1,205,000)
Residual Income = 209820 - 180750 = $29,070
Note: Sometimes there are slight variations in formula elements used for calculation.
Hope that helps.
Lexington Company sells product 1976NLC for $50 per unit. The cost of one unit of 1976NLC is $45, and the replacement cost is $43. The estimated cost to dispose of a unit is $10, and the normal profit is 40%.
At what amount per unit should product 1976NLC be reported, applying lower-of-cost-or-market?
a. $20.
b. $40.
c. $43.
d. $45.
Answer:
b. $40.
Explanation:
We select the lower of each of the following for reporting purposes.
Cost = $45
Replacement cost = $43
Neat realizable value = Selling price - disposal and completion costs
NRV = 50 - 10 = $40
We use lower of the values to take into account obsolete inventory or deterioration of inventory and as such the lowest of NRV is used for recording purposes.
Hope that helps.
A comprehensive or overall formal plan for a business that includes specific plans for expected sales, the units of product to be produced, the merchandise or materials to be purchased, the expenses to be incurred, the long-term assets to be purchased, and the amounts of cash to be borrowed or loans to be repaid, as well as a budgeted income statement and balance sheet, is called a________________.
Answer: Master Budget
Explanation:
Master budget is basically refers to the business budget strategy in which the organization preparing all the financial plans and include all the financial related statement.
The master budget is one of the most expensive business strategy which include various types of promotional levels, expected sales in the future and the capital investment.
The main purpose of the master budget is that it provide specific details about the costs and the production target. Therefore, Master budget is the correct answer.
In 2017, Coronado Industries, issued for $103 per share, 95000 shares of $100 par value convertible preferred stock. One share of preferred stock can be converted into three shares of Coronado's $20 par value common stock at the option of the preferred stockholder. In August 2018, all of the preferred stock was converted into common stock. The market value of the common stock at the date of the conversion was $25 per share. What total amount should be credited to additional paid-in capital from common stock as a result of the conversion of the preferred stock into common stock?
Answer:
$4,085,000
Explanation:
Given that,
Coronado Industries, issued for $103 per share, 95000 shares of $100 par value convertible preferred stock.
1 share of preferred stock = 3 shares of common stock ($20 par value)
Additional paid in capital:
= Preferred stock - Common stock
= [95,000 shares × $103] - [(95,000 shares × 3 shares) × $20]
= $9,785,000 - (285,000 shares × $20)
= $9,785,000 - $5,700,000
= $4,085,000
A corporation has 24 comma 000 shares of 10%, $ 60.00 par cumulative preferred stock outstanding and 37 comma 000 shares of nominuspar common stock outstanding. Preferred dividends of $ 13 comma 000 are in arrears. At the end of the current year, the corporation declares a dividend of $ 222 comma 000. How is the dividend allocated between preferred and common stockholders?
Answer:
See below.
Explanation:
Lets summarize the information first.
Cumulative preferred stock @ 10% = 24,000 * 60 = $1,440,000
Common Stock = 37,000 shares
Preferred dividend arrears = $13,000
Total Declared dividend = $222,000
Total Payable for preferred stock this year = 1,440,000*0.10 = $144,000
So total share payable to preferred stock = $144,000 + $13,000 = $157,000
Total payable to common stock holders = $222,000 - $157,000 = $65,000
Hope that helps.
What is the difference between a callable bond and a convertible bond?
Explanation:Convertible bonds. Are corporate bonds that can be converted by the holder into the common stock of the issuing company.
Callable bonds. Called provision option held by the company to repurchase the bond at specific price. Is also called redeemable bonds, jump up etc. While most callable bonds are coupon bonds.
There are no big differences between the two, convertible bonds are often callable, eg corporate bonds can be convertible/callable or the both.
A callable bond is a bond that can be called back in by the issuer prior to maturity. For example, a 10 year bond issued today could be called back in 8 years.
A convertible bond is a bond that converts into the equity of the underlying company. For example, the bond of XYZ company can be converted into the stock of XYZ company under certain conditions.
A convertible bond has the advantage in that there is upside when the owner converts into stock.
The Montauk Company has a dividend reinvestment plan in which shareholders owning 27% of its common stock participate. Last year the firm's EPS was $4.20, and its payout ratio was 60%. There are 2 million shares of common stock outstanding. How much new capital did Montauk raise through the reinvestment program?
Answer:
Total capital gain will be $1360800
Explanation:
We have given EPS = $4.20
Total number of shares = 2000000
So total Net Income = EPS x No. of shares = $4.20 x 2000000 = $8,400,000
Dividend = 60% x 8,400,000 = $5040000
25% shareholder participated in dividend reinvestment
So Capital raised = 27% x $5040000 = $1360800
So total capital gain will be $1360800
A manager wants to determine the number of containers to use for incoming parts for a kanban system to be installed next month. The process will have a usage rate of 70 pieces per hour. Because the process is new, the manager has assigned an inefficiency factor of .15. Each container holds 40 pieces and it takes an average of 45 minutes to complete a cycle.
a-1. How many containers should be used? (Round up your answer to the next whole number.) Number of containers __________a-2. As the system improves, will more or fewer containers be required?*Fewer*More
Final answer:
The manager should use 2 containers for the kanban system based on the increased usage rate due to inefficiency. As the process improves and becomes more efficient, fewer containers will be needed.
Explanation:
To calculate the number of containers needed for the kanban system, we first need to determine the demand during each cycle. The usage rate is 70 pieces per hour, but with an inefficiency factor of 0.15, this increases the usage rate to 70× (1 + 0.15) = 80.5 pieces per hour. Since each cycle takes 45 minutes, we need to find the number of pieces used per cycle, which is (80.5 pieces/hour) * (45/60 hour) = 60.375 pieces per cycle. Given that each container holds 40 pieces, we divide the total pieces per cycle by the container capacity: 60.375 pieces / 40 pieces/container = 1.509. Since we cannot have a fraction of a container, we round up to the next whole number, which gives us 2 containers required.
As the system improves, we can anticipate that the inefficiency factor will decrease, meaning fewer pieces will be needed to account for inefficiencies, and consequently, fewer containers may be required in the future.
Convertible preferred stock Valerian Corp. convertible preferred stock has a fixed conversion ratio of 5 common shares per 1 share of preferred stock. The preferred stock pays a dividend of $10.00 per share per year. The common stock currently sells for $20 per share and pays a dividend of $1.00 per share per year.
a. On the basis of the conversion ratio and the price of the common shares, what is the current conversion value of each preferred share? b. If the preferred shares are selling at $9696 each, should an investor convert the preferred shares to common shares?
c. What factors might cause an investor not to convert from preferred to common stock?
Answer:
Explanation:
a. On the basis of the conversion ratio and the price of the common shares, what is the current conversion value of each preferred share?
Conversion Value = No of Common Shares × Market Price Per Share
= 5 × $20
= $100
b. If the preferred shares are selling at $9696 each, should an investor convert the preferred shares to common shares?
Total Value of preferred Share = Share Price + Dividend Payment Per Share
= $9696 + $10
= $ 9706
Total Value of 5 Common Stock = ((Market Price of 1 Share + Dividend per Share) × 5)
= ((20 + 1) × 5)
= $ 105
No. The investor should not convert the preferred shares to common shares. This is because, the value of one preferred share exceeds the value of the converted common shares by $9601. Thus, based on the value of the converted and non-converted preferred share, the non-converted preferred share is more valuable than the converted one. Thus, the investor should not convert the preferred shares.
c. What factors might cause an investor not to convert from preferred to common stock?
If the value of the converted shares is lower than that of the original preferred share, it makes the conversion devalue an investor's overall investment value.
Additionally, if the investor is unwilling to have residual claim on profits. This is because common stockholders receive their dividends after debt and preference shareholders get their claims. Therefore, the preferred shareholder could see it best to retain their holdings as Preferred and not Common.
Final answer:
This answer explains the calculation of current conversion value, advises on whether to convert preferred shares, and discusses factors affecting an investor's decision not to convert.
Explanation:
a. Current Conversion Value: The current conversion value of each preferred share can be calculated by multiplying the price of the common shares by the conversion ratio. In this case, $20 (price of common shares) x 5 (conversion ratio) = $100.
b. Convert or Not: If the preferred shares are selling at $96.96 each and the conversion value is $100, the investor should not convert as they would lose $3.04 per share.
c. Reasons against Conversion: Factors that might deter an investor from converting from preferred to common stock include potential loss due to conversion price being higher than the current price, unfavorable market conditions, or preference for stable dividend income.
If firms in a monopolistically competitive industry are earning economic profits, then in the long run:
a. these firms can continue earning economic profits because entry into the industry is blocked.
b. new firms producing close substitutes will continue to enter the market until economic profit is zero.
c. new firms producing the exact same product will enter the industry and this entry will continue until economic profit is zero.
d. the government will most likely regulate firms in this industry to reduce the economic profits.
Answer:
The correct answer is (C)
Explanation:
If a firm in a monopolistic market is earning an economic profit, it allows other new firms producing the same product to enter the market. So, in long-run new firms will enter the market and create a competitive environment. The firms will keep on entering until every firm achieves normal profits, and till the economic profit is zero.
Griffin and Rhodes formed a partnership on January 1, 2009. Griffin contributed cash of $120,000 and Rhodes contributed land with a fair value of $160,000. The partnership assumed the mortgage on the land which amounted to $40,000 on January 1. Rhodes originally paid $90,000 for the land. On July 31, 2009, the partnership sold the land for $190,000. Assuming Griffin and Rhodes share profits and losses equally, how much of the gain from sale of land should be credited to Griffin for financial accounting purposes?
A. $0
B. $15,000
C. $35,000
D. $45,000
Answer:
correct option is B. $15,000
Explanation:
given data
contributed cash = $120,000
Fair Value of land = $160,000
originally paid = $90,000
Sale value of land = $190,000
to find out
how much of the gain from sale of land should be credited to Griffin for financial accounting purposes
solution
gain on sale is here as
gain on sale = Sale value of land - Fair Value of land -
Gain on sale of land = $190,000 - $160,000
Gain on sale of land = $30000
split the $30000 between the equal partners for a total gain credited to Griffin
total gain credited to Griffin = $15000
so correct option is B. $15,000
Your boss leaves you a note, asking you to determine the present value of a $1,200,000 payment to be made in six years assuming a discount rate of 18%. However, you misread her handwriting, and mistakenly thought the discount rate you were supposed to use was 8%. What is the dollar value of the mistake in your answer because you used the wrong discount rate?
Answer:
so value of the mistake is $311685.71
Explanation:
given data
present value = $1,200,000
time = 6 year
discount rate = 18%
discount rate = 8%
to find out
What is the dollar value of the mistake
solution
we get here present value that is express as for both rate that is
present value = [tex]\frac{FV}{(1+r)^t}[/tex]
put here value
present value = [tex]\frac{1200000}{(1+0.18)^6}[/tex]
present value 1 = $444517.85
and
present value = [tex]\frac{1200000}{(1+0.08)^6}[/tex]
present value 2 = $756203.55
so
difference is $756203.55 - $444517.85
difference is = $311685.71
so value of the mistake is $311685.71
Lindsey Hunter Corporation is authorized to issue 50,000 shares of $5 par value common stock. During 2020, Lindsey Hunter took part in the following selected transactions.
1. Issued 5,000 shares of stock at $45 per share, less costs related to the issuance of the stock totaling $7,000.
2. Issued 1,000 shares of stock for land appraised at $50,000. The stock was actively traded on a national stock exchange at approximately $46 per share on the date of issuance.
3. Purchased 500 shares of treasury stock at $43 per share. The treasury shares purchased were issued in 2016 at $40 per share. .
Instructions
(a) Prepare the journal entry to record item 1.
(b) Prepare the journal entry to record item 2.
Answer:
(a).
Dr Cash 218,000
Cr Common Stock 25,000
Cr Paid-in capital - Common stock 193,000
( to record the issuance of 5,000 share at $45 with cost of $7,000)
(b)
Dr Land appraised expenses 46,000
Cr Common stock 5,000
Cr Paid-in capital - Common stock 41,000
( to record the issuance of shares in exchange for land appraisal services at market value of shares issuance)
Explanation:
(a)
Cash receipt is 5,000 x 45 - 7,000 = $218,000; Common stock increase by Par value x stock issuance = 5 x 5,000 = $25,000; Paid-in capital increase by (45-5) x 5,000 - 7,000 = $193,000.
(b)
Common stock increase by par value x stock issuance = 1,000 x 5 = $5,000; Appraisal Expenses is increased at the market value of the shares issuance = 1,000 x 46 = $46,000; Paid-in capital account increase by the amount calculated as ( Share price - Par value) x share issuance = (46-5) x 1,000 = $41,000.
In item 1, the journal entry to record the issuance of 5,000 shares of stock at $45 per share would include a debit to Cash and a credit to both Common Stock and Additional Paid-in Capital. In item 2, the journal entry to record the issuance of 1,000 shares of stock for land appraised at $50,000 would include a debit to Land and a credit to both Common Stock and Additional Paid-in Capital.
Explanation:(a) Prepare the journal entry to record item 1:
Issued 5,000 shares of stock at $45 per share, less costs related to the issuance of the stock totaling $7,000.
DR Cash $220,000 ($45 x 5,000)
CR Common Stock $25,000 ($5 x 5,000)
CR Additional Paid-in Capital $198,000 ([$45 - $5] x 5,000 - $7,000)
(b) Prepare the journal entry to record item 2:
Issued 1,000 shares of stock for land appraised at $50,000.
DR Land $50,000
CR Common Stock $5,000
CR Additional Paid-in Capital $45,000
James Sales Company uses the retail inventory method to value its merchandise inventory. The following information is available for the current year: Cost Retail Beginning inventory$ 30,000$ 45,000 Purchases175,000240,000 Freight-in2,500- Net markups-9,500 Net markdowns-10,000 Sales revenue-205,000 If the ending inventory is to be valued at the lower-of-cost-or-market, what is the cost-to-retail ratio?
a. $207,500 ÷ $285,000
b. $207,500 ÷ $293,500
c. $207,500 ÷ $295,000
d. $207,500 ÷ $294,500
e. 205,000 ÷ $293,500
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Cost = Beginning inventory + Purchases + Freight in
= 30,000 + 175,000 + 2,500
= $207,500
Retail = Beginning inventory + Purchases + Net markups
= 45,000 + 240,000 + 9,500
= $294,500
Cost to retail ratio:
= $207,500 ÷ $294,500
= 0.7046
Therefore, the cost to retail ratio is 0.7046.
Craig bought a new boat. He made a 18% down payment. He financed the rest through his bank for 4 years. His bank charged 4% per year compounded monthly and his monthly payments were $500. What was the original price of the boat?
Answer:
$27,005.62
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Down payment made = 18%
Monthly payment = $500
Interest rate, i = 4% per year compounded monthly
Time = 4 years
Now,
Present value of annuity = Monthly payment × [tex]\left[ \frac{1-(1+i)^{-n}}{i} \right][/tex]
n = number of periods
Here,
number of periods , n = 4 × 12 = 48 months
Interest rate per period, i = 0.04 ÷ 12 = 0.003333
on substituting the values
Present value of annuity = $500 × [tex]\left[ \frac{1-(1+0.003333)^{-48}}{ 0.003333 } \right][/tex]
or
Present value of annuity = $500 × [tex]\left[ \frac{1 - 1.003333^{-48}}{ 0.003333} \right] [/tex]
or
Present value of annuity = $500 × [tex]\left[ \frac{1 - 0.852384}{ 0.003333} \right][/tex]
or
Present value of annuity = $500 × 44.289229
or
Present value of annuity = $22,144.61
also,
Present value of annuity is (100% - Down payment) i.e (100% - 18%) 82% of the original price
Therefore,
Original price of the boat = $22,144.61 ÷ 82%
= $22,144.61 ÷ 0.82
= $27,005.62
The original price of Craig's boat is approximately $26,065.21.
Explanation:Craig's problem can be solved using the formula for an amortizing loan, which is expressed as:
PV = PMT / [(1 - (1 + r)^-n) / r]
, where PV is the loan amount, PMT is the monthly payment, r is the monthly interest rate, and n is the number of payments. Since Craig's monthly payment was $500 and the interest rate was 4% compounded monthly (hence, r=4/12/100=0.00333) for 4 years, or 48 months (hence, n=48). Substituting these values into the formula, we get the loan amount for the boat that Craig financed:
PV = $500 / [(1 - (1 + 0.00333)^-48) / 0.00333]
= $21,375.67. Remember, Craig made an 18% down payment, so the original price of the boat is the loan amount divided by 82% (100% - 18%) = $21,375.67 / 0.82 = $26,065.21.
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Stockholders' equity is generally classified into two major categories:
a. contributed capital and appropriated capital.
b. appropriated capital and retained earnings.
c. retained earnings and unappropriated capital.
d. earned capital and contributed capital.
Answer:
d. earned capital and contributed capital.
Explanation:
The statement of stockholder's equity comprises common stock, preferred stock , and retained earnings.
The ending balance of retained earning = Beginning balance of retained earnings + net income - dividend paid
And, the ending balance of the common stock = Beginning balance of common stock + issued shares
The contributed capital comprises of common stock and the preferred stock whereas the earned capital includes retained earnings
Stockholders' equity is classified into two major categories: contributed capital and retained earnings, corresponding to the money from share investments and reinvested profits, respectively.
Explanation:Stockholders' equity is typically divided into two major categories: contributed capital and retained earnings. Therefore, the correct answer is letter d: earned capital and contributed capital. Contributed capital represents the money that shareholders invest directly in the company by purchasing shares of stock, which can be described as a firm's claim on partial ownership divided into individual portions. Retained earnings, on the other hand, are the cumulative profits that a corporation has earned and reinvested in the business rather than paid out as dividends to shareholders. Retained earnings can be accumulated through several means, including early-stage investors, reinvesting profits, borrowing through banks or bonds, and selling stock in the form of an initial public offering (IPO).
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For the current year, Klay Corporation reports the following information:
Net cash inflows from investing activities: $ 40,000
Net cash inflows from financing activities: $ 45,000
Cash at the beginning of the year: $ 340,000
Cash at the end of the year: $ 420,000
What was the company’s cash flows from operating activities?
A cash inflow of $5,000
A cash inflow of $15,000
A cash outflow of $5,000
A cash outflow of $15,000
Answer:
A cash outflow of $5,000
Explanation:
the sum of cash flows from the operating, investing and financing activities must equal the net change in cash during the period
The company’s cash outflows from operating activities is $5,000.
Particulars Amount
Cash at the end of the year $420,000
Less: Net cash inflows from investing activities ($40,000)
Less: Net cash inflows from financing activities ($45,000)
Less: Cash at the beginning of the year ($340,000)
Cash outflows from operating activities $5,000
In conclusion, the Correct Option is C. because the company’s cash outflows from operating activities is $5,000.
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How do organizations calculate various costs, and what do these calculations mean to business?
Answer:
See the explanation section
Explanation:
Organizations calculate various costs with the help of the weighted average cost of capital. It is a significant cost measurement system through which organizations can calculate the cost of debt after tax, cost of new equities, cost of existing equities, and cost of preferred shares. WACC can be a benchmark for the organization. A firm needs to know those costs because it can make sure that whether those projects are running smoothly to continue or running worse to reject.
Another significant cost measurement method is the net present value. With the help of NPV, a business can make sure about a project to accept it or reject it.
Martha and Lew are married taxpayers with $400 of foreign tax withholding from dividends in a mutual fund. They have enough foreign income from the mutual fund to claim the full $400 as a foreign tax credit. Their tax bracket is 24 percent and they itemize deductions. Should they claim the foreign tax credit or a deduction for foreign taxes on their Schedule A?
Martha and Lew should claim the foreign tax credit instead of the deduction, as it would provide a greater tax benefit given their 24 percent tax bracket.
Explanation:Martha and Lew need to decide between taking the foreign tax credit or claiming a deduction for foreign taxes paid on their Schedule A. Given that they are in the 24 percent tax bracket and itemize deductions, the better choice would usually be to claim the foreign tax credit. This is because a credit reduces their tax liability dollar-for-dollar, making it more valuable than a deduction which only reduces the amount of income subject to tax. Therefore, if they have enough foreign income to claim the full $400 as a credit, it would typically provide a greater tax benefit than a deduction.
Explain the ways in which Fiscal Policy and Monetary Policy interact by using Keynesian IS and LM curves. Discuss the impact of an expansionary Fiscal Policy and Monetary Policy on the overall level of economic activity. Include the conditions in which Monetary Policy would have a greater influence on GDP growth and the conditions in which Fiscal Policy would have a greater influence on GDP growth.
Answer and Explanation:
If demand is greater than supply, then there is inflation. Hence, the government has to devaluate its currency on net borrowings from abroad. Supply increases and price becomes stable.
The banks have to lower their bank rate and decrease CRR. When prices rise, consumption decreases and investment increases. When the interest rate is made high consumption and investment both become stable. Hence, there is full employment. Government has a fiscal policy to increase taxes and borrowings and increase the export and income rises and price becomes stable.
If the accountant forgets to adjust the Prepaid Expenses account, there will be_____________.
Answer:
There will be an overstatement in income and an overstatement in current assets
Explanation:
In case an accountant forgets to adjust the prepaid expenses account for the period, the recognized expenses is understated because to adjust prepaid expenses we have to debit expenses (which will lead to an increase in recognized expenses) and credit prepaid expense account (a deduction to current asset). Failure to do so, income recognized for the period is overstated and prepaid expenses account is overstated as well.