What is the farthest distance at which a typical "nearsighted" frog can see clearly in air?

A. 12m
B. 80 m
C. 6.0m
D.17m

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: the correct option is D (17m).

Explanation: The farthest distance at which a typical "nearsighted" frog can see clearly in air is 17m.


Related Questions

For the radial speed of an astronomical object to be determined, what must the object’s spectrum contain?

Answers

Answer:

Either absorption or emission lines

Explanation:

For the radial speed of an astronomical object to be determined with a Doppler shift, what must we be able to see in the object's spectrum, Either absorption or Emission lines.

Asorption and Emission line explained below;

Absorption lines are usually seen as dark lines, or lines of reduced intensity, on a continuous spectrum. An emission line will appear in a spectrum if the source emits specific wavelengths of radiation.

To determine the radial speed of an astronomical object, its spectrum must contain Doppler-shifted lines, either redshifted or blueshifted.

The determination of an astronomical object's radial speed, which is the component of its velocity directed toward or away from the observer, relies on the observation of the Doppler effect in its spectrum. When the object is moving relative to the observer, the wavelengths of emitted light or other electromagnetic waves become shifted, either toward longer (redshift) or shorter (blueshift) wavelengths, due to the relative motion.

By analyzing the positions of spectral lines in the object's spectrum, astronomers can deduce the amount of this shift, allowing them to calculate the radial speed accurately. Redshift indicates motion away from the observer, while blueshift indicates motion towards the observer.

This technique is commonly used in astronomy to measure the motion of celestial objects, including stars, galaxies, and planets, providing valuable insights into their dynamics and interactions.

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A diode is reversed biased when the ? is connected to the negative side of the external voltage source and the ? is connected to the positive side.

Answers

Answer:

Diode is reverse biased when its negative us connected with positive terminal and positive is connected with negative terminal

Explanation:

A diode is reverse biased when the positive side of the diode is connected with the negative terminal of the voltage source

And negative side of he diode is connected with positive terminal of the diode

When diode is reverse bias there is no flow of current, as it makes barrier to the flow of current

Final answer:

A diode is reverse biased when the cathode is connected to the negative side and the anode to the positive side of the voltage source, preventing current flow by widening the depletion layer.

Explanation:

A diode is reverse biased when the cathode is connected to the negative side of the external voltage source and the anode is connected to the positive side. In this configuration, the depletion layer at the p-n junction within the diode becomes wider, which increases its resistance and allows very little to no current to flow through. This is because the electrons in the n-type material and holes in the p-type material move away from the junction, reinforcing the built-in potential barrier. Therefore, in reverse bias, the diode blocks current flow rather than allowing it.

In contrast, when the diode is forward biased, the anode is connected to the positive side and the cathode to the negative side, allowing current to flow easily through the diode. This is because the positive voltage applied to the p-type material and the negative voltage on the n-type material cause the depletion layer to narrow and the potential barrier to decrease, enabling charge carriers to flow across the junction.

A 1200-N crate rests on the floor. How much work is required to move it at constant speed (a) 5.0 m along the floor against a friction force of 230 N, and (b) 5.0 m vertically?

Answers

Final answer:

The work required to move a 1200-N crate 5.0 m along the floor against a friction force of 230 N is 1150 Joules. The work required to move it 5.0 m vertically is 6000 Joules.

Explanation:

The work required to move an object can be calculated using the formula Work = Force x Distance. Force is the total force acting on an object, and distance is the distance the force moves the object.

(a) To move a box on the ground with a friction force of 230 N, the work done can be calculated as follows:

work = friction force x distance = 230 N x 5.0 m = 1150 joules

(b) To lift the box vertically, the force required is equal to the weight of the box, i.e. H. its mass multiplied by the acceleration due to gravity. The problem, however, is the weight of the box. When the box is lifted vertically, the force is equal to the weight, i.e. 1,200 N. The work done is then calculated as follows:

work = weight x height = 1200 N x 5.0 m = 6000 joules.

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A pumpkin with a mass of 3.3 kg is launched from a catapult at an initial height of 3.8 m off the ground, with an initial speed of 13.9 m/s. What height is the pumpkin at when the speed is half its initial speed? Round your answer to 2 decimal places.

Answers

Answer:

11.2m

Explanation:

Suppose the pumpkin is launched vertically and the speed of 13.9 m/s is absolutely vertical. As the pumpkin rises up, its kinetic energy is converted to potential energy, let the reference point be the round, we can create the following equation from the law of energy conservation:

[tex] E_1 + P_1 = E_2 + P_2[/tex]

[tex] 0.5mv_1^2 + mgh_1 = 0.5mv_2^2 + mgh_2[/tex]

we can substitute [tex]g = 9.8m/s^2, v_1 = 13.9m/s, v_2 = 0.5v_1 = 0.5*13.9 = 6.95 m/s, h_1 = 3.8[/tex]

We can also divide both sides by m and 0.5

[tex]13.9^2 + 2*9.8*3.8 = 6.95^2 + 2*9.8*h_2[/tex]

[tex]19.6h_2 = 219.3875[/tex]

[tex]h_2 = 11.2m[/tex]

A toy cork gun contains a spring whose spring constant is 10.0N/m. The spring is compressed 5.00cm and then used to propel a 6.00-g cork. The cork, however, sticks to the spring for 1.00cm beyond its unstretched length before separation occurs. The muzzle velocity of this cork is:A. 1.02m/s
B. 1.41m/s
C. 2.00m/s
D. 2.04m/s
E. 4.00m/s

Answers

Answer:

The muzzle velocity of this cork is 2 m/s.                                

Explanation:

It is given that,

Spring constant of the spring, k = 10 N/m

Mass of the cork, m = 6 g = 0.006 kg

Initial position of the spring, x = 5 cm = 0.05 m

Final position of the spring, x' = 1 cm = 0.01 m

According to the law of conservation of energy, the initial potential energy of the spring is equal to the sum of final spring potential energy and the kinetic energy of cork such that,

[tex]\dfrac{1}{2}kx^2=\dfrac{1}{2}kx'^2+\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

v is the muzzle velocity of this cork.

[tex]kx^2=kx'^2+mv^2[/tex]      

[tex]v=\sqrt{\dfrac{k(x^2-x'^2)}{m}}[/tex]

[tex]v=\sqrt{\dfrac{10\times ((0.05)^2-(0.01)^2)}{0.006}}[/tex]

v = 2 m/s

So, the muzzle velocity of this cork is 2 m/s. Hence, this is the required solution.

Answer:

2 m/s

Explanation:

Spring constant, k = 10 N/m

Mass of the cork, m = 6 g = 0.006 kg

Initial position of the spring, x = 5 cm = 0.05 m

Final position of the spring, x' = 1 cm = 0.01 m

Let v be the muzzle speed of the cork.

According to the law of conservation of energy,

Initial potential energy = final potential energy + kinetic energy

0.5 x 10 x 0.05 x 0.05 = 0.5 x 10 x 0.01 x 0.01 + 0.5 x 0.006 x v²

0.0125 = 0.0005 + 0.003v²

v = 2 m/s

Thus, the muzzle speed of the cork is 2 m/s.

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened?

Answers

Answer:

Internal Oblique.

Explanation:

Lower crossed syndrome is a condition in which there are strong and weak muscles. So there is an imbalance of muscle strengths. It occurs when some muscles constanly get shortened or lengthened just like in this case internal oblique muscle got lengthened.

A person pushes horizontally with a force of 220. N on a 61.0 kg crate to move it across a level floor. The coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.270. (a) What is the magnitude of the frictional force? (b) What is the magnitude of the crate's acceleration? Use g=9.81 m/s2.

Answers

Answer:

(a) 161.57 N

(b) 0.958 m/s^2

Explanation:

Force applied, F = 220 N

mass of crate, m = 61 kg

μ = 0.27

(a) The magnitude of the frictional force,

f = μ N

where, N is the normal reaction

N = m x g = 61 x 9.81 = 598.41 N

So, the frictional force, f = 0.27 x 598.41

f = 161.57 N

(b) Let a be the acceleration of the crate.

Fnet = F - f = 220 - 161.57

Fnet = 58.43 N

According to newton's second law

Fnet = mass x acceleration

58.43 = 61 x a

a = 0.958 m/s^2

Thus, the acceleration of the crate is 0.958 m/s^2.  

Tarzan tries to cross a river by swinging from one bank to the other on a vine that is 10.0 m long. His speed at the bottom of the swing is 8.0 m/s. Tarzan does not know that the vine has a breaking strength of 1.0 x 103 N. What is the largest mass that Tarzan can have and still make it safely across the river?

Answers

Answer:61.72 kg

Explanation:

Given

Length of rope [tex]L=10 m[/tex]

Speed at bottom of swing [tex]v=8 m/s[/tex]

Breaking strength of string [tex]T=1000 N[/tex]

At bottom Point

weight is acting downward and Tension is opposing it

Thus [tex]T-mg=\frac{mv^2}{L}[/tex]

[tex]T=mg+\frac{mv^2}{L}[/tex]

[tex]1000=m(9.8+\frac{8^2}{10})[/tex]

[tex]1000=m\cdot 16.2[/tex]

[tex]m=61.72 kg[/tex]

maximum mass Tarzan can have is [tex]61.72 kg[/tex]

The  largest mass that Tarzan can have and still make it safely across the river is of 61.72 kg.

Given data:

The length of rope is, L = 10 m.

Speed at the bottom of swing is, v = 8 m/s.

Breaking strength of string is, T = 1000 N.

At the bottom point, the weight is acting downward and tension force on the string is acting upward. So, the balanced equilibrium condition is,

[tex]T - mg =\dfrac{mv^{2}}{L} \\\\T =mg+\dfrac{mv^{2}}{L} \\\\T =m(g+\dfrac{v^{2}}{L})\\\\1000 =m\times(9.8+\dfrac{8^{2}}{10})\\\\m=61.72 \;\rm kg[/tex]

Thus, we can conclude that the largest mass that Tarzan can have and still make it safely across the river is of 61.72 kg.

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When making a turn, do not have the steering wheel turned in the direction of the turn before beginning the turning maneuver.a) True b) False

Answers

Answer:

a) True.

Explanation:

If you turn the wheel in the direction of the turn before beginning the turning maneuver then it's possible that there might be not enough space available for turning and also if you are waiting for the traffic to get clear with rear  ended then it will get pushed forward onto the coming traffic.

IN this Turning in a Car question, The steering wheel of a car must be turned in the direction of the desired turn. The feeling of being flung away from the center during a turn is due to the 'centrifugal force', a result of the body's inertia.

The statement 'When making a turn, do not have the steering wheel turned in the direction of the turn before beginning the turning maneuver.' is False. When making a turn in a car, you indeed must turn the steering wheel in the direction you wish to go.

This causes the car to change its direction, following a circular path or curve. The change in direction is due to the force that you apply to the steering wheel and subsequently to the car's tires that are in contact with the road.

The force applied to the tires creates an acceleration, changing the car's velocity from straight-line motion to a curved path.

Relatedly, the sensation of being pulled or flung away from the center of the turn as you make it is described by a concept in physics called the centrifugal force.

This is not an actual force. Instead, it's a result of your body's tendency to continue in straight-line motion (according to Newton's first law of motion), while the car is changing direction.

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The deliberate radiation of electromagnetic (EM) energy to degrade or neutralize the radio frequency long-haul supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) communications links, best explains what?

Answers

Answer:

Best explains Jamming

Explanation:

The deliberate radiation of electromagnetic (EM) energy to degrade or neutralize the radio frequency long-haul supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) communications links, best explains what?

Jamming is defined as the blocking or interference with authorized wireless communications. it's a problem  in personal area network wireless technologies. Jamming can occur inadvertently due to high levels of noise .

Jammers can send radio signals to interfere or disrupt communication flows by by decreasing the signal-to-noise ratio.They use radio frequency to interfere with communications by keeping it busy.

A series RC circuit has an impedance of 525 ohms. The circuit is operating at a frequency of 2,000 Hz and a voltage of 50 VAC. What is the circuit current?

Answers

Answer:

0.095 A

Explanation:

[tex]z[/tex] = Impedance of the RC series circuit = 525 ohm

[tex]V[/tex] = Operating voltage of the circuit = 50 Volts

[tex]i[/tex] = circuit current

According to ohm's law

[tex]Current = \frac{Voltage}{Impedance}[/tex]

[tex]i = \frac{V}{z}[/tex]

Inserting the values

[tex]i = \frac{50}{525}\\i = 0.095 A[/tex]

A small pool filled only with water will require an additional 300 gallons of water in order to be filled to 80% of its capacity. If pumping in these additional 300 gallons of water will increase the amount of water in the pool by 30%, what is the total capacity of the pool in gallons?A. 1000B. 1250C. 1300D. 1600E. 1625

Answers

Answer:

E

Explanation:

Let the total capacity of the pool be x

Let the initial volume of water in the pool be y

then;

300 + y =80% of x

300 + y = (80/100) * x

300 + y = 0.8x   ...........................equation 1

300 gallons of water increased the volume by 30x

y +300 = y +30% of y

300 = 0.3y

y=  (300/0.3)

y= 1000

substitute y into equation 1 to get x

300 + y = 0.8x

300 + 1000 = 0.8x

1300 =0.8x

x= (1300/0.8)

x= 1625 gallons

An 8.31-m, 267-N uniform ladder rests against a smooth (frictionless) wall. The coefficient of static friction between the ladder and the ground is 0.582, and the ladder makes a 52.6? angle with the ground. A 928 N person is standing on the ladder a distance d from the bottom end of the ladder.
(a) Draw a free-body diagram of the ladder. (Turn in part (a) on the sheet provided in your packet.)
(b) How far up the ladder (distance d) can the person climb before the ladder begins to slip? Hint: Among other things, you may want to look at the sum of the torques about the point where the ladder touches the wall. Be careful with angles! ___________ m ( ± 0.02 m)

Answers

Final answer:

To determine how far up the ladder a person can climb before the ladder begins to slip, we need to consider the forces and torques acting on the ladder. The condition for the ladder to begin slipping is when the torque due to the person's weight is greater than the torque due to the static friction force.

Explanation:

To determine how far up the ladder a person can climb before the ladder begins to slip, we need to consider the forces and torques acting on the ladder. The forces include the normal reaction force from the floor, the static friction force between the ladder and the floor, the weight of the ladder, and the normal reaction force from the wall. The torques are calculated by multiplying the force by the lever arm, which in this case is the distance between the center of mass of the ladder and the point of contact with the floor.

The condition for the ladder to begin slipping is when the torque due to the person's weight is greater than the torque due to the static friction force. We can calculate the torque due to the person's weight by multiplying the person's weight by the distance between their position on the ladder and the point of contact with the floor. Next, we calculate the torque due to the static friction force by multiplying the static friction force by the distance between the point of contact with the floor and the point of contact with the wall.

Setting these two torques equal to each other and solving for the distance d yields the distance up the ladder that the person can climb before it begins to slip.

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A tuning fork with a frequency of 512 Hz is used to tune a violin. When played together, beats are heard with a frequency of 4 Hz. The string on the violin is tightened and when played again, the beats have a frequency of 2 Hz. The original frequency of the violin was ______.

Answers

Final answer:

The original frequency of the violin was 508 Hz. This is based on the principle of beats, where the beat frequency is the absolute difference in frequency between the two sources - in this case, the tuning fork and the violin string.

Explanation:

The original frequency of the violin string can be found using the principle of beats. The frequency of the beats is equal to the absolute difference in frequency between the two sources - in this case, the tuning fork and the violin string.

Initially, the beat frequency was heard as 4 Hz. This indicates that the original frequency of the violin was either 512 Hz + 4 Hz = 516 Hz, or 512 Hz - 4 Hz = 508 Hz. However, when the violin string was tightened, the beat frequency decreased to 2 Hz, which means the frequency of the note it was producing increased.

Therefore, the violin must have initially been producing a note with lower frequency (508 Hz), and even after tightening the string, the note it now produces (510 Hz) remains lower than that of the tuning fork.

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If the CR enters at a point 3/4" anterior and 3/4" superior to the E.A.M., what structure would be visualized?

Answers

Answer:

Sella Turcica

Explanation:

The sella turcica (also called the hypophyseal fossa or pituitary fossa) is a mid-line saddle-shaped depression in the sphenoid bone and belongs to the middle cranial fossa and it can be located by centering the CR (central ray) at a point 3/4" anterior and 3/4" superior to the E.A.M. (external auditory meatus).

When the moving sidewalk at the airport is broken, as it often seems to be, it takes you 44 s to walk from your gate to baggage claim. When it is working and you stand on the moving sidewalk the entire way, without walking, it takes 90 s to travel the same distance

Answers

Answer:

a) 29.55 sec

Explanation:

Let the total distance be s feet.

Speed while walking = s/44 ft/sec.

Speed on sidewalk = s/90 ft/sec.

Total speed while walking on moving sidewalk

= s/44+s/90 = (90s+44s)/44×90

=(134x)/3960 ft/sec

= x/29.55 ft per sec.

Hence your travel time will be 29.55 secs.

Water has a high heat capacity. What does this term mean? a) Water is relatively resistant to an increase in temperature. b) Water heats up or cools down readily c) Water provides a useful source of stored kilocalories. d) Water provides excellent insulation for the body.

Answers

Answer:a) Water is relatively resistant to an increase in temperature

Explanation:

Water has relatively high heat capacity i.e. it requires high amount of heat to raise a little increase in temperature.

Heat capacity is defined as ability of molecule to absorb heat . Mathematically heat capacity is defined as

[tex]C=\frac{Q}{\Delta T}[/tex]

where [tex]C=heat\ capacity[/tex]

[tex]Q=heat\ interaction[/tex]

[tex]\Delta T=change\ in\ Temperature[/tex]

An object is moving with the speed of light around the Earth. How much time will it take to complete one round trip along the equator on the surface of earth if radius of earth is 6400km

Answers

Answer:

0.14 seconds

Explanation:

The speed of light in vacuum is approximately 3.0*10^8. The distance that would be covered by the object would be equivalent to the circumference of the cross-section of the earth on the equator.

Circumference = 2[tex]\pi[/tex]*6400000 =4.02*10^7

Time = distance/speed = 4.2*10^7 / 3.0*10^8 =0.14s

One light-hour is the distance that light travels in an hour. How far is this, in kilometers? (Recall that the speed of light is 300,000 km/s.) _______A) 18 million kmB) 1.08 billion kmC) 300,000 kmD) 9.46 trillion kmE) 100 million km

Answers

Answer:

B 1.08 BILLION

Explanation:

SEE ATTACHMENT

A ball is thrown straight up at 20 m. What is the balls velocity as it hits the ground?

Answers

Answer:

The velocity of the ball as it hit the ground = 19.799 m/s

Explanation:

Velocity: Velocity of a body can be defined as the rate of change of displacement of the body. The S.I unit of velocity is m/s. velocity is expressed in one of newtons equation of motion, and is given below.

v² = u² + 2gs.......................... Equation 1

Where v = the final velocity of the ball, g = acceleration due to gravity, s = the height of the ball

Given: s = 20 m, u = 0 m/s

Constant: g = 9.8 m/s²

Substituting these values into equation 1,

v² = 0 + 2×9.8×20

v² = 392

v = √392

v = 19.799 m/s.

Therefore the velocity of the ball as it hit the ground = 19.799 m/s

Marcel is helping his two children, Jacques and Gilles, to balance on a seesaw so that they will be able to make it tilt back and forth without the heavier child, Jacques, simply sinking to the ground. Given that Jacques, whose weight is W, is sitting at distance L to the left of the pivot, at what distance L₁ should Marcel place Gilles, whose weight is w, to the right of the pivot to balance the seesaw?
Express your answer in terms of L, W and ω.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Given

Jacques weight is W and is at  distance of L to the left

Gilles weight is [tex]\omega [/tex] and should be Placed at right at a distance of [tex]L_1[/tex] from pivot

Distance should be such that the torque of Jacques and Gilles is same in magnitude but opposite in direction.

[tex]W\times L-\omega \times L_1=0[/tex]

such that net torque is zero.

[tex]L_1=\frac{W}{\omega }\times L[/tex]  

Final answer:

To balance the seesaw, the product of the weight of Jacques and the distance he is sitting from the pivot must be equal to the product of the weight of Gilles and the distance he should sit from the pivot.

Explanation:

To balance the seesaw, the product of the weight of Jacques and the distance he is sitting from the pivot must be equal to the product of the weight of Gilles and the distance he should sit from the pivot.

So, we can write the equation as:

W * L = w * L₁

To find L₁, we can rearrange the equation:

L₁ = (W * L) / w

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Which of the following energy systems is used most when running a 10-second sprint?

Answers

Answer:

Adenosine Triphosphate - Phosphocreatine (ATP-PC)

Explanation:

The name ATP-PC in full means Adenosine Triphosphate - Phosphocreatine (ATP-PC). ATP-PC system is made up Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) and  Phosphocreatine (PC). This system is otherwise known as the Phosphogen system. Energy coming from the breakdown of the ATP stores within the muscles supplies energy during the first few seconds of any activity after which the breakdown of PC provides energy for another 5-8 seconds of the activity until another energy is required. ATP-PC system is not oxygenated and it is and instant energy which allows ±12 seconds of maximum effort approximately.  Examples of activities where ATP-PC is used: a short sprint, pitching a baseball or lifting a heavy weight.

A diver rises quickly to the surface from a 5.0 m depth. If she did not exhale the gas from her lunds before rising, by what factor would her lungs expand? Assume the temperature to be constant and the pressure in the lungs to match the pressure outside the diver's body. The density of seawater is 1.03x!0^3 kg.

Answers

Answer:

1.5 times

Explanation:

[tex]h[/tex] = depth of the diver initially = 5 m

[tex]\rho[/tex] = density of seawater = 1030 kg m⁻³

[tex]P_{i}[/tex] = Initial pressure at the depth

[tex]P_{f}[/tex] = final pressure after rising = 101325 Pa

Initial pressure at the depth is given as

[tex]P_{i} = P_{f} + \rho gh\\P_{i} = 101325 + (1030) (9.8) (5)\\P_{i} = 151795 Pa[/tex]

[tex]V_{i}[/tex] = Initial volume at the depth

[tex]V_{f}[/tex] = Final volume after rising

Since the temperature remains constant, we have

[tex]P_{f} V_{f} = P_{i} V_{i}\\(101325) V_{f} = (151795) V_{i}\\V_{f} = 1.5 V_{i}[/tex]

Final answer:

Using Boyle's law, the volume of gas in the diver's lungs would expand by a factor of 1.5 when a diver quickly rises to the surface from a 5m depth. This implies the lungs could potentially double in size if the diver does not exhale gas while ascending.

Explanation:

In this scenario, we can use Boyle's law to answer the question accurately, which is an important principle in Physics that states that the pressure and volume of a gas have an inverse relationship when the temperature is held constant. To be specific, if a diver is at 5m below the sea level, he or she is under 1.5 atmospheres of pressure, including the sea pressure and atmospheric pressure (1 ATA). When the diver rises to the surface, there's only 1 ATA of pressure left, which is the atmospheric pressure.

The volume of gas in the diver's lungs would thus double by a factor of (1.5/1) = 1.5 when he or she ascends quickly to the surface from a 5m depth, according to Boyle's law. This is a simplified explanation without considering the temperature changes or the gas involved, always remember to exhale while rising to the surface to avoid potential lung damage.

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A certain piece of metal (density 9.45 grams per cubic centimeter) has the shape of a hockey puck with a diameter of 13 cm and a height of 2.8 cm. If this puck is placed into a bowl of mercury (density 13.6 grams per cubic centimeter), it floats. How deep below the surface of the mercury is the bottom of the metal puck?

Answers

Answer:

0.0195 m

Explanation:

[tex]\rho _{p}[/tex] = density of hockey puck = 9.45 gcm⁻³ = 9450 kgm³

[tex]d_{p}[/tex] = diameter of hockey puck = 13 cm = 0.13 m

[tex]h_{p}[/tex] = height of hockey puck = 2.8 cm = 0.028 m

[tex]\rho _{m}[/tex] = density of mercury = 13.6 gcm⁻³ = 13600 kgm³

[tex]d[/tex] = depth of puck below surface of mercury

According to Archimedes principle, the weight of puck is balanced by the weight of mercury displaced by puck

Weight of mercury displaced = Weight of puck

[tex]\rho _{m} (0.25)(\pi d_{p}^{2} d ) g = \rho _{p} (0.25)(\pi d_{p}^{2} h_{p} ) g\\\rho _{m} ( d ) = \rho _{p} ( h_{p} )\\(13600) d = (9450) (0.028)\\d = 0.0195 m[/tex]

A security review has flagged this architecture as vulnerable, and a Security Engineer has been asked to make this design more secure. The company has a short deadline and a second VPN connection to the Aurora account is not possible.
How can a Security Engineer securely set up the bastion host?
A. Move the bastion host to the VPC and VPN connectivity. Create a VPC peering relationship between the bastion host VPC and Aurora VPC.
B. Create a SSH port forwarding tunnel on the Developer's workstation to the bastion host to ensure that only authorized SSH clients can access the bastion host.
C. Move the bastion host to the VPC with VPN connectivity. Create a cross-account trust relationship between the bastion VPC and Aurora VPC, and update the Aurora security group for the relationship.
D. Create an AWS Direct Connect connection between the corporate network and the Aurora account, and adjust the Aurora security group for this connection.

Answers

Answer:

Complete Question:

A company has two AWS accounts, each containing one VPC. The first VPC has a VPN connection with its corporate network. The second VPC, without a VPN, hosts an Amazon Aurora database cluster in private subnets. Developers manage the Aurora database from a bastion host in a public subnet as shown in the image.

A security review has flagged this architecture as vulnerable, and a Security Engineer has been asked to make this design more secure. The company has a short deadline and a second VPN connection to the Aurora account is not possible.

How can a Security Engineer securely set up the bastion host?

A. Move the bastion host to the VPC and VPN connectivity. Create a VPC peering relationship between the bastion host VPC and Aurora VPC.

B. Create a SSH port forwarding tunnel on the Developer's workstation to the bastion host to ensure that only authorized SSH clients can access the bastion host.

C. Move the bastion host to the VPC with VPN connectivity. Create a cross-account trust relationship between the bastion VPC and Aurora VPC, and update the Aurora security group for the relationship.

D. Create an AWS Direct Connect connection between the corporate network and the Aurora account, and adjust the Aurora security group for this connection.

Answer:

B. Create an SSH port forwarding tunnel on the Developer's workstation to the bastion host to ensure that only authorized SSH clients can access the bastion host.

Explanation:

To gain a better understanding of why the option selected in the answer to the question let first explain some terms.

AWS:

According to techtarget,

AWS (Amazon Web Services) is a comprehensive, evolving cloud computing platform provided by Amazon that includes a mixture of (1) infrastructure as a service (IaaS),(2) platform as a service (PaaS) and (3)packaged software as a service (SaaS) offerings.

An AWS account is a container for your AWS resources

A bastion host is a server whose purpose is to provide access to a private network from an external network, such as the Internet. Because of its exposure to potential attacks, a bastion host must minimize the chances of penetration to the private network.

SSH port forwarding, or TCP/IP connection tunneling, is a process whereby a TCP/IP connection that would otherwise be insecure is tunneled through a secure SSH(Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for operating network services securely over an unsecured network.) link, thus protecting the tunneled connection from network attacks.

So the Bastion protects the private network while the SSH prevent unauthorized access to the bastion

Final answer:

To securely set up the bastion host, it should be moved to the VPC with VPN connectivity. Subsequently, a cross-account trust relationship should be created between the bastion VPC and Aurora VPC, followed by updating the Aurora security group.

Explanation:

Considering the context and options given, one of the best ways to securely set up the bastion host is to follow the path described in Option C. This involves moving the bastion host to the VPC (Virtual Private Cloud) with VPN (Virtual Private Network) connectivity. Subsequently, create a cross-account trust relationship between the bastion VPC and Aurora VPC. Once this relationship is established, proceed by updating the Aurora security group for the relationship.

This setup aids in restricting access to only trusted entities and thus fortifies security. An important point to note is that the assurance of security provided by this method is largely based on proper configuration and stringent maintenance of the trust relationship and security groups.

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Visualize five horizontal sedimentary strata exposed in a cliff or canyon wall identified by consecutive numbers, 1 being the lowest bed and 5 being the highest. Which of the following statements concerning the strata are true?

a. Bed 4 is older than bed 2.
b. Bed 3 is older than beds 2 and 4.
c. Bed 5 is the oldest.
d. Beds l and 3 are older than bed 4.

Answers

Answer:

Only the 4 th statement is true that is bed 1 and 3 are older than 4.

Explanation:

The 5 beds are numbered from 1 to 5 , 1 being the lowest and 5 being the topmost bed.

We are given 4 statements and we have to find out which all are true.

(a)Bed 4 is older than bed 2

This is wrong because the lower beds are older than beds that are higher.

(b)Bed 3 is older than beds 2 and 4

This is also wrong because the 2 is older than 3

(c)Bed 5 is the oldest

This is wrong because bed 1 is the oldest

(d)Beds 1 and 3 are older than 4

This is true as lower beds are older

Answer:

bed 2 was deposited before bed 3

Explanation:

Which of the following conclusions can be made about the sedimentary layers?

bed 2 was deposited after bed 3

bed 1 is the youngest

bed 3 was deposited before bed 1

bed 2 was deposited before bed 3

A particle of charge q is fixed at point P, and a second particle of mass m and the same charge q is initially held a distance r1 from P. The second particle is then released. Determine its speed when it is a distance r2 from P. Let q = 3.1 µC, m = 47 mg, r1 = 0.83 mm, and r2 = 2.5 mm.
_________m/s

Answers

Answer:

v=1617.77m/s

Explanation:

A particle of charge q is fixed at point P, and a second particle of mass m and the same charge q is initially held a distance r1 from P. The second particle is then released. Determine its speed when it is a distance r2 from P. Let q = 3.1 µC, m = 47 mg, r1 = 0.83 mm, and r2 = 2.5 mm.

_________m/s

from the law of applied electric force which states that the force of attraction of electric charge particles is directly proportional to the two charge particles and inversely proportional to the square of their distances apart

dk= -dU

kinetic energy equals potential energy

[tex]\frac{1}{2} mv^{2} -\frac{1}{2} mu^{2} =-(\frac{kq^2}{r2} -\frac{kq^2}{r1} )[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{2} 47*10^-6v^{2} -\frac{1}{2} 47*10^-6*0^{2} =-(\frac{9*10^9*(3.1*10^-6)^2}{(2.5*10^-3)} -\frac{9*10^-9*(3.1*10-6)^2}{0.83*10^-3} )[/tex]

23.5*10^-6v^2=96.1-34.596)

v^2=61.504/23.5*10^-6)

v^2=2617191.48

v=1617.77m/s

v=1.617km/s

A particle of charge q is fixed at point P, and a second particle of mass m and the same charge q is initially held a distance r1 from P. The second particle is then released. Determine its speed when it is a distance r2 from P. Let q = 3.1 µC, m = 47 mg, r1 = 0.83 mm, and r2 = 2.5 mm.

v=1617.77m/s.

Charge refers to a fundamental property of matter that determines how it interacts with electric and magnetic fields. It is one of the basic building blocks of nature and comes in two types: positive and negative.

The concept of charge is closely related to the phenomenon of electricity. Electric charge is responsible for the creation and interaction of electric fields, which can exert forces on other charged objects. Like charges repel each other, while opposite charges attract each other.

Protons, which carry a positive charge, have a charge of +e, while electrons, which carry a negative charge, have a charge of -e.

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All of the orbitals in a given subshell have the same value as the ________ quantum number.
A) principal
B) spin
C) magnetic
D) A and B
E) B and C

Answers

Answer:

The given subshell have the same value as the spin quantum number and principal quantum number. Option D is correct.

Explanation:

Every shell has some orbitals. For example, 1st shell has only s-orbital, 2nd shell has s and p-orbitals, 3rd shell has s, p and d-orbitals, 4th shell has s, p, d and f-orbitals.

Now, every orbital has a fix number of subshells. s-orbital has 1 subshell, p-orbital has 3 subshells, d-orbital has 5 subshells, and f-orbital has 7 subshells.

Every subshell of the orbital has same principal quantum number because it is associated with the same shell. Magnetic quantum of every subshell of any orbital is different as it specifies the subshells. And the spin quantum number can be [tex]+1/2 \texttt{ or }-1/2[/tex] based on the spin of the electrons. Every subshell contains two electrons with both the opposite spins.

Let's take an example of 4f-orbital.

Here, the principal quantum number for all the subshells will be 4. The magnetic quantum number will vary from -3 to +3. Every subshell can has two electrons of spin quantum number [tex]+1/2 \texttt{ or }-1/2[/tex].

Therefore, a given subshell have the same value as the spin quantum number and principal quantum number. Option D is correct.

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Because Earth is rotating, horizontal winds everywhere except at the equator are deflected to the right or left relative to Earth's surface. This so-called Coriolis Effect arises because the air is moving over a surface which itself is continually turning because of Earth's rotation. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis Effect causes wind blowing toward the west to turn toward the___________.

Answers

Answer:

Because Earth is rotating, horizontal winds everywhere except at the equator are deflected to the right or left relative to Earth's surface. This so-called Coriolis Effect arises because the air is moving over a surface which itself is continually turning because of Earth's rotation. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis Effect causes wind blowing toward the west to turn toward the North Western.

Your on-board GPS-based FMS/RNAV unit is IFR certified under TSO-C129() or TSO-C196(). Your destination is below minimums for the GPS RNAV approach and you proceed to your filed alternate. You know that:________.A. GPS units certified under TSO-C129() or TSO-C196() are not authorized for alternate approach requirements; subsequently, you must use an approach procedure based on ground-based NAVAIDsB. Once diverted to the alternate airport, you may fly a GPS-based approach as long as there is an operational ground-based NAVAID and appropriate airborne receiver for use as a backupC. If your air-craft is equipped with a second TSO-C129() certified GPS as a backup in place of a ground-based NAVAID receiver, you may complete the approach even if the IAP is based on ground-based NAVAIDs

Answers

Answer:

B. Once diverted to the alternate airport,you may fly a GPS-based approach as long as there is an operational ground-based NAVAID and appropriate airborne receiver for use as a backup.

Explanation:

As stated in the question, If someone is on-board GPS-based FMS/RNAV unit, and the destination is the minimum target, it is obvious that once diverted to the alternate airport,you may fly a GPS-based approach as long as there is an operational ground-based NAVAID and appropriate airborne receiver for use as a backup. The correct answer is option B.

GPS-based FMS/RNAV units can be used for approach procedures at the alternate airport, as long as there is a ground-based NAVAID and an appropriate airborne receiver available.

The subject of this question is Computers and Technology. The question is about the requirements for using a GPS-based FMS/RNAV unit for approach procedures.

The correct answer is B. Once diverted to the alternate airport, you may fly a GPS-based approach as long as there is an operational ground-based NAVAID and appropriate airborne receiver for use as a backup.

Therefore, as long as there is a ground-based NAVAID available and an appropriate backup receiver, you can use the GPS-based approach at the alternate airport.

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