Answer:
Secondary response and primary response.
Explanation:
Vaccination utilises this secondary response by exposing the body to the antigens of a particular pathogen and activates the immune system without causing disease. The initial response to a vaccine is similar to that of the primary response upon first exposure to a pathogen, slow and limited.
The use of fossil fuels to produce, process, and transport food contributes to __________.
Answer:
Green house effects
Explanation:
This is when gases are trapped in the earth's atmosphere and make the earth warmer
You have revised your budget so that your
entertainment expenses have been replaced.
Now, you need to revise your budget to meet your
long-term goal of saving $4.500. You will need to
increase your savings to $300 month.
How will you revise your budget to meet this goal?
Answer: sample
Explanation: I will reduce my discretionary spending to $165 in order to increase my savings budget to $300. This will allow me to meet my long-term goal, while also letting me keep some discretionary spending each month.
Active individuals involved in moderate intensity exercise do not benefit from nutritional supplementation to reduce susceptibility to illness.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
One of the main premises in the study of the immunology of exercise is the possible role that exercise or physical activity may have in both prevention and cure of diseases; and, specifically, in the chronic and acute responses of the immune system to exercise.
The _____ is a collection of highly branched neurons scattered throughout the brainstem.
Final answer:
The reticular formation is a network of neurons within the brainstem that filters incoming stimuli and is involved in several bodily functions. Thus the statement is - The reticular formation is a collection of highly branched neurons scattered throughout the brainstem.
Explanation:
The reticular formation is a collection of highly branched neurons scattered throughout the brainstem. Running through the medulla and the pons, its main functions include filtering stimuli from the spinal cord, relaying signals to other brain areas, and playing essential roles in various bodily processes such as walking, eating, sexual activity, and sleeping. Moreover, the reticular formation collects input from higher brain centers and passes it on to motor neurons. The brainstem, consisting of the midbrain, medulla oblongata, and the pons, is extremely significant as it controls vital bodily functions including alertness, arousal, breathing, blood pressure, digestion, heart rate, swallowing, and integrates sensory and motor information.
Consistently eating too many high-protein foods can lead to a higher risk for ________.
A) marasmusB) type 1 diabetesC) kwashiokorD) heart disease, kidney problems, and calcium loss from bones
Answer Heart disease, kidney problems, and calcium loss from bones
Explanation:
High protein diet does not have any effect on healthy kidney, but have a significant effect on damaged kidney. This is because of the high workload in removing excess urea and nitrogen contained by- products produced from the metabolized protein in the kidney, by the already inefficient Nephron..
Trimethylamine N-oxide (TMAO) is a chemical compound produced in the gut. It is linked to heart diseases. Consumption of red meat for a long period of time increases the concentration of these chemical compound in the gut; with high incidence of coronary diseases.
High protein diet increases the acid levels of the blood plasma. the low body pH causes rapid withdrawal of calcium from the bone to neutralize the acidity leading to low bone calcium concentration, and therefore Osteoporosis.
Which of the following is not a health-related component of physical fitness?
Since the options are not given the question is incomplete.
Which of the following is not a health related component of fitness?
A). Body composition
B). Flexibility
C). Muscular strength and endurance
D). Stress management
Answer: Stress management
Explanation:
Fitness in terms of health is associated with physical fitness. The physical fitness involves the dynamics of working and functioning of the physical body. This is associated with composition of the body, body shape, weight regulation, flexibility, strength and endurance required to perform a task and other physical attributes.
The stress management is related with mental fitness. It helps in reducing mental stress and improving thinking abilities, which can help in overcoming stress.
Skill-related fitness components such as agility and coordination are not considered health-related components of physical fitness; those relate more to athletic abilities than to basic health.
Explanation:The health-related components of physical fitness typically include cardiovascular endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, and body composition. A factor that is not considered a health-related component of physical fitness would be skill-related abilities such as agility, balance, coordination, power, speed, and reaction time. These skill-related components are associated more with athletic performance rather than basic health. Therefore, an answer to the question 'Which of the following is not a health-related component of physical fitness?' would be any of these skill-related abilities.
Understand that physical exercise plays a critical role in maintaining each of these health-related fitness components. It helps reduce disease risk and improves overall health by increasing cardiovascular and muscular fitness, increasing bone density and strength, improving cognitive function, and assisting in weight management.
The pharmacology instructor is discussing cardiac glycosides with a class of pre-nursing students. According to the instructor, what physiologic effect do cardiac glycosides trigger?
Answer:
Increased force of heart contraction.
Explanation:
Pharmacology may be defined as the branch of the pharmaceutical science that are mainly concerned with drug action. The drug can be natural or the man-made type.
Cardiac glycosides are the organic compounds that mainly works with the increase in the output force of the heart. This increases the rate of the heart contractions and mainly acts on the sodium potassium ATPase pump in the cells.
Thus, the answer is increased force of heart contraction.
Alicia's goal is to become a world-class endurance athlete. She trains aerobically for at least 90 minutes daily. She weighs 60 kg. Based on this information, what is the minimum number of kilocalories she needs to consume daily to maintain her body weight while in training?
Answer:
2700
Explanation:
It is important to maintain healthy eating when exercising, this is because if you lose more calories than you take in, you are at a deficit, meaning you are losing weight. Simultaneously, if you eat the same amount of calories you burn, you will maintain your weight.
(60 kg x 90 minutes/day) / 2
= 5400 / 2
= 2700
25 POINTS!! HELP ASAP
write in your own words
Describe 2 steps someone can take to reduce risks from stress.
Answer:
Find good hobbies and organize your time wisely
Explanation:
1. Finiding a good hobby like listening to music, reading a book and more is scientifically proven to reduce stress and improve cognitive performance during tasks and work
2. Organizing your schedule is important as you generally dont want to cramp all of your tasks together so you have to finish them all at once. Try to do one assignment/task for an hour or so, take a break for 5 or 10 minutes, then keep going!
A laboring client who is positive for Group B Streptococcus is given an initial dose of ampicillin (Omipen) 2 g at 9 am. According to established guidelines for intrapartum management of this client, the next dose should be:__________1. 2 g given at 10 am2. 1 g given at 11 am3. 2 g given at noon4. 1 g given at 1 pm
Answer:
1 g given at 1 PM
Explanation:
Charles Spearman believed that _____ was/were responsible for overall performance on mental ability tests.
Answer:Charles Spearman believed that
general intelligence, or the G FACTOR
was/were responsible for overall performance on mental ability tests.
Explanation:Charles Spearman was an English psychologist known to propose the theory of intelligence. He proposed that an underlying factor of general intelligence exists that forms the foundation out of which all intellectual abilities rise( the G factor).
The nurse educator is describing the yin and yang theory of the ancient Chinese philosophy of Tao to a group of nursing students. The nurse educator explains that in this theory, foods are classified as hot and cold and are transformed into yin and yang energy when metabolized by the body. The nursing student understands this theory when the student makes which statement?
Answer:
Continue with the instructions, verifying client understanding.
Explanation:
A correct understanding of the yin and yang theory in the context of health and dietary choices involves recognizing the importance of balancing these complementary energies for maintaining health.
Explanation:The nurse educator is describing the yin and yang theory of the ancient Chinese philosophy of Tao to a group of nursing students, explaining that foods are classified as hot and cold and are transformed into yin and yang energy when metabolized by the body.
The correct understanding of this theory by a nursing student would be acknowledged when the student makes the statement that acknowledges the importance of maintaining a balance between yin (cold) and yang (hot) energies through dietary choices to ensure health and well-being. This understanding reflects the principle that achieving harmony between these two complementary energies is essential for physical and emotional health, according to traditional Chinese medicine which views health as the result of balancing these opposite but complementary forces.
Tessa and Noah are looking to buy their first house. Their real estate agent takes them to one house that strongly smells of cigarette smoke and cat urine. They both are disgusted by the smells and immediately exit the house. If the electrical activity of the brain were measured while they were having this negative emotion, then:
Answer:
If the electrical activity of the brain were measured while they were having this negative emotion, then their right prefrontal cortex are more electrically active.
Explanation:
The brain controls many of the actions that people do. It is regarded as the most important organ in a person. When it comes to the positive and negative emotions of a person, the "prefrontal" part of the brain plays a vital role. The right prefrontal cortex governs negative behaviors and feelings while the left prefrontal cortex governs positive behavior and feelings.
It is clearly stated that Tessa and Noah were immediately disappointed by the strong smell of cigarette smoke and cat urine in the house, that they decided to leave. This means that they were having a negative emotion, which in turn proves that the right prefrontal cortex is more electrically active at that moment.
It is common to have an unbalanced electrical activity between the right prefrontal cortex and the left prefrontal cortex. However, in some cases, one side is very active while the other is super inactive. An example of this is a depressed individual. A depressed person will have a super active right prefrontal cortex and a super inactive left prefrontal cortex.
Final answer:
When Tessa and Noah were disgusted by the smells in the house, their negative emotion would have been associated with increased activation of the amygdala in their brains.
Explanation:
When Tessa and Noah were disgusted by the smells of the house, their negative emotion would have been associated with increased activation of the amygdala in their brains. The amygdala is responsible for processing emotions, especially fear and aversion. This reaction is similar to what has been observed in animal research, where odor cues paired with negative experiences lead to aversion and increased amygdala activation. Therefore, in this situation, the electrical activity of Tessa and Noah's amygdala would have been heightened.
The students are discussing the electrolytes in the body. What should the students know has the greatest influence on potassium loss from the body?
A)Aldosterone
B)Antidiuretic hormone
C)Renin
D)Carbonic anhydrase
Answer:
Aldosterone
Explanation:
It plays a central role in the homeostatic regulation of blood pressure, plasma sodium (Na+), and potassium (K+) levels. It does so primarily by acting on the mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron. It influences the reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium (from and into the tubular fluids, respectively) of the kidney, thereby indirectly influencing water retention or loss, blood pressure and blood volume.In many adrenal disorders, such as Cushing syndrome, the adrenal glands produce too much aldosterone, a hormone that causes the kidneys to excrete large amounts of potassium.
An individual with a fasting plasma glucose level of 90 mg/dl and oral glucose tolerance test value of 120 mg/dl would have:
Final answer:
An individual with a fasting plasma glucose level of 90 mg/dl and an oral glucose tolerance test result of 120 mg/dl falls within the normal range for blood glucose levels and does not have diabetes mellitus.
Explanation:
An individual with a fasting plasma glucose level of 90 mg/dl and an oral glucose tolerance test (GTT) value of 120 mg/dl does not show signs of diabetes mellitus. According to the information provided, a normal fasting blood glucose level ranges between 60-90 mg/100 ml and may be up to 80-120 mg/100 ml using reduction methods. The oral glucose tolerance test result for this individual is also within the normal range since blood glucose should rise after consuming glucose and then return to normal levels within about 2 ½ hours, indicating that insulin is being properly secreted and is regulating blood sugar levels.
Since the person has a fasting blood glucose level below 100, which is normal, and the result of the glucose tolerance test does not indicate hyperglycemia, the individual can tolerate glucose well and is not considered to be in the pre-diabetes or diabetes categories.
While assessing the muscle tone of a client, the client demonstrates a full range of muscle motion against gravity with some resistance. What score on the Lovett scale can be given to the client?
1. Fair (F)
2. Good (G)
3. Trace (T)
4. Normal (N)
Answer:
2. Good (G)
Explanation:
The Lovett scale is a 6-point scale starting at 0 which "no evidence of contractility" and goes up to 5 which is normal, unimpaired ROM. It is used to measure musculoskeletal strength based contractility and ROM,
Find below the full scale with definitions:
Zero (0) : "No evidence of contractility". Trace (T) : "Evidence of slight contractility". Poor (P): "Complete range of motion with gravity eliminated".
Fair (F) : "Complete range of motion with gravity".
Good (G) : "Complete range of motion against gravity with some resistance".
Normal (N) : "Complete range of motion against gravity with full resistance"
In a discussion of heart failure, the nursing instructor is explaining preload and afterload. Which of the following statements regarding preload and afterload is accurate?a) Preload is related to the filling of the left ventricle, and afterload is related to the filling of the right ventricle.
b) Preload is related to the filling of the right ventricle, and afterload is related to the filling of the left ventricle.
c) Preload is related to the ejection of blood from the ventricle, and afterload is related to the filling of the ventricle.
d) Afterload is related to the ejection of blood from the ventricle, and preload is related to the filling of the ventricle.
Answer:
Afterload is related to the ejection of blood from the ventricle, and preload is related to the filling of the ventricle.
Explanation:
Heart may be defined as the organ that pumps the blood in the whole body. Humans separate the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the body and blood helps in the arteries and veins.
The improper blood flow and problem in the heart might result in the heart failure. Two main loading are afterload and preload. Afterload is the pressure that are mainly associated with the blood ejection from the ventricle. Preload is the pressure associated with the filling of the ventricle.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Martha, who has just turned 90, has been experiencing some respiratory distress. Her doctor has told her that she has a cluster of abnormal cells in her left lung. Since she has never smoked, she asks her doctor what might have caused the abnormal cells. In response, her doctor explains that the number of body cells experiencing abnormalities increases as we age. This explanation reflects which theory of aging?
Answer:
Hayflick theory
Explanation:
According to Hayflick theory aging process is controlled by a biological clock which lie within each living cell. According to this theory human cells have a limited life span.
this theory explain the mechanisms behind cellular aging. It suggests that a normal human cell can only replicate and divide arount forty to sixty times before it cannot divide anymore, and will break down by programmed cell death or apoptosis due to which number of body cells experiencing abnormalities with age.
Hepatitis with the presence of autoantibodies and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is
a. hepatitis db. autoimmune hepatitisc. hepatitis ad. hepatitis b
Answer:
B - Autoimmune Hepatitis
Explanation:
Autoimmune hepatitis is a liver inflammation disease. Its exact cause is not yet certain but researchers suspect that it occurs as a result of a combination of environmental and genetic factors. It causes the body's immune system to recognize the liver cells and tissues as foreign invaders and attack them in a manner akin to Lupus.
If it is untreated, it can cause permanent scarring of the liver leading to cirrhosis and eventually liver failure.
Hepatitis characterized by the presence of autoantibodies and positive ANAs is known as autoimmune hepatitis. It is an immune system-mediated condition distinct from viral-induced hepatitis.
Hepatitis with the presence of autoantibodies and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is indicative of autoimmune hepatitis.
Unlike the hepatitis viruses A, B, C, D, and E, which are caused by viral infections, autoimmune hepatitis is a condition where the body's immune system attacks liver cells, leading to inflammation and damage.
The presence of ANA is a marker commonly associated with autoimmune disorders, such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
However, since ANA can be present in other autoimmune diseases, it is important to perform further diagnostic tests for a definitive diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis
Some selected trends and developments that are likely to have an impact on physical education, exercise science, and sport in the future include.
Answer:
Some selected trends and developments that are likely to have an impact on physical education, exercise science, and sport in the future include Zumba and yoga.
Explanation:
In the recent times, kids are so attached to their mobiles, social medias, that they have adopted a very unhealthy lifestyle. They rarely exercise, or engage in outdoor activities and the only physical activity they engage in is PE classes. A huge trend happening in physical education is trying to engage kids in various activities to help them adopt healthy lifestyle, and maintain this as an adult. They are experimenting with Zumba, yoga and various sports that they enjoy and can continue for long run.After teaching a group of nursing students about herbal products used for sleep and relaxation, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which as being used to improve overall sleep quality, shortening the length of time it takes to fall asleep and decreasing the number of nighttime awakenings?
Answer:
The missing options are:
a) Ginseng
b) Valerian
c) Licorice
d) Feverfew
The answer is b) Valerian.
Explanation:
Ginseng is used to prevent loss of memory. Licorice is used to stop coughing and as a disinfectant. Feverfew is used to help with headaches. Valerian is used to helping with sleep, shortening the length of time it takes to fall asleep and decreasing the number of nightmare awakenings due to its anxiolytic and sedative properties.
One of the more serious conditions that EMTs are confronted with would occur as follows:A fracture or crush injury causes bleeding and swelling within the extremity. Pressure and swelling caused by the bleeding within the muscle compartment become so great that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against the pressure. Cellular damage occurs and causes additional swelling. Blood flow to the area is lost. The limb itself may be lost if the pressure is not relieved.What is this condition called?
A. Compartment syndromeB. Perfusing syndromeC. Crushing syndromeD. Fracture syndrome
A group of students are reviewing the drugs that are available for treating Alzheimer's disease. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which drug as appropriate for treatment?
Answer:
Rivastigmine
Explanation:
Rivastigmine is used to treat mild to moderate dementia caused by Alzheimer's or Parkinson's disease.
Answer:
Usually are used cholinesterase innhibitors drugs and memantine. Although other types of substances are used in combination with treatment, like ginkgo biloba, antioxidants, etc.
Explanation:
Alzheimer disease (AD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that manifests with cognitive and short-term memory impairment and a variety of neuropsychiatric symptoms and behavioral changes that worsen over time.
The treatment of Alzheimer's disease involves pharmacological strategies and psychosocial interventions for the patient. Regarding pharmacological treatment, various psychoactive substances have been used to preserve cognition, behavior and functional abilities of the patient, which is called symptomatic treatment. However, the effects of drugs currently approved for the treatment of AD are limited to the delay in the natural course of the disease, allowing only stabilization or temporary improvement of the patient.
Some drugs used for AD treatment are:
Cholinesterase Inhibitors : are the major drugs approved for the specific treatment of AD. Its use is based on increased synaptic availability of acetylcholine by inhibiting the enzymes acetylcholinesterase and butyrylcholinesterase. In addition to the effect on cognition, there is also an additional benefit on behavioral symptoms and functional changes of the disease compared to the placebo group (first generation: Tacrine; second generation: rivastigmine, donepezil and galantamine) Memantine: is a noncompetitive N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor affinity antagonist, allowing its physiological activation during memory formation processes, but blocking channel opening and pathological activation. There is evidence that the formation of oxygen free radicals may contribute to the pathogenesis of AD, which would justify the use of antioxidant substances, like vitamin E (α-tocopherol) and selegiline, which were used as adjuncts to AD treatment, exerting a supposed neuroprotective effect. Ginkgo biloba is used in traditional Chinese medicine to improve alertness and cognition. Its protective effects are related to the presence of terpenic and flavonoid constituents with antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties. Its active principles promote increased brain irrigation and reduced free radicals, preventing β-amyloid neurotoxicity.A 19th-century explorer crossing a desert has run out of water. He has the best chance of surviving if he can finda. a rain shadow.b. an ephemeral stream.c. an oasis.d. a playa.
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. an oasis.
Explanation:
An oasis is a geographical area or unexpected natural water source that is present in the desert. These water resources provides the very much needed relief by providing water to the organisms, animals and help in growing vegetation in the desert and dry area.
It can provide water and relief from sun and heat by providing shade and needed water as it offers not just water but a shelter to the animals, if it is a large enough for human settlements and crop nearby it.
Thus, the correct answer is option C. an oasis.
Answer:
C. An oasis
Explanation:
An oasis is a cultivated area in a desert or semi-desert environment.
Avulsions are caused by a scraping away of the skin's surface and are susceptible to infection.
True or False?
Rose, a 75-year-old great-grandmother, blames her great-grandson's recent incarceration at a juvenile detention center on the fact that his parents recently finalized their divorce. Rose believes in which of the following frames?
Answer:
Social Breakdown Frame.
Explanation:
Social breakdown frame may be defined as a theory in which the individual is socially isolated from the society.These individuals support the right-wing populist parties.
This theory believes that social structures are mainly based on the religion and class. This might breakdown the individual and may lack the sense of emotions and more attracted to the ethnic parties that belong to the nation and increases the self esteem.
Thus, the answer is support right-wing populist parties.
Which of the following individuals would MOST likely have the lowest basal metabolic rate?
A. a 28-year-old conditioned male athlete
B. a 28-year-old anorexic woman
C. a 28-year-old normal weight male
D. a 28-year-old pregnant woman
Answer:
B. A 28 year old sedentary female
Explanation:
Sedentary females need 1,800 calories daily
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
a. Shark skill test
b. Bench press
c. Davies test
d. Single-leg squat
Answer:
D. Single-leg squat.
Explanation:
Single leg squats are an excellent functional bodyweight training exercise that will develop leg strength, flexibility, improve balance and increase your vertical jump.
The most appropriate assessment for a pregnant client is the single-leg squat, as it measures lower body strength and balance without excessive stress.
Explanation:When working with a pregnant client, the most appropriate assessment from the options provided is the d. Single-leg squat.
This test is a good measure of overall lower body strength and balance without putting excessive stress on the body which could potentially harm both the expectant mother and the baby. It's particularly important when working with pregnant women to consider safety and comfort at all times.
Other tests like the Shark skill test, Bench press or the Davies test could potentially pose risks during pregnancy.
Learn more about Pregnancy Fitness Assessment here:https://brainly.com/question/31828777
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In general, what can American ethnic minority populations expect concerning their health, as compared to the general population?
Answer:
higher rates of cancer, infant mortality, and alcoholism
Explanation:
Some of the sources say that in the USA, African Americans, Hispanics, Native Americans and other ethnic minorities are the ones with poorest health and usually ones with diseases, injuries, premature deaths and disabilities of many kinds. What does that mean? They usually live shorter than expected, very poor quality of life, many lost opportunities for jobs and wealth, and the constant feeling of injustice.
The condition that occurs when too much water is consumed and/or too much sodium is lost in sweating, resulting in abnormally low levels of sodium in the blood, is called___________.
Answer:
hyponatremia
Explanation:
There are clinical situations in which when performing blood tests, natremia values are detected that are less than normal, which are not really correct since, when making more precise determinations, the amount of sodium is normal, they are the false hyponatremia or pseudohyponatias. Drinking plenty of water is a piece of advice that we listen to doctors and friends every day, but like everything else, the limit and sanity need to be imposed, because while it is true that drinking too little is bad, drinking it too much. When consulting various health sites we find that it is valid to divide the body weight taken in kilos by 30. Thus, if a person weighs 70 kilograms, they should drink at least 2.3 liters of water a day. At its maximum risk level, overhydration can cause brain inflammation due to too much fluid access to the brain, and among the symptoms that stand out are lethargy, (tendency to sleep, decreased ability to react), agitation, seizures, all symptoms that can be confused with those of dehydration and lead us erroneously to drink more.
Hyponatremia is diagnosed with a blood test, but we need to do more studies to identify its cause. The diagnostic process begins with a detailed history and examination to look for symptoms and signs of diseases related to hyponatremia (edema in heart failure, blood pressure figures, mucosal turgor, etc.). A blood test will be performed and urine to be included: determination of Na (to confirm hyponatremia), blood biochemistry (urea, creatinine, glucose, ions, total proteins and triglycerides), blood count with formula and leukocyte count, urine biochemistry (with Na in urine), plasma and urinary osmolarity, acid-base balance. The algorithm summarizes this diagnostic process and how with four analytical parameters the etiology of hyponatremia can be determined: Plasma and urinary osmolarity and concentrations of Na and K in urine. Through urinary osmolarity and the concentration of Na in urine we can assess the response to treatment.
Answer:
Hyponatremia
Explanation:
Hyponatremia occurs when your blood sodium level goes below 135 mEq/L. When the sodium level in your blood is too low, extra water goes into your cells and makes them swell.