which graph has a coefficient correlation r closeest to -0.95

Hi there! :)

Answer:

y=-1/2x-2

Step-by-step explanation:

Slope-intercept form: y=mx+b

m: represents the slope.

b: represents the y-intercept.

Final answer is y=-1/2x-2

Hope this helps!

Have a nice day! :)

:D

-Charlie

The equation of the line for the given case is obtained as y = -1/2x - 2.

A straight line can be written in the slope-intercept form as, y = mx + c.

In order to obtain the slope, the ratio of the difference of the coordinates are taken and c is the y-intercept which can be found by substituting x = 0 in the equation.

The slope and y-intercept are given as -1/2 and -2 respectively.

The general form of the slope-intercept equation is y = mx + c.

Substitute m = -1/2 and c = -2 in the above equation to get,

y = -1/2x + (-2)

⇒ y = -1/2x - 2

Hence, the equation of line is given as y = -1/2x - 2.

To know more about slope-intercept form click on,

https://brainly.com/question/29146348

#SPJ2

Answer:

Below the solid line.

Step-by-step explanation:

When you solve for y, you will have a less than or equal to sign, so the shading is below the line.

Answer:

Below the solid line

Step-by-step explanation:

−4y − x ≥ 7

We need to solve for y

Add x to each side

−4y − x +x≥ 7+x

-4y   ≥ 7+x

Divide each side by -4.  Remember to flip the inequality

−4y/-4 ≤ (7+x)/-4

y ≤ -1/4 x - 7/4

Y is less than or equal to the value so the line is solid (equals sign)

and below  ( less than)

Answer:

25% increase

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:The answer is 300 percent.

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add 300 to the answer it equals 1000 so the answer is 300

9.)

The image of point (-6, 2) after a 90° counterclockwise rotation is (-2, -6). This is because a 90° counterclockwise rotation is the same as a 270° clockwise rotation, which is (x, y) → (-y, x).

10.)

The image of point (-9, 3) after reflective it over the line y = x is (3, -9). This is because a reflection over the line y = x is (x, y) → (y, x).

11.)

The blank is "rigid" because rigid transformations preserve length.

Answer:

Relationship between distance and time in simplified form as a unit rate is; [tex]\frac{47}{1}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Unit rate defined as the rates are expressed as a quantity of 1, such as 5 feet per second or 3 miles per hour, they are called unit rates.

Unit rate = [tex]\frac{distance}{time}[/tex]

From the given table:

Take any

time = 4 hours and distance= 188 miles

then, by definition of unit rate;

Unit rate = [tex]\frac{188}{4} =\frac{47}{1}[/tex]

Since, this is the constant rate.

Therefore, the relationship between distance and time in simplified form as a unit rate is; [tex]\frac{47}{1}[/tex]

Answer:  the correct option is

(B) (-3, 0) and (1, 0).

Step-by-step explanation:  We are given to find the x-intercepts of the graphed function.

We know that

x-intercepts of a function are the points on the X-axis through which the graph of the function is crossing.

From the graph, we see that

the curve is crossing the X-axis at the points (-3, 0) and (1, 0).

Therefore, the x-intercepts of the given function are (-3, 0) and (1, 0).

Option (B) is CORRECT.

In the metric system, 1 kilogram is equivalent to 1000 grams. By dividing 13,530 grams by 1000, we get 13.53, meaning 13,530 grams is equivalent to 13.53 kilograms.

The question is asking about converting grams (g) into kilograms (kg). In the metric system, 1 kilogram is equal to 1000 grams. So, to convert 13,530 grams into kilograms, you need to divide 13,530 by 1,000.

Therefore:

13,530 grams (g) = 13.53 kilograms (kg)

https://brainly.com/question/21244256

#SPJ3

Question

what is 5/6÷2?

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5/6 : 2 =

0.83 : 2 =

0.41

Or

5/6 : 2 =

5/6 * 1/2 =

5/12

Answer:

Exact Form d=3/2 or -4

Decimal Form d=1.5 Mixed (Number)(Form):1 1/2 or -4

Hoped I helped <3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

que ??????????????????????

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:I would say 56 or 63. My reason is because when it says pick their favorite day of the week. It is 7 days a week so that gives me right there that I have to multiply. Then there is an option of "other" so I would probably multiply it by 8 to get the number of people who participated. Hope this helps☺  

Please give Brainliest!  

Answer:

A = $6567.29

Step-by-step explanation:

A = P(1+r)^t

Where A = amount in account

P = principal

r = interest rate in decimal form

t= time

We know that P =5500

r = .03

t =6

Substitute these values into the equation.

A = 5500(1+.03)^6

A = 5500(1.03)^6

A = 5500(1.194052297)

A=6567.287631

Since this is money we round to the nearest cent

A = $6567.29

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

MB is a perpendicular bisector to JK, thus triangle is equilateral/ isosceles, hence

MJ = MK

9x - 18 = 3x ( subtract 3x from both sides

6x - 18 = 0 ( add 18 to both sides )

6x = 18 ( divide both sides by 6 )

x = 3 → A

Answer:

pi/4 + kpi (choice #1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:[tex]x=\frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

`Writing tan and cos in form of sin

[tex]\frac{sinx}{cosx}-\left ( 1-2sin^2x\right )=2sinxcosx[/tex]

[tex]\frac{sinx}{cosx}-1+2sin^2x=2sinxcosx[/tex]

[tex]\frac{sinx-cosx}{cosx}=2sinx\left ( cosx-sinx\right )[/tex]

[tex]2sinx\left ( cosx-sinx\right )-\frac{sinx-cosx}{cosx}=0[/tex]

[tex]\left ( cosx-sinx\right )\left [ 2sinx+\frac{1}{cosx}\right ]=0[/tex]

[tex]\left ( cosx-sinx\right )\left [ \frac{2sinxcosx+1}{cosx}\right ]=0[/tex]

so cosx-sinx=0 or 2sinxcosx+1=0 and cosx is not equals to zero

cosx-sinx=0

tanx=1,[tex]x=\frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]

similarly

[tex]x=n\pi +\frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]

For 2sinxcosx+1=0

sin2x=-1

[tex]2x=\frac{3\pi}{2}[/tex]

but this value is not satisfied by equation thus

[tex]x=n\pi +\frac{\pi}{4}[/tex]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

given [tex]\frac{P}{6}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{7}{8}[/tex]

using the method of cross- multiplication then

8P = 42 ( divide both sides by 8 )

P = [tex]\frac{42}{8}[/tex] = 5.25

John's height from feet to inches is a total of 69 inches.

The question asks how tall John is in inches if he is 5 3/4 feet tall.

To convert feet to inches, you use the fact that one foot equals 12 inches. You need to multiply the whole number of feet by 12 and then add the inches that result from the fractional part.

Step 1: Convert the whole number of feet to inches. John is 5 feet tall, and each foot is 12 inches:

5 feet x 12 inches/foot

= 60 inches

Step 2: Convert 3/4 of a foot to inches. Since there are 12 inches in one foot, you calculate 3/4 of 12:

3/4 x 12 inches

= 9 inches

Step 3: Add the number of inches from the whole feet and the fractional foot together to get John's height in inches:

60 inches + 9 inches = 69 inches

John is 69 inches tall.

Answer: y = 4x - 16

Ta Da lol ...

Answer:

1,000,000 / 1.03 = 970,873.79 After 1st Year

970,873.79 / 1.03 = 942,595.91 After 2nd Year

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Two thirds rounded would be 66.67%. I’m uncertain whether you were asking about a straight line depreciation or some sort of degressive depreciation.

Basically, in a straight-line depreciation, you would calculate each depreciation as a fraction of your asset’s original value. A machine worth $1000 in year 0 would depreciate annually with a constant amount of $100.

Your machine would be worth less than 66.67% of its original value after at least 4 years (4 x 10%). More precisely, 3 years and (33.3% x 365 days) 122 days.

Applying a degressive depreciation method, you would calculate the depreciation in each year as a fraction of your asset’s residual value. This implies your depreciations would decrease each year (hence “degressive”). As soon as your depreciations fall below the amount you would depreciate in a straight line depreciation, you switch to the latter. The reason for this is that it does not really make sense for a company to depreciate it’s assets with a lesser amount, given the tax benefits of depreciations and the time value of money.

Assuming the duration of the asset’s useful life is 10 years, you would switch to the straight-line depreciations after the first year. This scenario would be equal to the straight-line depreciation: 3 years and 122 days.

In case the duration of the asset’s useful life is shorter or longer than 10 years, the amount of time required for the asset to have less than two-thirds of its initial value depends on the duration of is life.

so basically the answer is

1,000,000 / 1.03 = 970,873.79 After 1st Year

970,873.79 / 1.03 = 942,595.91 After 2nd Year

Answer:

She should leave a total of $78.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find this, we first need to find the tip amount. We can do this by multiplying the total by the tip percentage.

$65 * 20% = $13

Now that we have that, we need to add it to the cost.

$65 + $13 = $78

Answer:

a=5000(1+0.055)^15

Step-by-step explanation:

p= amount in present

r=interest

t= period of time

Answer: [tex]a=5000(1+0.055)^{15}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : George’s parents put $5,000 into an interest bearing account with a compound interest rate of 5.5%.

i.e. Principal amount : [tex]p=\$5,000[/tex]

Rate of interest : r=5.5%=0.055

George’s parents want to determine what the balance of his college fund account will be after 15 years. i.e. t= 15

Substitute all the values of p , r at t in the given formula [tex]a=p(1+r)^t[/tex], we get

[tex]a=5000(1+0.055)^{15}[/tex]

Hence, the correct substitution for the formula = [tex]a=5000(1+0.055)^{15}[/tex]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

solving the inequality

Inequalities of the type | x | < a always have a solution of the form

- a < x < a

For | 2x - 6 | < 4  then solution is

- 4 < 2x - 6 < 4 ( add 6 to all 3  intervals )

2 < 2x < 10 ( divide all 3 intervals by 2 )

1 < x < 5 → graph D

The open circles at the ends of the blue line indicate up to but not including these points.

[tex]|2x-6| < 4\iff2x-6<4\ \wedge\ 2x-6>-4\qquad\text{add 6 to both sides}\\\\2x<10\ \wedge\ 2x>2\qquad\text{divide both sides by 2}\\\\\boxed{x<5\ \wedge\ x>1}\to1< x<5[/tex]

≤, ≥ - full circle

<, > - open circle

Answer: D) No, because for some x's there are more than one y's.

Step-by-step explanation:

By the definition of function,

In a function For the every input there is a single value of output.

That is, if F is a function such that [tex]F(x_1) \neq F(x_2)[/tex]

Then, [tex]x_1[/tex] and [tex]x_2[/tex] must be distinct.

But according to the given table,

For the value of 8 there are two outputs values 7 and 9.

Therefore, we can say that  the given ordered pairs (x, y) can not make the function because there are more than on y's for one value of x's.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The definition of a function states that for every x there is only one y. If you look at the data table for an x- value of 8 there are 2 different y-values 7 and 9. Therefore the correct answer is No, because for some x's there are more than one y's.

Answer:

Wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

100 divided by 100 would simply be equal to one.

If you had 100 things and split it into 100 groups, you'd have 100 groups of just one single thing.

Answer:

false

Step-by-step explanation:

100÷ 100 = 1000

100/100 = 1

You are dividing something by itself.

Something divided by itself is 1

We can multiply 336 by 2/3 to find out.

2/3(336)

To make this easier, we can change 336 to 336/1, which does not change it's value.

Multiply 336 by 2.

336 * 2 = 672

Multiply 1 by 3.

1 * 3 = 3

Our new value is 672/3

Evaluate, divide both sides of the fraction by 3.

672/3 = 224.

3/3 = 1

224/1

224/1 = 224

Answer:

4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the slope of a line that passes through 2 points we use the equation

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

 = (-5--1)/(-2-3)

 = (-5+1)/(-2-3)

 = -4/-5

=4/5

Answer:

4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

140cm3

Step-by-step explanation:

v=lwh=7*5*4=140cm3

Answer:

140cm3

Step-by-step explanation:

v=lwh=7·5·4=140cm^3

Hey there!

If you're trying to [tex]translate[/tex] this particular equation, you could say...

Good luck on your assignment and enjoy your day!

~[tex]LoveYourselfFirst:)[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

PROPERTY 1  :   Angle sum property of triangle states that the sum of interior angles of a triangle is 180°.

PROOF : Draw a triangle , then mark each angle as A , B , and C . then take a compass and mark three ark in three sides of a triangle and cut the angles of B and C , then join the two angle B and C with angle A . Then you will find there a COMPLETE ANGLE .

The sum of the measures of angles of triangle is equal 180°.

Look at the picture.

We have the congruent corresponding angles and the vertical angles.