Answer:
D. It ensures that bacterial cells produce lactose only when no other food sources are available.
Explanation:
E. coli uses three enzymes to produce lactose. The genes for these three enzymes are found in lac operon.
At an initial examination in Oxford, Massachusetts, migraine headache was found in 5 of 1,000 men aged 30 to 35 years and 10 in 1,000 women aged 30 to 35 years. The inference that women have a two times greater risk of developing migraine headache than do men in this age is:______
A) Incorrect, because a ratio has been used to compare male and female rates
B) Incorrect, because of failure to recognize the effect of age in the two groups
C) Incorrect, because no data for a comparison (control) group are given
D) Incorrect, because of failure to distinguish between incidence and prevalence
Answer:
D) Incorrect, because of failure to distinguish between incidence and prevalence
Explanation:
YES!, the inference was incorrect because we no information was given about the emergence of the migraine or effect that resulted to it. Also, the inference made from such observation is void and not applicable.
The data suggests women have a two times higher risk of developing migraines than men, but it's important to consider other influencing factors in more comprehensive studies.
Explanation:The inference that women have a two times greater risk of developing migraine headache compared to men is correct. The finding is based on the data provided from an initial examination in Oxford, which reports a two-fold increase in incidence of migraines in women compared to men. It's important to note, however, that more comprehensive studies would take into account other factors, such as the age profile, other health conditions, and lifestyle factors, which can influence the risk of migraines.
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Some viral species may derive their __________ from intracellular membranes, such as the nuclear membrane or endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer:
the correct answer is " viral envelop" .
Explanation:
some viral species may derive their " envelop" from the intracellular membranes , such as nuclear membrane or ER.
in some animal viruses, the nucleocapsid (nucleic acid and capsid) is covered by another membrane derived from the host cell, the envelop.
If you were performing an actual DNA gel electrophoresis, what process would you have performed beforehand to amplify the DNA isolated from samples?
Answer:
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Explanation:
PCR is a technique used to create many copies (amplify) of small segments of DNA. In order to achieve first, the DNA must be denaturalized with heat forming two strands that will serve as templates for the Taq polymerase, an enzyme that will duplicate de original DNA. This cycle is repeated 30 to 40 times to get as many copies as possible.
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Match the following for the following questions: Part Aa. Secretes b. Regulatory c. Hormones d. Supports Body and Anchors e. Muscle f. Transports g. Substances throughout the body including the heart. h. Exchanges Oxygen and CO₂ between body and air. Part B1. Allows the body to move. 2. Defends against diseases. 3. Includes thymus and spleen. 4. Rids body of liquid waste. 5. Includes Kidney and Urethra. 6. Breaks down food and absorbs nutrients. 7. Include the liver, stomach, and anus Processes sensory information and controls responses. 8. Includes the brain & spinal cord.
Answer: (The question is incomplete) The human body is made up of different organs. An organ is a group of tissues in a living organism that have been adapted to perform a specific function. The different organs in the body can work together to perform a similar function. These groups of organs performing a common function constitutes an organ system. For example, the circulatory system which is responsible for transporting blood throughout the body, consists of the heart and blood vessels known as veins, arteries and capillaries.
Explanation:
The hypothalamus which is part of the endocrine system organ synthesizes and secretes regulatory hormones.
The skeleton which is part of the Skeletal system supports Body and Anchors Muscle.
The blood which is part of the Circulatory (cardiovascular) system transports substances throughout the body including the heart.
The respiratory system exchanges Oxygen and CO₂ between body and air.
The Muscular system is an organ system consisting of muscles which permits movement of the body.
The immune system of the body defends the body against diseases.
The lymphatic system functions to keep body fluid levels in balance and to defend the body against infections. It includes thymus and spleen.
The excretory system rids body of liquid waste. It includes the skin, the kidney and urethra, the bladder, and two ureters.
The digestive system which includes the stomach, the liver, anus, large and small intestine,e.t.c, breaks down food and absorbs nutrients.
The nervous system processes sensory information and controls responses. It includes the brain & spinal cord which form a part of the nervous system called the central nervous system (CNS)
Based on the data presented in the passage, which statement best describes the HSP110ΔE9 allele?
A.Cancer-promoting and dominant to HSP110WT
B.Cancer-promoting and recessive to HSP110WT
C.Cancer-suppressing and dominant to HSP110WT
D.Cancer-suppressing and recessive to HSP110WT
Answer:
C.Cancer-suppressing and dominant to HSP110WT
Explanation:
This is a case study on how genetic information are transmitted from gene to protein
Its seen from figure 1 that HSP110ΔE9 reduces growth of tumor (cancer-suppressing) unlike the HSP110WT
HSP110ΔE9 restrains HSP110WT ability to stop aggregation and reduces apoptosis since its the dominant allele and HSP110WT is the recessive allele. This info can be reduced from table 2
Detailed data from the text is needed to accurately define the behavior and characteristics of the HSP110ΔE9 allele in regards to its dominant/recessive nature and whether it plays a role in promoting or suppressing cancer.
Explanation:Without the specific data from the passage, we can't confidently determine the characteristics of the HSP110ΔE9 allele. Generally, an allele can be either dominant or recessive, and its impact, such as promoting or suppressing cancer, is based on scientific research. The role of the HSP110WT allele would also be crucial to making this determination. The HSP110ΔE9 allele is a cancer-promoting and dominant to HSP110WT allele. This means that having the HSP110ΔE9 allele increases the risk of developing cancer and it overrides the effects of the HSP110WT allele. In other words, even if an individual has one copy of the HSP110WT allele, having the HSP110ΔE9 allele can still lead to the promotion of cancer.
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Lymphatic tissue contains a large number of lymphocytes distributed in a specialized form of ___.
Answer:
Reticular connective tissue
Explanation:
The lymphatic system consists of a fluid called lymph, lymphatic vessels and organs containing lymphatic tissues. Lymphatic tissue is a specialized form of reticular connective tissue that contains large numbers of lymphocytes. Reticular connective tissue is a fine network of reticular fibers and reticular cells. The reticular fibers are the thin form of collagen fiber. Lymphatic tissues are present in spleen and lymph nodes. These tissues are involved in the filtration of blood and removal worn-out blood cells in the spleen. Microbes are filtered through lymphatic tissues in lymph nodes.
Lymphatic tissue features a large number of lymphocytes that are primarily located in secondary lymphoid tissue such as the spleen, lymph nodes, and MALT. These locations are crucial for the immune response and antigen presentation by B and T lymphocytes, which are essential for producing antibodies and effector cells against pathogens.
Explanation:Lymphatic tissue contains a large number of lymphocytes distributed in a specialized form of secondary lymphoid tissue. This includes the spleen, lymph nodes, and mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) among others. Lymph nodes play a pivotal role in the immune system; they trap pathogens and facilitate an immune response. Here, lymphocytes such as B and T cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells engage in antigen presentation, which is essential for the activation of the lymphocytes.
When an antigen is detected, B lymphocytes react by producing antibodies, while T lymphocytes may differentiate into various effector cells. These effector cells help neutralize pathogens and provide immunity, a vital function that can be enhanced through vaccinations which prepare the immune system to fight specific infections.
The lymphatic system not only involves lymph nodes but also other structures like tonsils, adenoids, thymus, and spleen where regulation and maturation of immune cells take place, supported by the circulation of lymph fluid throughout the body.
coli has a positive nitrate test (ability to reduce nitrate). This would indicate that the organism can carry out ________ respiration.
Answer: anaerobic respiration
Explanation:
Anaerobic respiration is simply respiration in the ABSENCE OF OXYGEN.
A positive nitrate test mean Escherichia coli reduces NO3 (Nitrate) to NO2 (Nitrite). This is based on its ability to produce nitrate reductase enzyme that catalyze the reduction process. And note that this reaction occurs in the ABSENCE OF OXYGEN.
This makes E. coli an ANAEROBE ( an organism that can survive in the absence of oxygen)
When investigating the effect of co-culturing NK cells with eosinophils for up to 12 hours, researchers chose to co-culture all samples in the presence of interleukin-5, a cytokine.
What is the most likely reason for this decision?
A. Interleukin-5 facilitates degranulation in NK cells.
B. Interleukin-5 inhibits the cytotoxic effects that NK cells have against eosinophils.
C. Eosinophils die rapidly when not exposed to interleukin-5.
D. The researchers were directly testing the effect of interleukin-5 on eosinophil activity.
Answer:
option B
Explanation:
Eosinophil is immune system inflammatory cells which kills bacteria and other virulent material and do inflammation by releasing inflammatory mediators like cytokine. And for removing these dead cells NK cells do apoptosis of the cell for preventing tissue damage. And for preventing the destruction of eosinophilic cell interlukin-5 is used in this process.
Researchers added interleukin-5 to the co-culture of NK cells and eosinophils to ensure the survival and proper function of eosinophils, as this cytokine is vital for their activation and longevity. the correct answer is C.
When investigating the effect of co-culturing NK cells with eosinophils for up to 12 hours, researchers chose to co-culture all samples in the presence of interleukin-5, a cytokine. The most likely reason for this decision is that interleukin-5 is known for its role in the development and activation of eosinophils. Specifically, interleukin-5 attracts and activates eosinophils, as described in the information provided. This suggests that the correct answer is C. Eosinophils die rapidly when not exposed to interleukin-5. This is because interleukin-5 is essential for the survival and function of eosinophils, and in its absence, they would likely not survive the duration of the co-culture, which could skew the results of the investigation.
The trp operon contains five genes: trpE, trpD, trpC, trpB, and trpA. These five genes code for components that produce three enzymes that catalyze the biosynthesis of tryptophan. The trpL region is the leader region, which helps regulate transcription once RNA polymerase has initiated transcription.The trp operon also undergoes negative regulation by a repressor. Tryptophan is the signal molecule (effector molecule) that binds to the repressor. Determine which events lead to an increase in transcription. The trp operon is transcribed when a. the trp repressor dissociates from DNA. b. the trp repressor is inactive. c. Trp is present at high concentrations inside the cell. d. the trp repressor is bound to the operator. e. trp binds to the repressor.
The trp operon, which contributes to tryptophan synthesis in bacteria, increases transcription when tryptophan levels in the environment are low due to an inactive repressor protein. When tryptophan levels are high, the repressor protein binds to the operon, preventing transcription and thus decreasing tryptophan synthesis.
Explanation:The trp operon, an essential part of many bacteria including E. coli, is responsible for the synthesis of tryptophan. This occurs when the environment has low levels of tryptophan. The operon is regulated by a repressor protein and the presence of tryptophan. In a low tryptophan environment, the repressor protein does not bind to the operator sequence, allowing transcription of the genes and thus, production of tryptophan. The statements that 'the trp repressor dissociates from DNA' and 'the trp repressor is inactive' relate to a situation that would result in increased transcription, as both conditions would enable transcription to occur, increasing tryptophan production.
However, transcription is inhibited when tryptophan levels in the cell are high, which is a state of the operon known as 'repression'. This happens when tryptophan molecules bind to the repressor protein, causing it to change shape and bind to the operator sequence. This blocks the RNA polymerase from accessing the DNA and transcribing the necessary genes. In this context, 'tryptophan is present at high concentrations inside the cell', 'the trp repressor is bound to the operator', and 'trp binds to the repressor', all depict situations that lead to a decrease, not an increase, in transcription.
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Who, due to a disappointing experience while traveling with family, developed Holiday Inns?
Answer:
Kemmon Wilson
Explanation:
he created Holiday Inns in 1952, after becoming outraged due to other hotels charging extra for the five children in his family.
Robert was helping his son work on the son's car when he temporarily lost the ability to speak in a normal manner and had difficulty handing his son the requested tools. This episode lasted for several minutes and then he was himself again. Robert's son insisted that his dad see his doctor after this episode. What might be the doctor's diagnosis of Robert's episode and what could be the cause?
Answer:
Transient ischemic attack (TIA) may be defined as a medical condition in which individual suffers from numbness, difficulty in speaking and dizziness. The body loss is completely lost for few minutes.
In the given question, Robert might suffers from TIA. In TIA the brain cells of the body feels the anoxia or the cells are completely deprived of the oxygen. This TIA remain last only for few seconds to minutes and might cause the other serious problem.
A researcher has identified two transposable elements, A and B, in cats. Even in the absence of B, A can insert itself into locations throughout the cat genome. However, in the absence of A, B is immobile. The researcher can conclude that A is a(n) _____ element, and B is a(n) _____ element.
Answer:
autonomous; nonautonomous
Explanation:
A is autonomous trasnposable element because it has the ability to move on its own with out the need of element B even if it is absent.
The B element is immobile in the absence of element A . Element B will move on its way only in the presence of element . this type of element is called as non-autonomous because it can not move on it own and it will always need element A for its movement.
Because the body can store water like it does fat, humans can survive for 10 to 15 days without water as long as they have food to eat.
a) true
b) false
Monounsaturated fatty acids have a single double bond. Polyunsaturated fatty acids have multiple double
bonds. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Monounsaturated fatty acids store more energy than polyunsaturated fatty acids.
B. Polyunsaturated fatty acids store more energy than monounsaturated fatty acids.
C. Polyunsaturated fats have a lower melting point than monounsaturated fatty acids.
D. Monounsaturated fats have a lower melting point than polyunsaturated fatty acids.
Final answer:
The correct statement is that polyunsaturated fats have a lower melting point than monounsaturated fatty acids, due to the kink in their chains caused by multiple double bonds which prevents close packing of the molecules.
Explanation:
Monounsaturated fatty acids (MUFAs) have one double bond within the carbon chain, while polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs) have more than one. When it comes to storing energy, saturated fats tend to store more energy because they have more single bonds, which hold more energy than double bonds. Hence, neither monounsaturated nor polyunsaturated fatty acids store more energy based solely on their saturation level. Therefore, statement A and B are incorrect.
The correct statement is C: Polyunsaturated fats have a lower melting point than monounsaturated fatty acids. The multiple double bonds in PUFAs create a kink in the fatty acid chain, preventing the molecules from packing closely together. This leads to a lower melting point, making polyunsaturated fats liquid at room temperature and more prone to solidify when refrigerated as compared to monounsaturated fats. Thus, monounsaturated fats will typically solidify at a higher temperature than polyunsaturated fats.
Cell population growth can be represented by the number ______ with an exponent, where the exponent increases by ______ in each generation.
Answer:
Cell population growth can be represented by the number 2 with an exponent, where the exponent increases by 1 in each generation.
Explanation:
As we know, every cell doubles after the process of cell division. Hence the cell population growth is represented by the number 2. The cell population growth is also known as the doubling time of a cell. The proliferation of cells is often written as:
Nt = N0 2tf
Where,
Nt is the number of cells at a particular time t.
N0 is the initial number of cells.
f is the frequency of cell cycles
Select the correct statement about the special fetal blood vessels.
A The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres.
B The distal parts of the umbilical arteries form the superior vesical arteries.
C The hepatic portal vein forms from the umbilical artery.
D The fossa ovalis becomes the f
The question is incomplete. The complete question is:
Question: Select the correct statement about the special fetal blood vessels.
A The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres.
B The distal parts of the umbilical arteries form the superior vesical arteries.
C The hepatic portal vein forms from the umbilical artery.
D The fossa ovalis becomes the f oramen ovale.
Answer:
C) The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres.
Explanation:
After birth, many vascular changes occur in the newborn child as the pulmonary, renal and digestive systems start functioning. As the umbilical cord is tied off and severed, the blood does not flow through the umbilical arteries. The umbilical vein in the child collapses but remains as the ligamentum teres. Ligamentum teres is a round ligament and serves to attach the umbilicus to the liver. It is present in the free border of the falciform ligament of the liver.
Presumably, hyperglycemia promotes cellular dehydration because: glucose, as an energy source, accelerates the osmotic work performed by plasma membranes. glucose, as an energy source, accelerates plasma membrane ion exchange pumps. glucose molecules raise the osmotic pressure of the extracellular space. glucose molecules are exchanged for water molecules across the plasma membrane.
Answer:
The answer is C.
Explanation:
Hyperglycemia is a condition where the body does not produce enough insulin for different reasons and this results in excess amounts of sugar in the bloodstream.
Hyperglycemia can cause cellular dehydration because glucose is causes the glucose molecules to build up in the bloodstream of the body, increasing it's concentration, which in turn causes a density difference of glucose between the two environments, the inside of the cells and the extracellular space, thus resulting in an increased osmotic pressure.
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Match the following. 1 . codominance Both members of an allelic pair contribute to phenotype producing a mixture of phenotypic traits 2 . Rh factor A hereditary condition for bleeding due to the inability to clot properly 3 . hemophilia A gene located on the Y chromosome in XY species 4 . holandric gene An inherited protein found on the surface of the red blood cell membrane
Answer:
1. codominance Both members of an allelic pair contribute to phenotype producing a mixture of phenotypic traits
2 . Rh factor: An inherited protein found on the surface of the red blood cell membrane
3 . hemophilia: A hereditary condition for bleeding due to the inability to clot properly
4 . holandric gene: A gene located on the Y chromosome in XY species
Explanation:
Codominance occur when a pure breeding White flower crosses with a pure breeding Red flower and gives PINK offspring
Rhesus Factor is an antigen that appears on the surface of red blood cells. it is an important factor to consider during blood transfusion.
Hemophilia is a sex-linked condition where the sufferer is unable to have a blood clot.
Holandric gene can ONLY be passed from males (carriers of XY chromosomes) to their sons
1. Both members of an allelic pair contribute to phenotype producing a mixture of phenotypic traits
2.A hereditary condition for bleeding due to the inability to clot properly
3.A gene located on the Y chromosome in XY species
4.An inherited protein found on the surface of the red blood cell membrane
1. = codominance
2.=hemophilia
3.=holandric gene
4.=Rh factor
An adult client was burned in an explosion. The burn initially affected the client’s entire face (anterior half of the head) and the upper half of the anterior torso, and there were circumferential burns to the lower half of both arms. The client’s clothes caught on fire, and the client ran, causing subsequent burn injuries to the posterior surface of the head and the upper half of the posterior torso. Using the rule of nines, what would be the extent of the burn injury?1. 18% 2. 24% 3. 36% 4. 48%
Answer:
3. 36%
Explanation:
The rule of nines gives the percentage of burn and it provide insights on treatment decisions amd steps to take next such as fluid resuscitation. It helps to ascertain If the client should be transfered to a burn unit. It also helps in determining the body surface area on an adult that has been burned.
In the rules of nines the initial burn and the subsequent burn percent of the anterior half of the head is 4.5%, and the initial burn and the subsequent burn percent of the upper half of the anterior and posterior torso is 9% while the initial burn and the subsequent burn percent of the lower half of both arms is 9%.
On addition of all the percentage for both initial and subsequent burn, it will give a total of 36%
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Which exceptional family member program category is assigned for temporary medical treatment?
Answer:
Category VI : Temporary inactive.
Explanation:
Exceptional family member program is an obligatory program meant for family member with medical, psychological and educational needs due to chronic medical and educational situations. service members are assure the necessary provision and treatment like dental treatment, education, surgery, wheelchair and wheelchair access etc.
There are different categories of exceptional family member program and they range from category I to VI.
Category I to V are for members with permanent conditions, while category VI is for members that are inactive due to temporary medical condition.
Jennifer's baby brother had infantile Tay-Sachs disease (TSD), but Jennifer did not have the disease. When Jennifer grew up and got married, her third child also had infantile TSD. How is this possible?
A.
Jennifer and her husband were both carriers of the allele.
B.
Jennifer was a carrier of the allele for the disease, and her husband was not.
C.
Jennifer's husband was a carrier of the allele for the disease, and Jennifer was not.
D.
Jennifer's husband had the disease, and Jennifer did not have any alleles.
Answer:A
Explanation: Jennifer did not get it because it is not always a 100% that you will get the disease you can become a carrier though if you do not get it. Which is what happened to her, the child got it because the higher chance that had it chances were very high and through chance actually got it. Which is you want to look at this it can kinda explain.
Jennifer's baby brother: 78% Chance to get it, 56% Chance to turn into a carrier
Jennifer herself: 67% Chance to get it, 89% Chance to turn into a carrier
Jennifer's husband: I wouldn't know his chance but only estimate it. 45% Chance to get it, 59% Chance to turn into a carrier.
Ruben has a new puppy named Paddington and wants to feed him the best possible food. Hedecides on an experiment where he will feed Paddington the very best canned food plus a dietarysupplement of vitamins recommended by a veterinarian. Which of the following best describesRuben's project?A) This is an example of an excellent, controlled experiment as it is written.B) Ruben needs to take careful measurements of Paddington's weight and height at least once aweek for it to be a good experiment.C) This is not an experiment-there are no controls or replicates.D) Ruben needs to control for the amount of exercise, sunshine, water, and care that Paddingtongets each week, so that they are equal from week to week.E) Ruben needs to use his mother's 6-year-old chocolate Sharpei named Scout to feed astandard diet so he can compare Paddington to a control dog.
Answer: C). This is not an experiment-there are no controls or replicates.
Explanation:
For an ideal experiment there must be the use of variables, and controls samples. A variable can be independent which means the effect of this variable will be seen over the other variable like test variable. A control sample is the one which is used as a standard benchmark for comparison with the variables being tested upon.
The experimental procedure must be repeated a number of times so as to obtain a concordant data which can be used for concluding results.
The given situation is not an example of experiment. Here, the two variables canned food and dietary supplement of vitamins have been used but no control variable is used to check the effect of food on the puppy also the feeding frequency is not mentioned.
Which portion of the central nervous system coordinates motor activities and aids in maintaining balance?a. spinal cordb. medullac. cerebellumd. cerebrum
Answer:
c. Cerebellum
Explanation:
The cerebellum is a part of the hind brain and situated behind the part of brain stem. It is responsible for various functions which includes motor skills. It regulates motor skills such as balance, coordination and posture. It receives information from sensory systems to do motor skills. It coordinates voluntary movements such as posture, balance which results in smooth and balanced muscular activity.
What type of species, if removed from the community, could lead to the collapse of the entire community?
Answer:
The correct answer will be - Keystone species
Explanation:
Keystone species refers to the species present in a community which has a large effect or great influence on the surrounding environment.
The concept of Keystone species was introduced by the Robert T. Paine in 1969 to the species which help maintain the structure of the biological community.
The keystone species are called keystone species as its presence affect the other organisms directly and if removed from a community it will lead to the shift or change in the structure of the community.
Thus, Keystone species is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct?1 Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable.2 SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection.3 Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months.4 The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy.
Answer:
The correct statement is 3: "Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months".
Explanation:
1) Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. FALSE. There aren´t predictable cases of SIDS because this syndrome does not present any symptoms that should be considered to prevent death. There is no specific treatment for SEDS. There are, though, some considerations to take such as prenatal attention, position while sleeping, clothing, checking their temperature, among others.
2) SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. FALSE. Researchers do not know the exact cause of SIDS, but studies have demonstrated that some babies showed irregular brain functioning that made it difficult to wake up while they could not breathe or the area that controlled breathing was affected; differences in genes and their interaction with the environment that took them to death; irregular heart funtioning; respiratory infections.
3) Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months. TRUE. SIDS is one of the principal causes of death in infants between a month and a year old, occurring more frequently in babies between two and four months old.
4) The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy. FALSE. The baby can be diagnosed after death with a complete investigation, which includes the examination of the body, examination of the death place, revision of illness before death, or any other health precedent.
Because we hear so many sounds simultaneously, the first stage of listening is to:
Answer:
receive the sound and then filtration of the messages to avoid confusion.
Explanation:
Active listening process is into five stages: 1) receiving the message, 2)understanding, 3)remembering 4) evaluating the selected message, and 5) response to the message.
Receiving is the first stage of the listening skill which involves the hearing of the message and then filtration of the message. The hearing of the message involves the focused attention while filtration of the message involves the isolation of the message from a mixture of messages. The filtration is performed to avoid the mixing of the stimuli.
Thus, receive the sound and then filtration of the messages to avoid confusion is the correct answer.
You are interested in studying a gene called CFTR because mutations in this gene in humans cause cystic fibrosis. You have made a line of mice that lack the mouse CFTR gene. These mice are unable to clear bacteria from their lungs, so they get lung disease. You put a normal human CFTR gene into some of these mice and discover that the mice with the human gene are able to clear bacteria from their lungs and no longer get lung disease. From this experiment, you can conclude that:
A. The DNA sequences of the mouse CFTR gene and human CFTR gene are identical (0.7%).
B. The amino acid sequences of the mouse CFTR protein and the human CFTR protein are identical (1.1%).
C. The mouse CFTR gene and human CFTR gene encode proteins that can serve a similar function (70.9%).
D. Both answers b and c are true (20.8%).
E. All of the above are true (6.5%).
Answer:
Answer is C.
Explanation:
The mouse CFTR gene and human CFTR gene encode proteins that can serve a similar function (70.9%).
A new soil microorganism has been described. On some growth media, it forms colonies of unicellular organisms, but under certain conditions, it forms long, multicellular filaments and spores. The cells have nuclei, and their cell walls are composed of chitin.
To which of the following groups does this new organism belong?
A. protozoa
B. fungi
C. archaea
D. algae
E. bacteria
Answer:
The correct answer is option B, that is, fungi.
Explanation:
The body of a fungus is formed of tiny tubes or filaments known as hyphae. It comprises nuclei and cytoplasm. A tangled mass of hyphae is known as mycelium, which enhances the surface area of the fungi to captivate more nutrients.
Fungi are eukaryotic, most of the fungi are multicellular, while some are unicellular like yeast. The cell walls of fungi are formed of chitin in place of cellulose like that found in a plant. Thus, the mentioned organism belongs to fungi category.
Answer:
B. fungi
Explanation:
The new orgnism in the question is a fungus whcih is included in the Kingdom Fungi. The body of a fungus is called mycelium. The mycelium is made of many hypha. Each cell of a hypha have cell wall. The fungal cell wall is made of chitin which is a derivate of glucose.
Chitin is a type of polysaccharides having a long chain polymer of N-acetylglucosamine.
The cell of a fungus lack chloroplast, so nutritionally members of the fungi are heterotrophs. They feed on dead and decaying matter, thus they are saprotrophs.
In Drosophila, absence of Bicoid protein results in larvae missing anterior segments and absence of Nanos protein results in larvae missing posterior segments. Suppose you inject Bicoid protein into the posterior region of early embryos lacking Nanos protein. The expected result would be:
Answer:
Larva with two anterior region
Explanation:
The maternal effect genes are involved in the development of anterior-posterior axis in Drosophila. There are 50 maternal effect genes but only four genes of these are involved in maintaining gradient along the axis. These are Hunchback, Bicoid, Caudal and Nanos.
The Hunchback and Bicoid regulates the development of anterior axis in Drosophila. The Caudal and Nanos regulates the Posterior axis development in Drosophila.
The products of hunchback and bicoid mRNA are required for development of head and thorax. The proteins coded by nanos and caudal are required for abdominal segments. The embryo that lacks nanos do not develop posterior axis. The early embryo injected with Bicoid protein into the posterior region will develop two anterior region.
The genetic information needed for a cell to participate in conjugation resides in the DNA of a cell’s _____. Select one:
a. Mitochondria
b. Bacterial chromosome
c. F plasmid
d. F pilus
Answer:
F plasmid.
Explanation:
Conjugation may be defined as the transfer of the genetic material from one bacterial cell to the another cell by the direct surface contact. This illustrate the phenomena of the horizontal gene transfer.
The plasmid is the extra chromosomal DNA present in the bacteria and can replicate independently of the chromosomal DNA. F plasmid or fertility plasmid is generally transfer during the conjugation process from F negative cells to F positive cells.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
The genetic information required for a cell to engage in conjugation is located in the cell's F plasmid, which contains the necessary genes for pilus formation and plasmid replication.
Explanation:The genetic information needed for a cell to participate in conjugation resides in the DNA of a cell's F plasmid. During conjugation, DNA is transferred from one prokaryote to another through a structure known as a conjugation pilus, or F pilus, which is instrumental in bringing the donor and recipient cells into direct contact. The F plasmid, also called the fertility factor, contains the genes necessary for the formation of the F pilus and for the replication of the plasmid via the rolling circle method, enabling the donor cell (F+ cell) to transfer genetic material to the recipient cell (F- cell).