Answer:
Sever Weight Loss
Explanation:
Elevated blood pressure just doesn't make sense, so the answer can't possibly be B or D. I looked up AIDS symptoms, and severe weight loss was the first symptom, so I am guessing that is the answer.
severe weight loss is one of the main symptoms of AIDS. the immunodefficiency leads to excessive weight loss
hence the beat option here is A
AIDS and its symptomsThe term AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome) refers to a group of possibly life illnesses and disorders AIDS occur when your immune system is severely weakened by the HIV virus. The HIV virus, unlike AIDS, can be passed from one person to another.Symptoms of AIDSRapid weight lossdue to a weak immune system the person catches illness very fast which otherwise the body could have preventedFrequent fever or excessive nocturnal sweatsExcessive and unexplained fatigue.Swelling of the lymph glands in the armpits, groin, or neck for an extended period of time.PneumoniaMore than a week's worth of diarrheaMouth sores, anus, or genital soreshence elevated blood pressure and heart murmurs are not a symptom of AIDS.
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Which of the following pieces of equipment is acceptable for use in the prehospital stabilization of suspected cervical spine injuries?
A. 2 double prime′′ times ×4 double prime′′ wood cribbing
B. Soft cervical collars
C. Five-pound sand bags
D. Rigid cervical collars
Answer:
Rigid cervical collars
Explanation:
Rigid cervical collars
it is provided to have better stability to the one suffering from trauma and regarded as precautionary measure. As the name suggest it is composed of tough material which is the only reason for providing better stability by preventing neck movement.
It is provided when patients suffer from various and serious neck injury.
Answer:
D. Rigid cervical collars
Explanation:
A hard cervical collar is used for spine problems or injuries. It limits forward and backward movement more than a soft one does.
You are working to bring a healthcare facility into compliance with the SDS-related provisions of OSHA’s HCS. You interview administrative personnel at the facility. You learn that the facility has compiled a list of all hazardous chemicals to which workers in the facility might be exposed. An SDS corresponding to each chemical on the list has been obtained and filed. For full compliance, you advise that this facility also must:
Answer: 1. the facility must display or keep the SDS for the chemicals in the chemical store.
2. A copy of the SDS is to be with the attending medic incase of accidental exposure
3. Mock drills should be done as refresher on actions to take after a chemical spill/ exposure.
4. Incase an antidote is required, it must be present as long as the chemical concerned is available.
5. Quantity, expiry information should also always be updated.
Explanation:
The American College of Sports Medicine's recommendations for physical activity include a minimum of
Answer:
75 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity per week.
Explanation:
To be healthy the American College of Sports Medicine recommends 150 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise or 75 minutes of vigorous aerobic activities per week. Also, the person should do strength training using weights or resistance.
Vigorous aerobic exercise includes running, swimming, cycling, and aerobic dancing, such as Zumba.
Over Consumption of ______________ has the greatest potential for toxicityA) Vitamin DB) Vitamin CC) ThiaminD) Niacin
Answer:
C. Thaimin
Explanation:
A minimum daily dose of each thiamin is necessary to maintain good health. Significantly exceeding this dose, however, can cause illness. In general, the symptoms of vitamin toxicity include nausea, gastrointestinal problems like constipation and diarrhea, hair loss, rashes, and nerve damage.
What is the best method for assuring accurate diagnostic test results? Which level of law mandates sewage treatment?
Answer:
Explanation:
The Standard And Custom diagnostic test, providesthe solution, highest quality, most competitive price and fast delivery.
Healthcare workers and the general public are protected from the spread of infectious disease by treating specimens as biological hazards. By following the test standard operating procedures. The basic national standard for U.S. municipal treatment plants is the Secondary Treatment Regulation. The collection and treatment of domestic sewage and wastewater is vital to public health and clean water. It is among the most important factors responsible for the general level of good health enjoyed in the United States. Sewers collect sewage and wastewater from homes, businesses, and industries and deliver it to wastewater treatment facilities before it is discharged to water bodies or land, or reused.
About 20 percent of all children have difficulties that could be connected to behavioral teratogens.
True / False.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
About 20 percent of all children have difficulties that could be connected to behavioral teratogens, but it is hard to link the teratogens with the difficulties because the relation is not simple or direct.
First, it has to be determined if the brain or emotional problems that the kid has are due to behavioral teratogens or not, which can be hard since there are a lot of factors that can influence teratogens and affect the baby differently.
PLEASE HELP ASAP
Which of the following describe a biomedical equipment technician (BMET)? Check all of the boxes that apply.
requires a two-year associate’s degree
installs and maintains biomedical equipment
requires a bachelor’s degree
works in clinical or research setting
allows person to obtain a proficiency certification
requires a state license
It requires a two year associate's degree, installs and maintains biomedical equipment, works in clinical or research setting and allows person to obtain a proficiency certification.
Answer: Options 1, 2, 4 and 5.
Explanation:
A bio medical equipment technician is also known as the bio medical engineer or a bio medical technologist. He is an electro-mechanical technician or he is a technologist who makes sure that all the medical equipment which are required are well maintained or not, do they functional safely and are they properly configured.
A person who wants to be bio medical equipment technician, he requires a two year associate's degree and he maintains the equipment related to the bio medical and works in a research or a clinical setting.
A biomedical equipment technician (BMET) is a professional who installs and maintains biomedical equipment in clinical or research settings. They typically require a two-year associate's degree and can obtain a proficiency certification.
Explanation:A biomedical equipment technician (BMET) is a professional who installs and maintains biomedical equipment in clinical or research settings. They do not require a bachelor's degree but typically require a two-year associate's degree. BMETs can obtain a proficiency certification and may be required to obtain a state license, depending on the state.
Some of the options selected that describe a BMET are: requires a two-year associate's degree, installs and maintains biomedical equipment, works in a clinical or research setting, and allows a person to obtain a proficiency certification.
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect: Select one:
A. esophagitis.
B. Mallory–Weiss tear.
C. acute pancreatitis.
D. esophageal varices.
Answer: B Mallory–Weiss tear
Explanation:
This result from tear in the mucus membrane or inner lining at the joining of the oesophagus with the stomach, leading to bleeding .
It results from prolong vomiting from prolonged use of alcohol or bulimia
Fetal heart rate tracing abnormalities are observed on the fetal monitor when a client in active labor turns to the supine position. Which nursing action is most beneficial at this time?
Answer:
Helping the client change her position
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the most beneficial nursing action at this time would be to help the client change her position. This is because the main task required of the patient is to change to the supine position, but the patient may not know what that position is or may not be able to do so due to her pregnancy. Therefore the most useful nursing action would be to help.
An important concept within a healthcare organization involves joining two or more healthcare professionals to work on achieving similar goals within a change initiative. This concept is a complex and dynamic process in healthcare and it is known as
Answer:
Collaboration
Explanation:
An important concept within a healthcare organization involves joining two or more healthcare professionals to work on achieving similar goals within a change initiative. This concept is a complex and dynamic process in healthcare and it is known as collaboration.
Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) work in the body to lower blood pressure by which mechanism of action?
A. Blocking AT1 receptors, which prevent angiotensin from raising blood pressure
B. Blocking the formation of renin in the RAAS system
C. Blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
D. Inhibiting the stimulation of aldosterone secretion
Answer:
(The correct option is C) Blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Explanation:
Angiotensin is known as a peptide. By the action of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) angiotensin I is transformed into angiotensin II in the blood.
Angiotensin receptor blockers help in the relaxation of arteries, and veins to lower the blood pressure, and making easy for the heart to pump blood. Drugs which helps to inhibit ACE, and block the conversion between angiotensin I, and angiotensin II are helping to lower the blood pressure in patience with hypertension.
Where should you park the ambulance when responding to a vehicle crash involving a hazardous material spill?
Answer:
In general, you should park uphill and upwind from a hazard.
Explanation:
Pete's mother is ill and nobody else can take his little sister to school. He has a learning license and is 17. What can he do?
Answer:
He should apply for a Minor Restricted Driver License.
Explanation:
A hardship license – also known as a minor restricted driver license (MRDL) – is a Texas driver license that you can get before you’re 16 years old or without holding your permit for a minimum of 6 months. In order to obtain a hardship license, you must show proof of why you need to drive as soon as possible.
Final answer:
Pete with a learning license faces a dilemma as he cannot legally drive his sister to school without an adult. Alternatives such as seeking help from others should be considered to avoid legal issues. It's crucial for Pete to understand the legal implications of driving with only a learning license.
Explanation:
Pete is in a complex situation as he holds a learning license and wants to help his ill mother by taking his sister to school. As a 17-year-old with a learning license, there are specific legal restrictions he must follow. Typically, a learning license does not allow a person to drive without a qualified adult driver present. Pete's choices are limited, and he needs to consider the consequences of driving without the proper license.
The most responsible action would be to seek alternative transportation for his sister, perhaps reaching out to friends, family, neighbors, or understanding community services that might assist him during this difficult time.
If Pete decides to drive with only a learning license, he may face legal consequences including fines, points on his driving record, or even suspension of his driving privileges. It's essential for Pete to understand the legal implications of his actions before making a decision.
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?Select one:
A. Exacerbation of his COPDB. Acute pulmonary embolismC. Spontaneous pneumothoraxD. Rupture of the diaphragm
The most likely cause of the patient's condition, considering the given symptoms and his history of emphysema, is Spontaneous Pneumothorax. It is likely that a forceful cough caused air to leak into the space between the lung and chest wall, leading to a lung collapse.
Explanation:The MOST likely cause of the patient's condition, given the acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough, is C. Spontaneous pneumothorax. A person with emphysema has weakened lung tissues that are prone to rupture and can lead to a pneumothorax. This happens when air leaks into the space between your lung and chest wall, pushing on the outside of your lung and making it collapse. The symptoms outlined: barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia, are classic indications of a pneumothorax. Thus, in this case, it seems like an independent event was triggered by a forceful cough, causing the emphysema to worsen into a spontaneous pneumothorax.
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The most likely cause of the patient's condition is spontaneous pneumothorax. Symptoms align with the clinical features of a pneumothorax, and a forceful cough can exacerbate the condition. Immediate medical attention is essential as it can be life-threatening.
Explanation:The most likely cause of the patient's condition is spontaneous pneumothorax. Spontaneous pneumothorax occurs when there is an abnormal collection of air in the space between the lungs and the chest wall, leading to a collapsed lung. This condition is commonly seen in individuals with emphysema, as the damaged lung tissue is more susceptible to air leaks.
In this case, the patient's symptoms, such as worsening dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia, align with the clinical features of a pneumothorax. It is important to note that a forceful cough can result in increased pressure within the chest, potentially causing an exacerbation of a pneumothorax.
It is crucial for the patient to seek immediate medical attention as spontaneous pneumothorax can be a life-threatening condition. Treatment options may include chest tube placement or surgery.
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Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based on mechanism of injury alone
Answer:
D. Auto versus pedestrian
Explanation:
Pedestrians are those that use the walk way of the road.
Trauma triage criteria based on mechanism of injury include blunt force, sharp force, projectile, and thermal trauma. These categories help determine the need for transportation to a trauma center. Proper identification of the mechanism is crucial for appropriate and timely medical intervention.
In general, the four categories of trauma mechanisms that would justify such transportation include:
Blunt force: Typically results from a collision, such as those seen in car accidents or falls, leading to significant internal injuries.Sharp force: Involves injuries from objects like knives, which can cause deep lacerations and penetrate critical organs.Projectile trauma: Results from high-velocity impacts, such as gunshot wounds, which can cause severe internal damage.Thermal (burning): Involves injuries from high temperatures, such as burns, which can destroy skin and underlying tissues.Understanding these categories helps in the rapid assessment and decision-making critical for the timely transport of trauma patients to specialized care centers, where they can receive appropriate and potentially life-saving treatment.The correct question is
Which of the following trauma triage criteria would justify transportation to a trauma center based
on mechanism of injury alone?
O Auto versus pedestrian
O Vehicle rollover
Vehicle crash-generated telemetry data
Intrusion into the occupant area greater than 8 inches.
What term refers to a group of compounds including triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols?Select one:
a. Polysaccharidesb. Mineralsc. Nucleic acidsd. Lipids
Answer:
The answer is D- Lipids.
Explanation:
Lipids are a group of compounds which are insoluble in water. However, they are soluble in alcohol. They are very important copmonents of living cells and are easily stored in the body. They serve as a source of fuel and form important constituents for cell structure.
A client’s left adrenal medulla has been injured in a motor vehicle accident. What is a possible implication of this injury?
Answer:
Change in the hormone levels.
Explanation:
Adrenal medulla is the inner part of the adrenal gland. The adrenal medulla release different hormones and play important role in maintaining the physiology of the body.
The adrenal medulla secretes the epinephrine and nor epinephrine hormone. These hormones prepare the body during the normal condition and in case of fight and flight situation of the body. During injury, the hormone level may gets disturbed.
Thus, the answer is change in the hormone levels.
Answer:
The correct answer is - Disruptions in the levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Explanation:
The adrenal medulla is the inner region of the adrenal gland regulates that are responsible for the fight or flight response. The hormones that are secreted by the adrenal medulla are epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Any type of injury in the medulla of the adrenal can cause disruption in the levels of these two hormones directly as they are released from the left adrenal medulla.
Thus, the correct answer is - Disruptions in the levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Why would the cdc recommend certain groups of people
Explanation:
Flu shots are usually recommended to people with delicate health. Influenza usually hits children that are usually 12 moths old or younger, older people, aged 65 and older. It hits people who are under constant stress due to work or personal life. Also, ones who suffered from any serious disease which weakened their immune system. It hits pregnant women, obese people, people who take too much medicament, and ones suffering from chronic diseases.
Which of the following is most likely NOT a symptom of acylcarnitine translocase deficiency? A. Hyperglycemia. B. Muscle weakness. C. Liver damage. D. High ammonia levels in blood.
Answer:
A. Hyperglycemia is the correct answer
Explanation:
Acylcarnitine translocase deficiency is the disorder in which the body is not able to break fatty acids into energy and due to this too much unused, fatty acids get build in the body.
Symptoms of Acylcarnitine translocase deficiency are
feverblood sugar level gets lowweakness in musclebreathing problemdiarrheaVomitingDue to acylcarnitine translocase deficiency, blood sugar level gets low known as hypoglycemia whereas Hyperglycemia means that sugar levels get high in the blood which is not a symptom of acylcarnitine translocase deficiency.The muscarinic1 and muscarinic3 of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) are similar in function.
Which are the functions of these two receptors?
Answer:
Muscarinic receptors 1 and 3 are coupled to Gq protein, excitatory subnunit, which increase intracellular calcium, promoting: contraction of the sphincter muscle of the iris, increased intestinal motility, bronchoconstriction, increase secretion of histamine in stomach.
Explanation:
In the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS), the acting neurotransmitter is acetylcholine (Ach). Ach acts on two types of receptors: nicotinic receptors and muscarinic receptors. When Ach is released into the synaptic cleft, it then binds to a particular receptor and then performs its actions.
Muscarinic receptors (M) are coupled to G protein. We have several muscarinic receptors, from 1 to 7. M 1, 3 and 5, the odd ones, are coupled to the Gq protein, an excitatory subunit, which activates a cascade, leading to increased intracellular calcium. M 2 and 4, the pairs receptors, are coupled to the Gi protein, an inhibitory subunit, as it increases the potassium permeability.
These receptors have different locations: M1 is located in the central nervous system, gastric parietal cells and autonomic ganglia; M2 is located in the heart, and does presynaptic modulation of neurotransmitter release, as I said earlier; M3 located in smooth muscle and glands; M4 located in the central nervous system; and M5 also in the central nervous system.
A visible effect of Ach's action on an M3 receptor occurs in the eyeball, especially in the sphincter muscle of the iris. M3 is an excitatory receptor and, when activated by Ach, promotes contraction of the sphincter muscle of the iris, leading to shrinkage of the pupil, a process known as miosis. Another effect also on the eyeball, and by Ach's action on M3, is increased tear secretion, as the parasympathetic stimulates secretion of our glands, and the tear gland is not left out.
Acetylcholine is released, binds to the gastrointestinal system M3 receptor, and promotes increased intestinal motility as well as increased intestinal secretions, which is of paramount importance for digestion.
The bronchi, by parasympathetic action in M3, contract, thus promoting bronchoconstriction.
By acting in M1, Ach increase the secretion of histamine in stomach.
.
During aerobic exercise, the body relies on continuous __________ for energy production.
Answer:
Oxygen
Explanation:
Oxygen, a colorless, odorless, tasteless gas essential to living organisms, being taken up by animals, which convert it to carbon dioxide.
The deductible that applies after the Basic Plan is exhausted and before the Supplemental Major Medical Coverage begins is called:_______
Answer:
The answer is: The broker's deductible.
Explanation:
The broker's deductible is used during the period between coverage of basic and major medical expenses for an insured. The benefits of the basic policy are paid first, and when the benefits of the basic policy are exhausted, the broker's deductible applies. Once the broker's deductible is paid, the main benefits of the medical plan take effect.
The answer is: The broker's deductible.
How have severe disability rate for premature infants changed between 1995 and 2006?
Answer:
This became possible because of advancement in medical technologies and proper facilities and social awareness.
Explanation:
This has became possible for several reasons like, proper care during the first week of life, i.e. giving warmth to the baby, infection reduction, better transportation facility to the specialized units. Steroids and surfactant treatment. Reducing the gestation period has also helped in reducing the disability earlier it was 26 weeks and in 2006 it has been reduced to 23 weeks. Awareness camps were conducted to make people aware of pros and cons needed to maintained and also about the social care.
The spherical compounds made up of bile and phospholipids that transport dietary fat into the intestinal mucosal cells are the.
Answer:
Micelle
Explanation:
Micelle are lipids which are arranged in spherical form in an aqueous solution, and they possess both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
They aid the body in the absorption of molecules that are insoluble in water like lipids and fat soluble vitamins. They also help in the transportation of fat soluble vitamins, complex lipids, to the small intestine.
Final answer:
The compounds made of bile and phospholipids that transport dietary fat are called micelles. These micelles facilitate the absorption of fats by forming chylomicrons in the intestinal mucosal cells, which then enter the lymphatic system and bloodstream.
Explanation:
The spherical compounds made up of bile and phospholipids that transport dietary fat into the intestinal mucosal cells are called micelles. These micelles are critical in the process of fat digestion and absorption. They have a hydrophilic (water-attracting) outer surface and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) core where the lipids are carried. The bile salts and phospholipids make up the outer surface, preparing the fats to be absorbed into the enterocytes of the intestinal lining.
Once the micelles reach the absorptive cells of the small intestine, the lipids they are carrying - which include long-chain fatty acids and monoglycerides - diffuse out of the micelles and enter the enterocytes. Here, the lipids reassemble into triglycerides and form chylomicrons, which are large lipoprotein particles. Chylomicrons are then released into the lymphatic system and eventually the bloodstream to be used by the body.
Which of the following would not be an appropriate activity for the end of a workout?1. slow arm rotations2. power sprints3. jog around the block4. toe touches
Answer:
2. Power sprints
Explanation:
It is dangerous to attempt a high-energy requiring exercise such as sprinting at the end of a workout. The end of the workout is known as a cool down period, in this period, it is wise to exercise with the intent to stop.
It is usually the time to stretch muscles so they are not sore the next day.
An obese client with a history of gout and a sedentary lifestyle has been advised by the primary health care provider to avoid organ meats, certain fish, and other foods that are high in purines. The care provider is demonstrating an awareness of the client's susceptibility to which type of kidney stones?
Answer:
Uric acid stones.
Explanation:
Kidney plays an important role in the process of excretion. The improper functioning of kidney can cause various renal diseases. The physiology of the body may get disturbed due to the kidney related problems.
Uric acid stones is the major type of stone that consists of deposited calcium stones in the body. The stone is the hard mass of the crystallized elements. The non veg diet and diets rich in calcium like spinach is highly avoided in the uric acid stones.
Thus, the correct answer is uric acid stones.
____________ refers to placing demands on the body systematically and progressively over time to cause physiologic adaptation.
Answer:
Overload.
Explanation:
Overload may be defined as the second most important principle that main aim is to improve the physical fitness of the individual. Overload improves the strength of the individual.
Different muscles are involved in the process of overload. Overload can be achieved by lifting the heavier objects for few time. The stress on the muscle is applied during the overload. The continuous overload changes the physiologic adaptation of the body.
Thus, the answer is overload.
Litigation resulting from improper restraint use is a common nursing legal issue. A nursing student is listing points related to the use of restraints. Which factor needs correction?
1
Restraints can be used when less restrictive interventions are not successful.
2
Restraints can be used when all other alternatives have been tried and exhausted.
3
Restraints can be used only to ensure the physical safety of the resident or other residents.
4
Restraints can be used anytime without a written order from the healthcare provider.
Answer:
Restraints can be used anytime without a written order from the healthcare provider.
Explanation:
Medical restraints may be defined as a type of the physical restraints that are used during the medical procedures. This is mainly done to restraint the patient to provide minimum pain and discomfort.
Restraints can only be used on the written statement of the health care providers. This can also be used when low restrictive interventions are unsuccessful. If all other options cannot be used then restraints are used. This only provides the physical safety.
Thus, the correct answer is option (4).
As you use alcohol do the automatic functions of the body controlled by the brain like the heartbeat and breathing also become impaired?
Answer:
Yes they do become impaired
Explanation:
In your heart:
Alcohol acts as a vasodilator and causes the peripheral blood vessels to relax resulting in increased peripheral blood flow and in turn a drop in blood pressure. For the body to keep sufficient blood flow to organs, it increases the heart rate and breathing rate
In the brain:
The alcohol is absorbed in the bloodstream and goes to the nrain where it can cause impaired cognitive function which can cause deterioration in the long term
A nurse is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who came to the clinic for a physical exam.
The given question is incomplete. The complete question is as follows:
A nurse is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who came to the clinic for a physical exam. There is not any history of lung disease. What should the nurse expect to hear?
a. adventitious breath sounds
b. bronchial breath sounds
c. bronchovesicular breath sounds
d. vesicular breath sounds
Answer:
Bronchovesicular breath sounds .
Explanation:
The inspiration and expirations are equal, this denotes the normal sound in the posterior chest area or mid area of the chest. These sounds might gets disturbed in case of the lung disease.
The nurse should ausculates all the breath sounds from the side to side while moving from the upper chest area to the lower chest area. They must listen the sound laterally, posteriorly and anteriorly. If the normal breath sounds appear, this indicates the bronchovesicular sounds.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).