The cranial nerves that are associated with eye movement are:
Oculomotor nerveTrochlear nerveAbducens nervesThe cranium is composed of cranial bones that encircle, protect, and support the brain and the other head region. It is composed of nerves called the cranial nerves that perform various activities such as signaling and responding to stimuli in the head region.
From the given options, the cranial nerves that are associated with eye movement are:
Oculomotor nerve: They help to supply muscles around the eyeball needed for movement, position, and constriction of the eye.Trochlear nerve: They allow the movement of eyes in an oblique direction towards the nasal region.Abducens nerves: These are somatic motor nerves responsible for eye movement.Learn more about cranial nerves here:
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Final answer:
The cranial nerves associated with eye movement are the oculomotor nerve (III), the trochlear nerve (IV), and the abducens nerve (VI), all of which have primarily motor functions that control different extraocular muscles for complex eye movements.
Explanation:
The cranial nerves that are associated with eye movement are:
Oculomotor nerve (III) - This cranial nerve is responsible for controlling four of the extraocular muscles, also contributing to the lifting of the upper eyelid and pupillary constriction.
Trochlear nerve (IV) - It controls one of the extraocular muscles, the superior oblique muscle, which allows for the rotation of the eye.
Abducens nerve (VI) - This nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, which abducts the eye, allowing it to move away from the midline.
These three cranial nerves are all primarily motor in function, meaning they control muscle movements necessary for eye positioning. Together, these nerves coordinate complex eye movements and allow our eyes to track moving objects, focus on different visual fields, and maintain binocular vision.
After teaching a group of students about the standard childhood immunizations given today, the instructor determines that the students need additional teaching when they identify which as a common disease for which immunizations are given?
A) Tuberculosis.
B) Poliovirus.
C) Diphtheria.
D) Pertussis.
Answer:
A. Tuberculosis
Explanation:
BCG vaccine (Bacillus of Calmette and Guérin) was created in 1921 by Léon Calmette and Alphonse Guérin. Protects against severe forms of tuberculosis, a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which mainly affects the lungs and, if untreated, can cause serious breathing problems, weight loss, weakness and even death. The vaccine is the only type of immunization against the disease and should be given as a single dose.
Pentavalent vaccine protects against 5 diseases: diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, poliovirus and infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b (meningitis, pericarditis, pneumonia, arthritis and osteomyelitis).
Diphtheria causes inflammation and injury to parts of the airway and may lead to the death.Pertussis may progress to severe conditions with pulmonary, neurological, hemorrhagic complications and dehydrationAnd polio in some cases causes paralysis, especially in the legs.Which of the following statements is not true?
1.Neoplasia is another term for cancerous cells.
2.Most cancers are hereditary.
3.Certain types of virus can cause cancer.
4.About half the people with cancer have a mutation in a p53 gene.
5.Melanomas are commonly caused by ionizing radiation.
Answer:A
Explanation:
Neoplasia denotes abnormal growth of cells... Some cells can grow without being cancerous that is there are just benign
Answer: Statement 1, statement 2 and statement 5.
Explanation: 1. Neoplasia is the formation and growth of abnormal tissue. It is an uncontrolled growth of cell not under physiologic control. While malignant neoplasms are cancerous cells, non malignant neoplasms are not cancers and thus, neoplasms cannot be another term for cancers.
2. There are people who are born with a genetic mutation, inherited, which predisposes them to be at a higher risk for cancers.
Scientists assets that inherited genetic mutation only factors in about 5-10% of all cancers which is still in the minority.
3. Yes. Viruses can cause cancers. Researchers have linked the cause of some cancers to several viruses for example, the human papilloma virus have been shown to cause cervical cancer, hepatitis B and C viruses have been shown to cause liver cancers and the Epstein Barr Virus to cause the nasopharyngeal cancers.
4. Yes. The p53 Gene is responsible for tumor suppression by coding for a protein regulating cell cycle. A mutation in p53 makes the gene unable to regulate cell cycle and proliferation and thus increases the risk of cancer in an individual.
5. Melanoma's are caused by a combination of factors. Although doctors speculate it to be because of several UV lights and radiations, the fact that melanoma can occurs in parts of the skin not exposed to sunlight and radiations counters that argument.
Although ionizing radiations can increase a person's susceptibility to melanoma, it is not the chief cause of it. The main cause of melanoma is not yet known.
HIV has become an important source of mortality for humans. If AIDS persists as a major factor for humans for many generations in the future, natural selection theory predicts that _____.
Answer:
Any heritable traits that help humans survive and reproduce in the presence of AIDS should become more frequent over time.
Explanation:
The theory of natural selection is defined as the process whereby organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring. This means that, in this case, people who inherit a trait in their genes that allows them to resist the HIV virus, will be able to survive better and have children.
Unfortunately, there is no record of such a trait existing, and in this case, there is no kind of natural selection that can arise if every human becomes infected.
Natural selection theory predicts that continued exposure to AIDS could lead to an increased prevalence of genetic traits conferring resistance to HIV among the human population. Beneficial mutations and changes in behaviors could contribute to this resistance, with the potential for a noticeable evolutionary impact, especially in regions like sub-Saharan Africa where treatment access is limited.
Explanation:If AIDS persists as a major factor for humans for many generations in the future, natural selection theory predicts that there would be an increasing prevalence of genetic traits that confer resistance to the virus amongst the human population. This could manifest through various ways, such as the emergence of beneficial mutations that make it more difficult for HIV to infect helper T cells, or changes in sexual behavior and societal practices that reduce transmission rates.
Over time, these changes could result in a proportion of the population with a natural resistance, a concept referred to as evolutionary pressure. However, such a process takes a significant amount of time and the presence of medical interventions, like antiretroviral drugs, could alter the selective pressures by allowing those with the infection to survive and reproduce.
In sub-Saharan Africa, where the prevalence of HIV is highest and access to treatments is more limited, the evolutionary impact may be more distinct compared to regions with widespread access to effective medical care.
The pharmacology instructor is talking about the drug propylthiouracil (PTU). What would the instructor cite as the primary mode of action for propylthiouracil (PTU)?
A) To destroy part of the thyroid gland
B) To inhibit production of thyroid hormone
C) To suppress the anterior pituitary gland's hormonal secretions
D) To sedate the CNS and suppress cardiac function
Answer:
B
Explanation:
To inhibit production of thyroid hormone.
Propylthiouracil (PTU) is an oral medication that is used to manage hyperthyroidism which is due to an overactive thyroid gland. It is an anti-thyroid drug that has a mechanism of action that is similar to methimazole (Tapazole). Graves' disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.
A nurse is teaching skin and basic care to the mother of a 6-month-old infant with eczema. Which statement indicates that the mother needs further teaching?
Answer: I'll have to be careful not to cut my baby's nails short.
Explanation:
Eczema is a medical condition. The cause of this condition is unknown or may be due to hyperactive allergic immune response seen in hay fever, dermatitis and asthma. This is related with symptoms like appearance of red patches on the skin, itchy and rough skin also the appearance of blisters. The scratching and itching must be avoided as the rupture of blister is likely to ooze out fluid which may cause infection to a large area appear in the form of patch.
According to the given situation, the mother needs further teaching as she should cut the baby's nail so that baby cannot scratch the blister this will prevent the increase in area of infection.
In 3 sentences explain 2 things we can do to strengthen our circulatory system. Make sure you use details in your explanation. EXPLAIN your answer and use clear examples.
Answer:
The answer would be
Explanation:
If a person wants to improve their circulation:
- Stop smoking tobacco products
- Reduce intake of saturated fats
- Try not to sit still for long periods
Some tips, examples are:
1. Maintaining a healthy weight helps promote good circulation. If a person is overweight, it may negatively affect their circulation.
2. Regular cardiovascular exercise, such as jogging, supports the health of the circulatory system and improves circulation.
3. Eating oily fish
4. The antioxidants in tea promote cardiovascular health and may improve circulation. This is true for both black tea and green tea.
5. Iron is an essential mineral for the circulatory system. It is required to make hemoglobin, one of the major components of red blood cells, which is needed to carry oxygen.
Many obese people have high levels of _____, which promotes overeating due to increased hunger.
Answer:Ghrelin
Explanation:it is a hormone produced in the stomach and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract that encourage the intake of food
You feel the pain of a sprained ankle when ________ relay(s) messages from your ankle to your central nervous system.
Answer:
Its the Sensory Nerves
Explanation:
You feel the pain of a sprained ankle when nociceptors relay(s) messages from your ankle to your central nervous system.
When you sprain your ankle, the pain is caused by the stretching or tearing of the ligaments that support the ankle joint. The pain is felt when sensors in the ankle send messages to the central nervous system (CNS).
The CNS is made up of the brain and spinal cord. It is responsible for interpreting sensory information and sending signals to the muscles to respond.
The sensors in the ankle are called nociceptors. Nociceptors are specialized cells that are sensitive to pain. When they are activated, they send messages to the CNS along nerve fibers. The CNS interprets these messages as pain.
The pain of a sprained ankle can be mild or severe. It can also be sharp or dull. The pain is usually worse when the ankle is moved. The pain may also be accompanied by swelling, bruising, and stiffness.
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Which of the following is NOT true of skill-related fitness?
Skill-related fitness makes it easier to learn skills.
Skills can be improved with practice.
Excellence in one skill-related fitness component can make up for lack of another.
Skill-related fitness declines with age faster than health-related fitness.
Answer:
I would say D or the last one.
Explanation:
Anything you keep practicing will not decline in skill even as you grow older.
The option that is not true of skill-related fitness is D. Skill-related fitness declines with age faster than health-related fitness.
Skill-related fitness simply means the ability for an individual to be able to perform during sports. The components that make up the skill-related fitness include coordination, speed, power, balance, agility, and reaction time.Skill-related fitness makes it easier to learn skills and it can be improved with practice. For example, an athlete can increase his or her speed through practice. It should be noted that health-related fitness declines faster than skill-related fitness as the person grows older. Therefore, the correct option is D.Read related link on:
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While Eddie was working alone in the microcomputer lab, he noticed a strange, unpleasant smell and immediately went to report the incident. Eddie's behavior could be described as ____.
Answer:
Was not constrained by the bystander effect.
Explanation:
The bystander effect may be defined as the psychological effect that might discourages the individual from intervening in the situation. The individual take more positive action in case of crisis only.
The greater the chance of the bystander the lower the chance to get help in the distress. As described the situation in the question, Eddies' behavior is not controlled by the bystander effect as he immediately went to get help from the other people.
Thus, the answer is- not constrained by the bystander effect.
How does the environment play a part in building immunity?
Answer:
A study now finds that the environment may play a bigger role than genes do in revving up the immune system and shutting it down when the battle is over.
Explanation:
Environmental factors can influence immunity more than our genes do. And as people age, the environment’s impact on immunity grows stronger, the scientists now report.
In the brief time you have to read these questions, ~60 more Americans will lose their fight with Cancer… One per minute… Every minute… Every hour… ~1500 more victims each day. Most of us know someone who has been touched by this disease and the socio-economic burden to the country is large. The financial costs of cancer per year in the US, according to NIH estimates are
Answer: $189.8 billion
as of 2010 this cost was $157 billion
Explanation:
this figure represented the collective estimates of all cases of cancer.
Correct question
In the brief time you have to read these questions, ~60 more Americans will lose their fight with Cancer... One per minute... Every minute... Every hour... ~1500 more victims each day. Most of us know someone who has been touched by this disease and the socio-economic burden to the country is large. The financial costs of cancer 2004 in the US, according to NIH estimates .........
The growth spurt that characterizes pubertal change occurs approximately _____ for girls than for boys.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) states, "I have had steady weight loss, and I am often too tired to eat." Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate for this client?
A. Fatigue related to weight loss secondary to COPD
B. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to fatigue
C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to COPD
D. Ineffective breathing pattern, related to alveolar hypoventilation
Answer:D. Ineffective breathing pattern, related to alveolar hypoventilation
Explanation:
Chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases is a respiratory disorder of the lungs with difficulty with breathing , if an individual has either emphysema, refractory asthma, chronic bronchitis.
If the alveolar is damaged as in emphysema,oxygen can not be absorbed from the lungs, and it , stretched to take in oxygen. The lungs lost it elastic recoil and air is trapped in it
This leads to shortness of breath, and weakness. The weight loss is due to apoptosis of skeletal muscles, in limited oxygen supply.
How can too much sodium affect people with high blood pressure?
A. It can cause the body to absorb iron.
B. It can cause the body to retain water.
C. It can cause the body to dissolve acids.
D. It can cause the body to reduce energy.
Answer:
b. it can cause the body to retain water.
Explanation:
Eating salt raises the amount of sodium in your bloodstream and wrecks the delicate balance, reducing the ability of your kidneys to remove the water. The result is a higher blood pressure due to the extra fluid and extra strain on the delicate blood vessels leading to the kidneys.
The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the use of magnetic resonance imaging (MRIs). Which statement of the nursing student indicates effective learning?a. "Clients with claustrophobia can have an MRI."b. "Clients who are allergic to iodine should not have an MRI."c. "Clients with pacemakers can have an MRI."d. "Clients with surgical clips can go through an MRI."
Answer:
A) "Clients with claustrophobia can have an MRI."
Explanation:
Magnetic resonance imaging is the non-invasive technique developed to take the pictures of the human anatomy and the physiological structures. The MRI technology uses strong radio waves and a magnetic field to produce the detailed structure of the human body.
The MRI is not performed to the person who uses the medical electronic devices and surgical clips like pacemakers as they interfere with the magnetic resonance effect and put the patient to risk. The person who has to undergo remove the jewellery ans other metal objects like surgical clips. The MRI does not involve the iodized products so person allergic to iodine can have the MRI. The person who has fear of enclosed spaces or claustrophobia should consult the doctor as the doctor will suggest the nurse give relaxation modes to cope for the anxiety.Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
What is the most effective method used to monitor clients with asthma that they can use at home?
Answer:
Peak-flow monitor.
Explanation:
Asthma may be defined as the medical condition the breathing airways becomes narrow and produces large amount of mucus. This hinders the normal process of breathing and causes sneezing, coughing.
Peak flow motor is the inexpensive and hand help portable medical device the air flow during one breathe. This can be used by the asthma patients at home. The specific plan for the asthma clients should be in right place and must know the symptom monitoring.
Thus, the answer is peak flow monitor.
According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, successful performance on a simple task requires __________, whereas successful performance on a difficult and complex task requires __________ .
a) low arousal; high arousal
b) moderate arousal; high arousal
c) low arousal; low arousal
d) high arousal; low arousal
Answer:
D - High Arousal; Low Arousal
Explanation:
The Yerkes Dodson law explains the relationship between arousal and performance. It was posited by Robert M. Yerkes and John Dillingham Dodson in 1908.
The law asserts that there is a direct relationship between arousal and performance. An increase in arousal up to a certain level will enhance performance, and once the optimal threshold is exceeded, performance will begin to decline.
Thus arousal should be kept at a midpoint as too little causes boredom, and too much causes hyperactivity, so moderate arousal is optimal.
A simple task requires higher arousal because it uses less cognitive function and brain power thus higher arousal is required to keep interest; while a difficult task requires low arousal since it requires higher cognitive function, it requires lots of focus and higher arousal is not good for intense focus as it causes hyperactivity.
The Yerkes-Dodson law states that the performance on simple tasks is best with high arousal, while complex tasks require low arousal for optimized performance.
Explanation:According to the Yerkes-Dodson law, successful performance on a simple task requires high arousal, whereas successful performance on a difficult and complex task requires low arousal. The correct answer is d) high arousal; low arousal. The Yerkes-Dodson law suggests that there is an inverted U-shaped relationship between arousal and task performance, meaning that moderate levels of arousal are optimal for task performance.
However, the peak of the curve shifts depending on the complexity of the task, with higher arousal being more beneficial for simple tasks and lower arousal levels being more advantageous for complex tasks. This is because high arousal can help maintain concentration on simple tasks, while it can be overwhelming and harmful to performance on complex tasks.
Alcohol and other drugs alter mood and affect the mind by interfering with the central nervous system. True or False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Due to the large number of functions and its sensitivity to changes, the brain is one of the body organs most affected by the consumption of alcohol and other drugs. This consumption is capable of altering any brain function, including reasoning, emotions and judgment.
Although each person tolerates this substance from different foems there are a number of effects of alcohol on the brain that all people experience to a greater or lesser extent. The following will explain what these effects are and their severity.
The first effects that a person who has consumed alcohol or other drugs at any dose may experience include motor disturbances, difficulty walking, slow reaction times or diffuse speech.
There are also a series of more serious consequences that appear between the first moments of alcohol consumption until after hours or even days after ingestion. These effects are as follows:
- Emotional changes
- Memory lapses
- Loss of consciousness
- Impulsiveness
Psychoactive drugs such as alcohol influence the central nervous system by changing nerve impulse transmission, leading to altered mood and mind functions, and can cause addiction.
Explanation:The statement that alcohol and other drugs alter mood and affect the mind by interfering with the central nervous system is true. Psychoactive substances, such as caffeine and alcohol, have an impact on the central nervous system by altering the transmission of nerve impulses in the brain. This can influence mood and behavior as these substances can mimic or interfere with neurotransmitters, the brain's chemical messengers. With continual usage, these substances can lead to drug addiction, as the body becomes physically dependent and users can develop tolerance, experiencing withdrawal symptoms without the substance.
The abuse potential for central nervous system depressants, particularly alcohol, can be quite high, producing psychological and physical dependence.
Greta is 81 years old and has been experiencing hallucinations. She has some motor difficulty, so she falls frequently. At times she loses attention and behaves inappropriately, as if she has no inhibitions. Which disorder is Greta MOST likely suffering from?
Answer:
Lewy Body Dementia
Explanation:
The disease affects chemicals of the brain, which can lead to issues with movement, moods, behaviors, and thinking.
This applies because Greta has motor difficulty leading to falls, she loses, attention, behaves inappropriately, and experiences hallucinations.
The disorder that Greta most likely suffers from is Lewy body dementia. The disease includes hallucination and behavior disorder.
What is Lewy body dementia?Lewy body dementia is a disease that results in declining thinking ability, a person starts to hallucinate and can not control his behavior, slow and improper movement. The symptoms of the lady match this disease.
Thus, the disorder is Lewy body dementia
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Adriana wants to keep her eyes healthy. What vitamin should she add to her diet?
Hello.
The answer is Vitamin A, Vitamin A helps play a big role in the eyes, like keeping the cornea clear.
Answer:
Vitamin A.
Explanation:
Vitamin A is a fat-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in many foods. Vitamin A is important for normal vision, the immune system, and reproduction. Vitamin A also helps the heart, lungs, kidneys, and other organs work properly. There are two different types of vitamin A.
When Oregon realized its Medicaid budget was not large enough to provide comprehensive coverage for all of its poor citizens, it decided not to pay for which of the following because the funds could provide for prenatal care and delivery for 1,500 pregnant women?
Answer:
Organ transplant.
Explanation:
Organ transplantation may be defined as the medical procedure in which the organ of the body is transplanted from the donor's to the recipient's body. The damaged organ can be corrected by this method.
The organs that has been transplanted successfully are heart, kidney and lungs. The organ transplant requires the high budget and can not be easily afford by the poor people. The medicaid budget is not large enough top provide the organ transplantation to all the poor people of the citizen.
Thus, the answer is organ transplant.
Answer:
He did not pay for organ tranplant.
Explanation:
He said that the funds required for 34 transplants could provide prenatal care and delivery to 1500 pregnant women.
Pessimism and other symptoms of depression can set the stage for negative life events, but at the same time negative life events can also lead to pessimism and other symptoms of depression. The uncertainty of the direction by which these relationships exist indicates the importance of remembering the principle of __________.
Answer:
Correlation virus causation.
Explanation:
The uncertainty of the direction by which these relationships exist indicate the importance of remembering the principle of correlation virus causation.
Consider this scenario: Ron has researched how to move into and hold several yoga poses. However, when he attempts poses, he is unable to manipulate his body into each pose, and has difficulty holding some poses. According to SCT, why does Ron have difficulty holding these poses?
Answer:
-Ron needs more behavioral capacity to perform the yoga poses
Explanation:
Ron is having difficulty holding these poses because he needs more behavioral capacity to perform the yoga poses.
SCT means Social Cognitive Theory. It describes the influence of individual learning experiences, reciprocal interaction, environmental factors on individual health behaviors. It provides opportunity for social support by instilling expectations, self-efficacy, reciprocal determinism, observational learning and behavioral capability to achieve behavior change
Behavioral capability or capacity means understanding and having the skill to perform a behavior.
In order for Ron to do yoga poses well he must know what to do and how to do it.
An effective hazards identification process will meet all these criteria except:_________.
Answer:
Secret
Explanation:
Secret is something kept hidden or unexplained.
An effective hazards identification process should be accurate and thorough but does not necessarily include every possible hazard due to practical and economic limitations as well as the unpredictability of new hazards.
Explanation:An effective hazards identification process will include several criteria to ensure that it successfully identifies hazards that could affect human health or the environment. However, the process will meet all criteria except: the assumption that the list must be exhaustive to be effective. While it is important to have a comprehensive list, it is also critical to understand that risk analyses can yield false negatives and that certain hazards may not be identified despite our best efforts.
Examples include the short black list of the Lacey Act that fails to include many invasive species, or inadvertent introductions of pests such as the Asian longhorned beetle through pathways like untreated wooden packing material. An effective identification process should be accurate, thorough, and able to adapt to new information, recognizing that some level of harm may exist as suggested by risk assessments and the precautionary approach to human activities.
Therefore, the inclusion of every possible hazard is not a criterion for an effective hazards identification process due to practical and economic limitations, as well as the dynamic and complex nature of ecosystems and human activities.
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When new parents first bring their babies home from the hospital, they report the transition being difficult especially due to several things. Which of these is NOT one of the things they report being bothered by?
Options missing in the question:
a. relatives and friends visiting for hours on end
b. the baby’s interruption of their sleeping
c. how difficult it is to go places
d. hard to express themselves sexually
Answer:
A is correct: relatives and friends visiting for hours on end. The visit to family and friends doesn't make the parents concerned because their visit is for a short time. This factor can not sustain for long.
Explanation:
According to the developmental scientists, the transition to parenthood is a major transition in one's life. Parenthood changes everything such as emotions, behaviors, relationships, identities, etc. Likewise, constant demands of a new baby and sleeplessness cause hormonal changes.
Why other options are most relevant are due to following reasons:
B. It's hard to take enough sleep for new parents because the baby awakes up in short intervals(after every one or two hours) for milk. Sleeplessness makes new parents difficult to make their nerves strong to handle the transition.
C. Traveling with a newborn is not easy because their eating and sleeping routines can be disturbed. They cannot take proper sleep and start crying during traveling. A diaper change in a strange place is also a difficult task for many mothers (parents).
D. Sometimes parents have difficulty finding time for each other. They cannot express their love to each other as they should. This is because caring for a newborn takes all of their time. It is also because they have all of their attention to baby than each other. They are concerned about this one too.
Freud suggested that for those suffering a generalized anxiety disorder, the anxiety is ______.
Answer:
Free-floating anxiety.
Explanation:
Anxiety may be defined as as a type of the group of the mental disorders, illness or distress that can disturb the normal routine of the life. Anxiety can also be characterized by fear as well.
The emotional state of the chronic stress and the uncertainty arise the free floating anxiety. This is under the category of the generalized anxiety disorder. This is more dangerous as it is more complex and reactions are not focus in the particular.
Thus, the answer is free floating anxiety.
Answer: Free-floating anxiety
Explanation: Free-floating anxiety is a term used by Freud to describe a type of anxiety that is not attached to any specific object, situation, or event. Instead, it is a general feeling of unease and apprehension that can be difficult to identify and manage.
Which symptom, if assessed after the administration of epoetin alfa (Epogen), would be cause for alarm?
Answer:
Many sympthons can happen with the use of Epogen. All of them could be cause of alarm (they are listed below).
Explanation:
Epogen is a human erythropoietin stimulating agent used to treat anemia with chronic kidney disease patients or cancer patients (receiving chemotherapy that will last for at least two months after starting this medication).
The medication stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells or hemoglobin. If hemoglobin levels get high or rise too fast this can cause serious health damage. These risks may also occur even if hemoglobin levels do not increase greatly and the person is using Epogen. It is also used in anemia caused by zidovudine (AZT) use.
If you decide to take Epogen, your doctor should prescribe the lowest dose of Epogen that is required to reduce your chances of red blood cell transfusions. There are several risks of using Epogen, like:
may have severe heart problems such as heart attack, stroke, heart failure and may die sooner if you are treated with Epogen to reach a normal or near normal hemoglobin level. You can form blood clots at any time while taking Epogen. Clots can form in the blood vessels (veins), especially in your leg (deep vein thrombosis or DVT). These blood clots can reach the lungs and block the circulation of blood in this organ (pulmonary embolism).In case of any sympthons, you should be alarm:
Chest pain. Difficulty breathing or shortness of breath. Leg pain, with or without swelling. Arm or leg that becomes cold or pale. Sudden confusion, difficulty speaking or problems understanding what others say. Sudden numbness or weakness in the face, arm or leg, especially when it happens on only one side of the body. Sudden difficulty seeing. Difficulty walking, dizziness, loss of balance. Loss of consciousness (fainting). Vascular access for hemodialysis that stops working.A client is being prepared for peritoneal dialysis. which nursing action is taken first?
Answer: Predialysis care involving documentation of vital signs
Explanation:
The first nursing care carried out for a dialysis patient is usually a predialysis care and this involves documenting vital signs including temperature, blood pressure, (not forgetting orthostatic blood pressure), pulse rate, respiratory rate, and even lung sounds.
They are called baseline data and they help the fluid volume assessment of the patient. Other predialysis nursing care include weight measurements, fluids and dietary restrictions, and even explanations of the various procedures expected to be carried out and possible sensations that will be felt in the process
Answer:
Warm the dialysate
Explanation:
Dialysate should be warmed to body temperature in order to not disrupt tissue temperature; weigh patient before and after dialysis; dialysate is infused into peritoneal cavity and then drained from abdomen after prescribed amount of time.
Consuming many different fruits and vegetables that provide a broad range of essential nutrients describes what diet planning principle?
Answer:
Variety
Explanation:
There are six Diet Planning Principles:
AdequacyBalanceCalorie controlModerationVarietyVariety refers to the consumption of a wide diversity of foods to ensure that the body is received many (if not all) the essential nutrients that are needed in a healthy diet.
In this case, the consumption of many different fruits and vegetables that provide a broad range of essential nutrients describes the variety principle of diet planning.