Which of the following organs is least likely to be damaged in an automobile accident? a. stomach b. intestines c. urinary d. bladder e. liver

Answers

Answer 1
C. urinary bladder

It’s protected in the pelvic cavity by two hip bones
Answer 2

In an automobile accident there is so much damage to the body but the least damage to the Urinary bladder.

The correct option is the Urinary bladder that is least damaged in an automobile accident because it's protected in the pelvic cavity in the 2 hip bones.

Automobile accident-

Whether someone suffers an impact injury or a penetrating injury, the organs that are most frequently damaged in car crashes include Spleen.

The spleen is a commonly injured organ due to its position in the abdomen—under the left rib cage near the stomach.

Thus, the chances of the least damaged organ in an automobile accident is the Urinary bladder option C, protected by a pelvic cavity.

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Related Questions

The Sea World animal trainers use rewards (reinforcements) to teach whales, sea lions and dolphins to perform tricks. These training techniques are based on principles from which early school of psychology?
A. Functionalism
B. Structuralism
C. Behaviorism
D. Cognitive

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is C) Behaviorism

Explanation:

In the world of psychology, behaviorism can be described as an idea that behaviour is influenced by environmental factors. In general terms, behavior is triggered by a stimuli from the environment on an individual.

For example, whales, sea lions and dolphins learn to perform certain tricks because they know they have learned that they will get a reward for their action. Hence, the reward acts as a stimuli for their actions.

Final answer:

Sea World animal trainers use techniques that align with the behaviorism school of psychology. Behaviorism is a theory that behaviors are learnt through conditioning, in this case, positive reinforcement is used to promote desired behaviors.

Explanation:

The Sea World animal trainers make use of training techniques that align with principles from the early school of psychology known as Behaviorism. Behaviorism is essentially the theory that all behaviors are acquired through conditioning. It posits that our responses to environmental stimuli shape our behaviors. Conditioning is carried out through reinforcement or punishment, with the former being the strategy used in this context to train the sea world animals. Hence, when the animals perform a trick correctly, they receive a reward (positive reinforcement), promoting the repetition of that behavior.

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A scientific theory is

A. a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and never been disproven.
B. a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and only been disproven a few times.
C. an opinion.
D. a hypothesis that has been tested at least five times.
E. an idea based on a person's experience or knowledge.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is A. a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and never been disproven.

Explanation:

A hypothesis is an idea or guess or a proposed explanation of any phenomena. When the hypothesis is checked and proved by many experiments and cannot be disproven by anyone then it considered as a scientific theory.

Therefore a scientific theory is a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested by the performing different experiments and never been disproven. For example theory of evolution, natural selection which tell us about the evolution of organism on earth which is proven by Darwin. So the right answer is A.

The study of the matter around us is called science.

The correct answer to the question is option A which is a hypothesis that has been rigorously tested and never been disproven.

What is a theory?A theory is a rational type of abstract thinking about a phenomenon or the results of such thinking. The process of contemplative and rational thinking is often associated with such processes as observational study or research.

A hypothesis is defined as an idea based on a person's experience or knowledge. when the hypothesis is proven right after the rigorously tested in the field it will become theory because the statement he said is right and can not be changed.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

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Explain how organisms are placed into the three major cell lineages or domains. View Available Hint(s) Explain how organisms are placed into the three major cell lineages or domains. analysis of ribosomal RNA analysis of DNA metabolic characteristics physical characteristics?

Answers

Answer:

The three main domains into which the organisms are classified are archaea, bacteria and eukarya.

Archaea : The archaea is more closely related to eukaryotes. Although they have bacteria like metabolism and  have 70'S chromosomes but shows presence of introns and shows similar molecular mechanism like replication, transcription and translation similar to eukaryotes. These are found in the extreme conditions as well.

Bacteria: The bacteria have circular DNA with 70'S ribosomes. The cell membrane has ester linkage and no nucleosome formation occur in bacteria. The transcription and translation are coupled together with no further modification.

Eukarya: The eukaryotes have linear DNA with 80'S ribosomes. The cell membrane has ether linkage and proper nucleosome fprmation occurs in eukarya. The transcription and translation occurs separately in the distinct compartments and further modification occurs.  

The relationship between abstract virtues (principles) and ________ (practice) is often difficult to grasp.

Answers

Answer:

Values

Explanation:

A virtue is a characteristic of a person that supports individual well being and  moral excellence. They are also called principles.

Values on the other hand are what is culturally acceptable.

The relationship between them is that values are desirable qualities whereas virtues are rules.

Sometimes it is difficult to grasp the relationship between the two since most people presume they are similar.

You identify a rare purple plumed parrot. When you cross the parrot to a true breeding white parrot, you get ½ white and ½ purple parrots. When you cross two purple parrots you get 1/3 white parrots and 2/3 purple parrots. Which of the following best explains this result?a. The purple allele is lethal in the homozygous state.b. White is dominant to purple.c. The white allele is lethal in the homozygous state.d. The purple allele is lethal in the heterozygous state.

Answers

Answer:

a. The purple allele is lethal in the homozygous state

Explanation:

You cross a purple parrot with a true breeding (homozygous) white parrot and you get 1/2 purple parrots and 1/2 white parrots. This result can only happen if the purple parrot is heterozygous and the white parrot is homozygous recessive (if any of the parents had been homozygous dominant, 100% of the offspring would have had the dominant phenotype).

Then: Pp (purple) X pp (white) ---> 1/2 Pp, 1/2 pp

When you cross two purple parrots you get 1/3 white parrots and 2/3 purple parrots. The 2:1 phenotypic ratio is typical of a lethal allele in the homozygous state.

In a cross of two purple parrots: Pp

X Pp, one would expect the genotypic ratios 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1pp and the phenotypic ratios 3 Purple : 1 white.

But the PP genotype is lethal, so those individuals die and the only purple parrots we see are the heterozygous ones.

Final answer:

The best explanation for the observed 2:1 ratio of purple to white parrots when two purple parrots are crossed is that the white allele is lethal in the homozygous state, causing the absence of white homozygous offspring.

Explanation:

The crossing of the rare purple plumed parrot with a true breeding white parrot yielding 50% white and 50% purple parrots indicates that purple is a dominant trait while white is recessive. This is further supported by the second cross between two purple parrots yielding 1/3 white and 2/3 purple parrots, which suggests that white allele is lethal in the homozygous state. When heterozygous parents with the lethal allele are crossed, we would expect a 2:1 ratio of purple to white parrots because the white homozygous (recessive lethal) parrots do not survive.

DNA replication is said to be semiconservative. What does this mean?
a. Each new double helix consists of one old and one new strand.
b. The old double helix is degraded, and half of its nucleotides are used in the construction of two new double helices.
c. Half of the old strand is degraded, and half is used as a template for the replication of a new strand.
d. One of the two resulting double helices is made of two old strands, and the other is made of two new strands.
e. One strand of the new double helix is made of DNA, and the other strand is made of RNA.

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Upon discovery of the DNA structure by Watson and Crick, three models were proposed in the 1950's to explain the method in which DNA replicated. One of these models stood out, this model is the SEMICONSERVATIVE MODEL.

In the semiconservative model, it was proposed that a single DNA strand serves as a template for synthesizing its complementary strand. The cell replicates its DNA in the S-phase of interphase. In this phase, the the double-helix of the DNA is separated into two single strands. An enzyme called DNA polymerase then synthesizes a new strand complementary to each separated single strand.

At the end, the replicated double-stranded DNA now contains one old template strand and a new complementary strand.

Final answer:

Semiconservative means that in DNA replication, each new double helix  consists of one old and one new strand, where each strand is used as a template for the new strand, thus conserving half of the original molecule in each new molecule.

Option A

Explanation:

When we say DNA replication is semiconservative, we mean that each new double helix created during replication consists of one 'old' or 'parental' strand and one new or 'daughter' strand. This means that the answer choice 'a. Each new double helix consists of one old and one new strand.' is correct.

The process works as follows: The DNA double helix unzips or unwinds, and each strand is used as a template to synthesize a new complementary strand. This results in two identical DNA molecules, each composed of one old strand (from the original DNA molecule) and one new strand. Thus, each new DNA molecule conserves half of the original molecule, hence the term semiconservative.

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What name is given to the process in which the information encoded in a strand of mRNA is used to construct a protein?

Answers

Answer:

Translation

Explanation:

Translation is the process where mRNA is used to form polypeptide chains which fold into proteins.

The sympathetic chain contains a group of cell bodies called the sympathetic chain Blank 1. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. . This structure contains a second cell body for the sympathetic nervous system, the first in the series being found in the Blank 2. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. lateral horn of spinal segments T1-L2. The purpose of the Blank 3. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. rami is to carry visceral motor and visceral sensory neurons to and from this sympathetic chain.

Answers

Answer:

The sympathetic chain contains a group of cell bodies called the sympathetic chain GANGLIA. This structure contains a second cell body for the sympathetic nervous system, the first in the series being found in the THORACOLUMBAR REGIONS' lateral horn of spinal segments T1-L2. The purpose of the VENTRAL AND DORSAL rami is to carry visceral motor and visceral sensory neurons to and from this sympathetic chain.

Explanation:

The sympathetic trunks (sympathetic chain, gangliated cord) are a paired bundle of nerve fibers that run from the base of the skull to the coccyx.

See the picture attached.

The tree in your backyard is home to two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp's nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria. Together, what do all of these organisms represent?

Answers

Answer:

A community

Explanation:

In ecology, a community is used to describe a group of organisms of different species populations that live and interact together at a particular time in a common habitat or ecosystem.

The two cardinals, colony of ants, a wasp’s nest, two squirrels, and the millions of bacteria represent a community of different organisms dwelling at the backyard tree.

Final answer:

The organisms living in the tree represent a biological community. This is an ecological concept that refers to all the various species living in the same area and interacting with each other.

Explanation:

The tree in your backyard with its inhabitants - two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp's nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria - together represent a biological community. A biological community, in ecological terms, refers to all the various species living in the same area and interacting with each other. The tree provides a habitat for various organisms and their interactions make up the biological community. For instance, the cardinals may eat the ants, while the bacteria may break down fallen leaves from the tree, contributing to nutrient cycling.

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Liza is an early-maturing girl who just reached menarche. She is very upset and is having a difficult time adjusting. Which of the following is the most likely reason for Liza's feelings?a. Liza was unprepared for menarche; her mother hadn't even told her about it yet.b. All of Liza's friends had already reached menarche and she felt left out.c. Liza was well prepared for menarche and had learned a lot from her peers.d. All of Liza's siblings are boys and she feels uncomfortable.

Answers

Answer:

Liza was unprepared for menarche; her mother hadn't even told her about it yet.

Explanation:

The body of the teenagers undergoes through the different physical and physiological change. Both girls and boys becomes reproductively mature and has changed in the voice and development of special physical characters.

The girls starts shows menstruation. The start of the menstruation is known as menarche. The girls should give prior knowledge and support during this stage. In case of Liza, she was unprepared for the menarche and has no prior knowledge. The Liza's mother did not give her any knowledge.

Thus, the correct answer is option (a).

How does a species survive a climate change over thousands of years?
answer choices
It reproduces more rapidly.It hibernates and waits for better climate conditions.It makes no changes.It adapts to the changing climate.

Answers

Answer:

It adapts to the changing climate

Explanation:

Species have to acclimatise to changing climate to enable them survive

A means of adaptation is key for survival of species during climate change

If species do not have acclimatisation strategy, they would not be able to survive the changing climate

Six-year-old Austin is hyperactive and has been tested for ADHD. A school psychologist suggests that Austin's hyperactivity might reflect the influence of some prenatal substance that did not affect his physical development, but instead influenced the development of his brain. Austin might be showing the effects of behavioral _____ that his mother ingested while he was in the womb.

Answers

Answer:

teratogens

Explanation:

The factors or any of the agent that can cause malformations in the development of the embryo are termed as teratogens. Behavioural teratogens are the ones that can cause harm to the development of the brain at the prenatal stage due to which the intellectual ability and the emotional functioning of the child can be affected in the future. The time the effect shows up in the future depends on the stage of the embryo/foetus development at which the child got exposed to the teratogen. In the given situation Austin is suffering from ADHD and hyperactivity that reflects a faulty brain development due to the exposure of teratogens that his mother consumed while he was conceived.

Final answer:

Austin's hyperactivity may be due to prenatal exposure to teratogens like nicotine, which can lead to developmental issues such as ADHD, with factors like maternal stress also playing a role.

Explanation:

Six-year-old Austin is hyperactive and might be showing the effects of behavioral teratogens that his mother ingested while he was in the womb. Teratogens are agents, like chemicals or viruses, that can cause harm to the developing fetus, leading to birth defects or developmental issues such as ADHD. Research has demonstrated that certain substances consumed during pregnancy can have significant impacts on child behavior and development. Notably, exposure to nicotine from cigarette smoke and maternal stress are associated with an increased risk of ADHD symptoms in children. Additionally, environmental toxins and factors such as lead exposure and high levels of prenatal stress from adverse life events are linked to ADHD. However, several misconceptions about ADHD's causes, including sugar intake, food allergies, and poor parenting, have been debunked through research.

if a nondisjunction occurs at anaphase I of the first meiotic division, what will the proportion of banormal gametes (for the chromosomes involved in the nondisjunction)?

Answers

Correct question:

if a nondisjunction occurs at anaphase I of the first meiotic division, what will the proportion of abnormal gametes (for the chromosomes involved in the nondisjunction)?

Answer:

100%

Explanation:

Nondisjunction at meiosis-I means that two homologous chromosomes of at least one homologous pair fail to separate from each other during anaphase-I. This would result in the formation of one cell with one extra chromosome and the other with one less chromosome by the end of meiosis-I. Meiosis-II in these two cells would maintain this chromosome number in the daughter cells. Therefore, out of the total four gametes formed by the end of the meiosis, two would have one extra chromosome and would be denoted as "n+1". The rest of the two gametes would have one less chromosome and would be denoted as "n-1".

_____ on college campuses increases the likelihood of other risky behaviors, such as smoking cigarettes, using drugs, and having multiple sexual partners.

Answers

Answer: Heavy drinking

Explanation:

Heavy drinking in the college campus increases the chances of the misbehave among students and other people.

There can be risky behavior, such as smoking cigarettes, drugs or having sex with multiple partners.

These behavior gets favored in effect of alcohol. The person is not conscious and can behave in a very bad way to the people around him.

Small amounts of hormones have large effects on an organism's physiology because the signals are amplified between glands and tissues in an endocrine axis and within the second messenger systems of individual cells.truefalse

Answers

Answer: True,

Small amounts of hormones have large effects on an organism because the signals are amplified between glands and tissues due to the second messenger systems.

explanation:

Second messemgers are the intracellular molecules which are activated by the extracellular molecules. Second messengers intracellulary triggers physiological changes such as proliferation differentiation migration etc.

When hormones are released they bind to specific receptors such as G-coupled recptors,tyrosine recpetor which when activated further activates second messengers such as cAMP and STAT respectively.

These second messengers amplify the hormone secretion and production by phosphorylation and increasing transcription.

Hence this is true that second messnegers amplify the hormones and their physiological results.

Theodor Schwann and Matthias Schleiden were major contributors to the Cell Theory as we know it. In 1839 Schwann published a book including a summary of his observations into three conclusions about cells: 1. The cell is the unit of structure, physiology, and organization in living things. 2. The cell retains a dual existence as a distinct entity and a building block in the construction of organisms. 3. Cells form by free-cell formation, similar to the formation of crystals (spontaneous generation). Which one of Schwann's statements is no longer accepted as truth? A) Cells are found in both living and nonliving entities. Eliminate B) Cells are distinct identities, not just building blocks. C) Cells form via free cell formation from existing cells only. D) Cells come from free cell formation similar to spontaneous generation.

Answers

Answer:

D) Cells come from free cell formation similar to spontaneous generation.

The claim, which is also a component of Virchow's explanation of the cell theory, is that the cells developed from previously existing cells, hence d is the correct option.

What is cell theory?

Rudolph Virchow was a German biologist who constructed his own hypothesis on the research of other scientists, including Theodor Schwann.

After conducting several research, Virchow disproved the theory of spontaneous generation and insisted that not all cells differentiate, but only a subset of them do.

 

Although Virchow wasn't the one to originally propose the theory that cells originate from already existing cells, he was the one to popularize the idea and add it to the original hypothesis that all living things are composed of cells.

Therefore, cells come from free cell formation which is similar to spontaneous generation is no longer accepted, hence d is the correct option.

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The assumption used in phylogenetics that says the simplest explanation is the most likely to be correct is called _____________ .

Answers

Answer:

Answer is occam's razor.

Explanation:

Phylogenetics explained the evolutionary differences and similarities associated or found in the relationship of two organisms.

Occam razor is a problem solving principle which states that the simplest explanation among sets of explanation on an event is usually the best or perfect one, meaning that simplicity is equal to perfection.

In this case, the simplest explanation of the of the phylogenetics is the best one.

The most obvious change as children move from the sensorimotor to the preoperational stage is an increase in __________.

Answers

Answer:

symbolic activity

Explanation:

A Swiss developmental psychologists named Jean Piaget propounded the theory of cognitive development, which explains how human intelligence and knowledge is being developed and used as an individual progresses from infancy through adulthood.  

Piaget’s theory of development describes this cognitive development of the human intelligence in 4 stages which are: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational and formal operational stage.

The first stage is the sensorimotor stage is observed from birth through ages 18-24 months. At this stage, the child's cognitive development increases as he interacts with his environment and learns how to crawl, stand, and walk.  

As children move to the second stage which is the preoperational stage, they begin to develop some symbolic activities such as early language development, which increases at the end of this stage.  

Final answer:

The most significant change as children enter the preoperational stage from the sensorimotor stage is the development of symbolic thought and language skills, although their understanding remains intuitive and non-logical.

Explanation:

The most obvious change as children transition from the sensorimotor to the preoperational stage is an increase in their symbolic thought and use of language. The preoperational stage is a period between the ages of 2 to 7 where children begin to develop language, imagination, and memory, which allows for the growth of symbolic thought. However, in this stage, while they become adept at using symbols and engaging in pretend play, they show limitations, such as egocentrism and a lack of understanding of the principle of conservation. They may demonstrate a belief that quantity changes when an object's appearance changes, like assuming there is 'more water' in a taller, thinner glass after it has been poured from a shorter, wider one.

Vitamins are specific organic compounds that are required in the diet to aid in digestion of :__________
a) proteins.
b) provide essential amino acids.
c) prevent deficiency diseases.
d) provide fiber

Answers

Answer:

c) prevent deficiency diseases.

Explanation:

Vitamins are essential and specific organic compounds that are required mainly in the diet to facilitate the digestion of protein, however, they are not categorized with amino acids and as such they can't provide essential amino acid.

Vitamins are categorized into fat soluble vitamins(A,D,E and K) and water soluble vitamins (B anc C). Vitamins provides several to hundred of roles, majorly they helps  to prevent deficiency diseases. Few of their roles are:

Vitamin A helps to prevent blindness. Food sources to obtain vitamin A include spinach, cod liver oil etc.

Vitamin D helps to maintain skeletal structure due to the calcium content embedded in Vitamin D. Therefore, lack of vitamin D can cause rickets.

Vitamin B-complexes e.g B-1 (thiamin) helps in synthesis of certain hormones,  B-2 (riboflavin) which asssists in breakdown of fats and energy production. It can be gotten from Milk, youghurt etc. Deficiency in these vitamin B-complexes can cause heart-related disease, skin disorders, anemia etc.

Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.)

Answers

Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.

a. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid only in meiosis II.

b. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid only in meiosis II.

c. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis Il. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis lI

d. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis !, and remains haploid in meiosisI.

e. DNA content is halved only in meiosis I. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis I

Answer:

c. DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.

Explanation:

Anaphase-I of meiosis-I includes the movement of homologous chromosomes to the opposite poles of the cell. This even reduces the chromosome number to half in the daughter cells formed by the end of meiosis-I. Therefore, diploid cells become haploid by the end of meiosis-I. Since chromosomes carry DNA, a reduction in chromosome number also reduces the DNA content of the cells to half in meiosis-I.  

Anaphase-II in meiosis-II separates the sister chromatids of each chromosome from each other. These sister chromatids move to the opposite poles of the cell. This event further reduces the DNA content of the cell to half but the chromosome numbers are maintained.  

Therefore, a cell with 2C DNA and 2n (diploid) chromosomes form two daughter cells having "C" DNA and "n" chromosomes by the end of meiosis-I. Meiosis-II in each of these daughter cells would form a total of 4 daughter cells each having "n" chromosomes and "C" DNA content.

Final answer:

The DNA content is reduced by half in meiosis I and remains the same in meiosis II. The ploidy level remains the same in meiosis I and is reduced by half in meiosis II.

Explanation:Cellular DNA content and ploidy levels during meiosis I and meiosis II:

During meiosis I, the DNA content is reduced by half, while the ploidy level remains the same. This is because homologous chromosomes separate, resulting in the formation of two haploid cells. In meiosis II, the DNA content remains the same, but the ploidy level is reduced to half. This is because sister chromatids separate, resulting in the formation of four haploid cells.

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Some pigs learned to pick up and deposit wooden coins in a piggy bank, but soon the pigs were more often dropping the coins and pushing them with their snouts. This best illustrates the concept of ________ in operant conditioning.a) Conditioned reinforcementb) latent learningc) generalizationd) biological predisposition

Answers

Answer:

Biological predisposition.

Explanation:

Operant conditioning may be defined as the form of the learning that are mainly associated with the punishments and rewards of an individual. John B. Watson introduces the concept of operant conditioning.

The learning of the pigs to pick the coins and its deposition in the bank is considered as rewarded with some conditions. The biological predisposition occurs in the memory of the pigs as this increases the likelihood works of the pigs.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

Angiosperms, flowering plants, and gymnosperms, cone-bearing plants, reproduce using egg, sperm, and produce seeds. In gymnosperms, like the tree seen here, sperm and eggs can be found in different cones. What is the most common way these trees undergo pollination?

Answers

Final answer:

Gymnosperms primarily rely on wind pollination for reproduction, where male cones release pollen that is carried by the wind to female cones containing ovules. The positioning of male and female cones on the tree aids in promoting cross-pollination.

Explanation:

The most common way that gymnosperms, such as coniferous trees, undergo pollination is through wind pollination. In this process, the male cones release pollen, which is a fine powder containing male gametophytes that produce sperm. The pollen is then carried by the wind to reach the female cones, which contain the ovules and the female gametophytes. The female cones are typically larger and located higher on the tree, whereas the male cones are generally smaller and found lower. This strategic placement reduces the chances of self-pollination and promotes cross-pollination between different trees, enhancing genetic diversity.

Gymnosperms, which include conifers such as pines, rely on this method because they do not produce flowers to attract pollinators. As a result, they depend on the wind to transport pollen between the male and female cones, facilitating sexual reproduction and the eventual development of seeds.

Most gymnosperms, such as conifers, undergo pollination through wind dispersal.

This method is highly efficient and relies on the wind to carry pollen from male cones (which produce pollen grains containing sperm) to female cones (which contain egg cells).

When the wind blows, it carries the lightweight pollen grains over considerable distances, increasing the chances of fertilization. Once the pollen lands on the receptive surface of the female cone, fertilization occurs, leading to the formation of seeds.

This process allows gymnosperms to reproduce successfully without the need for external agents like insects or animals. Thus, wind pollination is the most common way gymnosperms undergo pollination, ensuring their continued survival and propagation in various environments.

A client undergoes a total hip replacement. Which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that the client requires further teaching?/422563363/chapter-42-prepu-nursing-management-patients-with-musculoskeletal-trauma-flash-cards.

Answers

Answer:

I don't know if I'll be able to get off that low toilet seat at home by myself.

Explanation:

The total hip replacement surgery is performed in the patient that have injury in their hip part and the prosthetic hip is used in the surgery. The defects in the body parts can be corrected by this surgery.

The client concern about the use of the toilet seat requires further teaching.  The patient is not allowed to bend the hips and requires the devices like raised toilet seat while using the washroom and abduction pillow for the prevention of the hip dislocation.

Natural selection suggests that creatures with mutations disadvantageous to survival will not live to reproduce, yet there are examples, such as albino animals, found occasionally. Do these exceptions discredit natural selection? Explain your answer.

Answers

Answer: No

Explanation: It is beneficial if the animals that are disadvantageous doesn't reproduce so it doesn't discredit natural selection. The traits in which variation is occured are more suitable for organism to live and reproduce in the environment are preserved and are passed from generation to generation.

However, natural selection effects limited number of progeny.

Answer: These types of exceptions do NOT discredit natural selection.

Explanation: Natural selection is based on the odds that certain traits will not adapt well in certain environments and ecosystems. It recognizes that organisms with mutations may be disadvantageous or not since the mutation is non-specific. In instances such as albinoism, the mutation is more likely to be disadvantageous though in some environments (like the desert) it could be a benefit. Natural selection is not an exact science or absolute rule, it is based on probabilities and variations, so exceptions will always exist.

What is the molecular movements is due to diffusion or osmosis?

Answers

Answer:

is the movement of substances due to random thermal molecular motion. is the diffusion constant, representative values of which are found in [link]. Osmosis is the transport of water through a semipermeable membrane from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.

Explanation:

To enhance diagnostic specificity, DSM-5 replaced the previous "not otherwise specified" (NOS) designation with two options for clinical use: Other Specified [disorder] and Unspecified [disorder]. Which of the following statements about use of the Unspecified designation is true?
a. The Unspecified designation is used when the clinician chooses not to specify the reason that criteria for a specific disorder were not met.
b. The Unspecified designation is used when there is no recognized Other Specified disorder (e.g. recurrent brief depressions, sexual aversion).
c. The Unspecified designation is used when the individual has fewer than three symptoms of any of the recognized disorders within the diagnostic class.
d. The Unspecified designation is used when the individual presents with symptomatology
of disorders in two or more diagnostic classes.
e. The Unspecified designation is used when the clinician believes the condition is of a
temporary nature.

Answers

Answer:

The statement that is true about unspecified designation is that the unspecified designation is used when the clinician chooses not to specify the reason that criteria for a specific disorder were not met.

Explanation:

It is dependent on the conscience of the clinician whether or not to disclose and diagnosis before a solid evidence of the persistence of a specific disorder is obtained. The clinician is not bound to make a disclosure in case of an unspecified designation but he can also choose to give out some primary information.

What is a species? Question 10 options: A group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one another.

Answers

Answer: The statement is true

Explanation:

Species is a group of similar organisms whose members freely interbreed with one another but a member of a species cannot interbreed with a member of another species.

For example, all human beings belong to a species, while all giraffes belong to a different species, So both human beings and giraffes cannot interbreed.

So, the statement is true

A researcher wants to determine if a new treatment program of yoga and vitamin A will improve test-taking skills in college students. To ensure that participants in the experimental condition are very similar to participants in the control condition, the researcher should:a. Randomly assign the participants to the conditions.
b. Choose the first people who signed up for the study to be in the control condition.
c. Ask for volunteers from a local yoga school.
d. Let the participants choose whether they want to be in the experimental or control condition.

Answers

Answer:

Option a

Explanation:

Random selection or random sampling from a given population is the most appropriate way, especially in experimental studies. This method is simple and accurate. According to the above-mentioned case, if the researcher selects students randomly for the experimental and control group, then each of them would have an equal chance of selection. Hence, the results would be generalized and not biased.

Bacteria are extremely diverse in structure and in how they obtain energy and nutrients. This diversity enables bacteria to live in a wide variety of environments. Classify each statement or picture as applying to gram-positive bacteria, gram-negative bacteria, or both. Drag each item to the appropriate bin.

Answers

Answer and explanation:

Gram positive bacteria :

1) They retain crystal violet stain thus staining purple

2)They only produce exotoxins.

3)Peptidoglycan is thicker and multilayered

4)Techoic acids are present in their cell walls.

5)Lipopolysaccharides are absent in their cell wall.

6)No periplasmic space present

Gram negative bacteria :

1) They retain red safaranin stain thus stain pink.

2)They produce both exotoxins as well as endotoxins.

3)Peptidoglycan is thinner and single layered.

4)Techoic acids are absent in their cell walls.

5)Lipopolysaccharides are present in their cell wall.

6)Periplasmic space in present.

Answer:

Gram staining is a technique for classifying bacteria based on differences in the structure of their cell walls. Gram-negative bacteria and gram-positive bacteria both have a plasma membrane surrounded by a cell wall that contains peptidoglycan. However, the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria is composed of a thin layer of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane, whereas the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is composed of a thick layer of peptidoglycan. Gram-negative bacteria appear red or pink because the alcohol rinse washes away the crystal violet dye. Gram-positive bacteria appear purple because the alcohol rinse does not wash away the crystal violet dye.

Explanation:

Ira brags about how wonderful he is, talks endlessly about his accomplishments, and pushes people to admire him. He lashes out when his inflated sense of importance is threatened by others. Ira would rate high in a measure of ________.

Answers

Answer:

Narcissism

Explanation:

Narcissism is a kind of personality disorder in which a person has a sense of admiration, fragile self-esteem and heightened sense of self importance. People with such disorder face serious problems in their relationships and are always disappointed if not given favors and admiration. Other people do not prefer to stay around a narcissist. They have a tendency to monopolize communication ad perceive other people inferior to themselves.

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