Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) is the trained responder to treat the injured persons.
A bandage is a material which is used to keep the dressing in its place to control the bleeding but not to interfere with the blood circulation.
Bandages are of many types like Adhesive tapes, Self-adherent, Triangular bandage and other bandages.
Tourniquets are the device used by the professional which could limit the flow of blood but does not stop the circulation. EMT does not use the Tourniquets to treat the wounds.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
A client's increase in biceps strength from performing dumbbell curls is evidence of which fitness principle?
Answer:
The correct answer is specificity principle
Explanation:
General physical fitness is necessary for participating and playing any game but to improve a particular skill which is required in a particular game the principle of specificity comes into play.
For example, a weight lifter will do specific training to improve its muscle strength like lifting heavy weights while a cross country runner will focus on endurance training than improving muscle strength and power.
So increasing biceps strength by performing dumbbell curls is the example and evidence of specificity principle.
During the elementary school years, children grow an average of ________ inches a year.A. 1 to 2
B. 2 to 3
C. 3 to 4
D. 4 to 5
Answer: I think it’s B!!!!!
Explanation:
A chemical substance can travel from lungs to the brain in __________.a. five to eight seconds b. about a minute and a half c. about the same time as when injected sub-Q d. one-half second or less
Answer:
Five to eight second.
Explanation:
The living organisms are made of the chemical. The hormone, receptors and any information that travels in the body are mainly depends on the chemical substances present in the body.
Chemical substance needs to be travel in the body whenever its require. The speed of the chemical substance depends upon its nature whether the substance is polar or non polar and at the site in which the substance is released. The chemical that travels from the lungs to the brain can travel maximum into 5 to 8 seconds.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
The ability of the body to resist infection from disease-causing microorganisms or pathogens, damage from foreign substances and harmful chemicals is known as
The body's ability to resist infection and damage from foreign substances is referred to as the immune system. This system comprises cells, tissues, and organs such as white blood cells, which play a significant role in combating pathogens.
Explanation:The ability of the body to resist infection from disease-causing microorganisms or pathogens, damage from foreign substances, and harmful chemicals is known as the immune system. The immune system defends the body from invading substances and is made up of a network of cells, tissues, and organs that work together to protect the body. For example, white blood cells are one of the body's main defenses against disease-causing microorganisms, capable of identifying and destroying pathogens. The strength and efficiency of the immune system can be influenced by factors including nutrition, stress, exercise, and sleep.
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The body's ability to resist infections and damage from foreign substances is known as the immune system. It consists of nonspecific innate immunity and specific adaptive host defenses. Through physical barriers and internal defenses, such as inflammation and secretion of immune factors, the body defends itself against pathogens.
Explanation:The ability of the body to resist infection from disease-causing microorganisms or pathogens, damage from foreign substances, and harmful chemicals is known as the immune system. It can be described as two interrelated parts: nonspecific innate immunity and specific adaptive host defenses. Part of the immune system is the physical and chemical barriers which act as the first line of defense.
The skin, for instance, acts as a continuous, impassable barrier to potentially infectious pathogens. Not only do physical barriers deter pathogens, but the body also deploys internal defense mechanisms when pathogens enter the body, such as inflammation, pathogen engulfment, and secretion of immune factors and proteins.
Despite the body’s powerful defenses, it is important to mention that pathogens may sometimes overcome these mechanisms. Hence the immune system must continually adapt and respond to the ever-evolving threats of pathogens. The immune system’s ability to protect the body is crucial in maintaining overall health.
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A client is performing a prone iso-ab exercise. The trainer notices that he is not able to maintain proper alignment. How should the exercise be regressed
Answer:
Perform in a standard push-up position.
Explanation:
Exercise are important for the individual to stay fit and healthy. Different individuals perform different exercise according to their body need and for their strength development.
Iso ab exercise is done to increase their body strength. The abdominal muscle get contracted during this exercise. If the individual is not able to perform this exercise, the exercise can be regressed by performing the pusp up positions.
Thus, the answer is perform in a standard push-up position.
Mei-Ling and Stefon have to give a presentation together. They disagree about what should be the main points of the presentation and begin to argue. After much disagreement, Mei-Ling suggests that they each make a list of points they like and don't like about each other's ideas. Then, they combine the liked points from each of these lists and make them into the main points of the presentation. Which type of conflict resolution did Mei-Ling use?
The correct answer is; negotiation and compromise.
Further Explanation:
Since Mei-Ling and Stefon both had a disagreement on the main points, it was going to be an issue to continue with the presentation. Mei-Ling did the best thing in the situation and negotiated with Stefon and then came to a compromise.
When someone negotiates a deal, they try and reach a compromise that will satisfy both parties. In this case, they made lists of things they disliked and things they liked. They both compromised and combined the lists of things they both liked and included this into the presentation. By doing this, there were no hard feelings, both had their points heard, and the presentation went forward with no further issues.
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Answer:
C on edge!
Explanation:
To reduce the risk of neural tube birth defects in infants, the mother-to-be should consume adequate amounts of __________ prior to conception.
Answer:
Folic acid.
Explanation:
Vitamins are the important chemicals compounds required in the body in the adequate small amount. Their deficiency in the individual might cause a characteristics disease.
The proper vitamins and diet supplements are necessary for the pregnant woman. Their deficiency can cause abnormal development of the offspring. The folic acid is a type of the vitamin B and its deficiency may be responsible for the neural tube defects in the child.
Thus, the answer is folic acid.
The primary somatosensory cortex interprets incoming somatic sensory information such as touch or temperature. Different areas of the body have a higher density of sensory receptors and in turn a higher proportion of the primary somatosensory cortex dedicated to it. Which body region would you expect to have the highest density of sensory receptors?
The body region you would expect to have the highest density of sensory receptors and a higher proportion of the primary somatosensory cortex dedicated to it is the face and fingers.
What are sensory receptors?Sensory receptors are specialized cells that detect and respond to stimuli from the environment, such as light, sound, pressure, temperature, and chemicals. These receptors are activated by stimuli, which trigger a nerve impulse that is sent to the central nervous system.
The central nervous system then processes the information and generates an appropriate response. Sensory receptors are found in various parts of the body, such as the skin, inner ear, eye, nose, and tongue. They are specialized for specific types of stimuli and vary in their sensitivity, distribution, and structure. Sensory receptors play a crucial role in our perception of the world and allow us to respond to our environment by enabling us to see, hear, touch, smell, and taste.
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Which of the following foods or drinks would be best to consume immediately following exercise such as resistance training
a) fiber-rich carbohydrates, such as whole-grain bread, and legumes and other vegetables
b) simple carbohydrates, such as sports drinks, fruit, and yogurt
c) lean proteins, such as lean meats, poultry, fish, and legumes
d) None of these
Answer:
The correct option is B) simple carbohydrates, such as sports drinks, fruit, and yogurt
Explanation:
Our body stores carbohydrates in the form of glycogen. During exercise sessions, the glycogen stored is converted into glucose. Glucose is the main energy source of the body and is used to produce ATP by cellular respiration.
After exercise,the glycogen storage in the body gets lowered. Hence, to store carbohydrates in the form of glycogen we need to intake simple carbohydrates such as a sports drinks, fruits etc to compensate.
People with an eating disorders can seek professional help to overcome their disorder or can wait until the disorder goes away on its own.
a. Trueb. False
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Eating disorders are a range of psychological conditions that cause unhealthy eating habits to develop. They might start with an obsession with food, body weight, or body shape.
In severe cases, eating disorders can cause serious health consequences and may even result in death if left untreated.
Those with eating disorders can have a variety of symptoms. However, most include the severe restriction of food, food binges, or purging behaviors like vomiting or over-exercising.
Although eating disorders can affect people of any gender at any life stage, they're most often reported in adolescents and young women. In fact, up to 13% of youth may experience at least one eating disorder by the age of 20.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Kayla's therapist first taught her mindfulness meditation so she could focus on the present. Then, Kayla and her therapist talked about events in Kayla's past that led to her current problems. Now her therapist is teaching her to have self-respect and to think for herself. Kayla is probably being treated for ___________.a. borderline personality disorder.
b. depression.
c. antisocial personality disorder.
d. OCD.
Answer:
I would say the correct answer is B. depression.
When you have depression, it's hard to focus and stay present since you're so wrapped up in your thoughts. In addition, depression is very related to self care and self respect, which is why Kayla is working on self-respect with her therapist.
Sorry it's a bit late, but I hope this helps.
You are taking part in a study on relationships and pain. You are asked to place your hand in freezing-cold water for as long as you can. It becomes quite painful after a few minutes. Given what you know about the neurochemistry of close relationships, under what condition do you think you would subjectively experience the least pain?
Answer:
You will experience the least pain when your romantic partner is in the room with you with his or her hand on your shoulder.
Explanation:
Which of the following is a common exclusion in a medical expense plan:_______
A. Loss due to an accident
B. Minor surgical procedure
C. Office visit expense
D. Loss due to Workers' Compensation
Answer: D. Loss due to Workers' Compensation
Explanation:
Medical expense plan includes the finance which can be used for health related emergency like accident, surgery, implantation, and pregnancy. The medical expense plan also covers drugs and medicine prescription, arrangement of equipment like stunts, wheelchair, eyeglasses and others required for medical treatment.
Worker's compensation is a kind of medical insurance that provides benefits to the workers who are suffering from job related hazards, injuries and illnesses. It is excluded from the medical expense plan.
Final answer:
A common exclusion in a medical expense plan is loss due to Workers' Compensation.
Explanation:
In a medical expense plan, a common exclusion is loss due to Workers' Compensation. Workers' Compensation is a type of insurance that provides benefits to workers who suffer injuries on the job and is separate from a medical expense plan.
This exclusion exists because Workers' Compensation insurance covers work-related injuries separately, so they are not typically covered under a medical expense plan.
For example, if a person gets injured while working and is eligible for Workers' Compensation benefits, their medical expenses related to the injury would be covered by the Workers' Compensation insurance, not the medical expense plan.
A 10-month-old child has been brought into the emergency room (ER) by her parents, who state that after few days with low-grade fever, malaise, and rhinorrhea, their child presented with a "barking" cough and increased work of breathing. What condition is this child likely exhibiting?
Answer:
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
Explanation:
Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) can be described as a type of infection of the respiratory tract which is caused by a virus. Due to this, swelling inside the trachea occurs in children which leads to the symptoms associated with barking. Heavy cough and strained voice are characterized in this condition. Fever and flu are also common in this condition.
Hence, we can see that the child represents all the symptoms of Laryngotracheobronchitis.
You want to look up and to your right. Which extrinsic eye muscles would be the most active in each eye?
A. right eye: superior oblique left eye: superior rectus
B. right eye: superior rectus left eye: superior rectus
C. right eye: inferior oblique left eye: superior rectus
D. right eye: superior rectus left eye: inferior oblique
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The right eye plus the inferior oblique left eye and superior rectus.
Which of the following is NOT a maternal benefit of breastfeeding?
a. Minimizes postpartum blood loss
b. Helps uterus return to nonpregnant size
c. Delays return to fertility
d. MAY help lose weight more quickly
e. All of the above would be considered benefits of breastfeeding
Answer:
E - All of the above would be considered benefits of breastfeeding
Explanation:
Breastfeeding is the feeding of newborns and young ones with milk from the breast of the mother. It provides the ideal nutrition for infants as it contains an almost perfect combination of vitamins, fat and protein required for a baby to grow and develop.
Although it is a personal choice, It is usually recommended by gynecologist to be done exclusively for 6 months after giving birth.
It has many benefits for both mother and child and all the options listed above (from A-D) can be considered maternal benefits of breastfeeding.
Which of the following is a true statement?
a. Estrous cycles are more frequent than menstrual cycles.
b. Estrous cycles are not controlled by hormones.
c. All mammals have menstrual cycles.
d. The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles.
e. Ovulation occurs before the endometrium thickens in estrous cycles.
Answer: A) The endometrial lining is shed in menstrual cycles but reabsorbed in estrous cycles.
Explanation:
The endometrium can be defined as the inner layer of the epithelium. It along with the mucous membrane forms the covering of the mammalian uterus. It is the basal and functional layer of the uterus. This layer thickens and then shed during the menstruation cycle in humans and in some other mammals including the apes, monkeys, bats and elephants. But the endometrium layer is reabsorbed in the estrous cycle.
which form of managed care restricts providers to caring for individuals who are memebers of theri organization?
Answer: Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
Explanation:
The answer is Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) which is in contrast with Preferred Provider Organization (PPO), Point of Service Plan (POS), and Exchange Provider Organization (EPO).
This type of managed care restricts providers to caring for individuals within its organization.
Health Maintenance Organization provide a wide range of comprehensive health care services for the benefits of its members usually in exchange for a fixed periodic payment which could be monthly or even annually depending on the prearrangement.
In this type of managed care, the Health maintenance Organization coordinates all the basic health care of their members.
Answer:
Health maintenance organization (HMO)
Explanation:
A health maintenance organization (HMO) is a network or organization that provides health insurance coverage for a monthly or annual fee. An HMO is made up of a group of medical insurance providers that limit coverage to medical care provided through doctors and other providers who are under contract to the HMO.
A person with sight in only one eye lacks which of the following visual cues for seeing in depth?a. retinal disparity
b. linear perspective
c. motion parallax
d. relative size
Answer:
The correct answer is a. retinal disparity
Explanation:
Humans have two eyes that see the image at slightly different angles and for perception depth it is important to see the object from both the eyes. Retinal disparity is the way which helps in depth perception.
In this situation, the image seen by both the eyes at different angles is processed by the brain and after processing it is seen as a single image with the correct depth of the image. In many situations retinal disparity comes into play like diving.
Therefore if a person lacks an eye then retinal disparity is the visual cue that would be lacked by him.
A person with sight in only one eye lacks retinal disparity for seeing in depth.
Depth perception is first produced by retinal disparity, that is, the difference between the images of the two eyes, from which this difference is transformed into depth perception or stereopsis.
That is, retinal disparity is the difference in monocular images produced by the projection of points of the visual field provided by both eyes.
The lateral shift of the eyes provides two slightly different views of the same object (slightly different retinal images).Retinal disparity is essential for stereoscopic depth perception resulting from the fusion of slightly disparate images.Therefore, we can conclude that a person with sight in only one eye lacks retinal disparity.
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Research suggests that older adults require ______ the current RDA for protein for adults.
1. more than
2. less than
3. the same amount as
Answer:
1: More than
Explanation:
As people get older, their body starts to deteriorate, and their functions are slowed down. A person who is 70 is much more fragile than someone in their 20s. The body of an elderly person starts to absorb less nutrients, as their body starts slowing down, therefore when you get older, it is natural to take some supplements or medication. Research suggests that older adults require more than the current RDA (Recommended Daily Amount) for protein for adults.
The physical fitness standard is associated with the lowest fitness requirements for maintaining good health.True / False.
Answer:
I think that is False. Hope its right
Final answer:
The statement that the physical fitness standard is associated with the lowest fitness requirements for maintaining good health is False. Good health requires a well-rounded fitness level with diverse components, and regular physical activity leads to improved fitness and numerous health outcomes.
Explanation:
The statement 'The physical fitness standard is associated with the lowest fitness requirements for maintaining good health' is False. At least a minimal level of physical fitness is essential for carrying out daily activities without being physically challenged. However, good health is not merely the absence of disease or the lowest level of fitness, but it involves a well-rounded level of fitness that includes aspects such as cardiorespiratory endurance, muscle strength, muscle endurance, flexibility, and body composition.
Engaging in regular physical activity can lead to improved physical fitness, which is a significant health outcome. Research, like the systematic review by Fogelholm (2010), has shown a correlation between physical activity and decreased mortality, morbidity, and disease risk factors. Therefore, it's crucial not to settle for the 'lowest fitness requirements,' but instead to engage in at least 30 minutes of moderate physical activity, for a minimum of three days per week to reap significant health benefits.
A positive correlation indicates that there are indeed health benefits to the variable under investigation, like the increased physical activity. These benefits are not just limited to disease prevention but also to enhancing the quality of life and potentially extending life expectancy. For those who are insufficiently active, an increase in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity can result in greater relative gains in benefits compared to those already meeting the guidelines.
Which of the following is true of the thermic effect of food (TEF)? Group of answer choices The amount of energy associated with TEF is independent of the amount of food consumed. Fatty foods have higher TEFs than high-protein foods. TEF is estimated to be about 50–75 percent of total energy intake. TEF is the cost associated with the body's utilization of the foods a person eats.
Answer: TEF is the cost associated with the body’s utilization of the foods a person needs,
Explanation:
The thermic effect of food, is the energy needed for digestion, absorption and removal of waste product of metabolism.That is the value of energy spent which is above the basal metabolic rate from the cost of utilization of the food by the body,
It is highest in protein, lowest in fat,about 10% of total energy intake,it varies with the type of food consumed.
Therefore the correct answer is ;TEF is the cost associated with the body’s utilization of the foods a person needs,
Why is acute pain said to be protective in nature?
A) It enables the person to increase personal strength.
B) It warns an individual of tissue damage or disease.
C) As a subjective experience, it serves no purpose.
D) As an objective experience, it aids diagnosis.
Answer: D) As an objective experience, it aids diagnosis.
Explanation:
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Acute pain is said to be protective in nature because it warns an individual of tissue damage or disease.
The physically inactive person should train around the ______ intensity during the first weeks of training.
Answer:
The correct answer is - 30 to 40 minutes.
Explanation:
A physical inactive person is a person who is not getting enough physical inactive as per recommended level. This type of person is needed to have extra intense physical exercise with aerobic exercise.
The American Heart Association recommends to the physically inactive person to train around 30 to 40 minutes of intense thrice or four times for the first weeks of training. It helps in developing cardiovascular health in an individual.
Thus, the correct answer is - 30 to 40 minutes.
Which is a potentially life-threating condition found during the primary triage survey that would necessitate priority nursing care?
Answer: Concussion
Explanation:
Primary triage survey is done as a part of the initial assessment of an injured person. It is to check the injuries, stability of the vital organs, and the mechanism of injury.
Concussion can be the first finding of the primary triage survey. It will be visible on the head. It results in the brain injury. The effects can be temporary or severe. The person may loose memory, coordination and may lead to coma.
Which vitamin is added to enriched grains and cereals in order to reduce the risk of birth defects?
Answer: Folic acid
Explanation:
Folic acid is a Vitamin B. It is the vitamin that helps to make new cells in the body, it helps to reduce the birth defects related to brain and spine thus must be taken by the pregnant mothers.
The foods enriched with cereals, breads and other grains, dried beans, green vegetables, nuts and dried beans are the sources of folic acid.
What type of study compares self-reports of physical activity with rates of illness and mortality?
Answer:
Epidemiologic study (analytics)
Explanation:
Epidemiologic study is a study that focuses on the occurrence of a phenomenon in a representative population or sample. It is based on observation of facts and their variations.
DESCRIPTIVE: analyzes the distribution of the phenomenon as a function of time, place and the characteristics of people through it to identify possible risk factors and its origin and mode of propagation. It raises hypotheses.
ANALYTICS: seeks to identify the relationship between the phenomenon and various factors or conditions to which it may be attributed behavior and distribution. Tests hypotheses of causal relationship between exposure factors and events.
Which of the following assessments is commonly used in exercise physiology laboratories to measure body fat composition?
a. Skinfold caliper measurement
b. Bioelectrical impedance
c. BMI measurement
d. Hydrostatic weighing
Answer:
d. Hydrostatic weighing
Explanation:
Body fat percentage is the most reliable indicator for establishing the ideal weight of a person, but it is also the most difficult to measure. Generally, a man with more than 25% body fat is considered obese. The percentage is increased to 30% in the case of women.
There are different formulas to calculate the percentage of body fat, but unlike other methods such as BMI or waist circumference, which can be calculated easily, this percentage is difficult to measure accurately. For this, different solutions can be used:
One of them, hydrostatic weighing, consists in weighing the person under water, although this technique is complex and can only be carried out by laboratories that have the necessary equipment.
Tissue growth by cells dividiging in response to a normal demand, such as callus formation on our hands when we work hard, is called_____________.
Answer:
hyperplasia
Explanation:
Cellular adaptation refers to the ability of the cell to change in order to respond to any changes that occur in the environment. Oftentimes, the changes are adverse. The adaptations can be seen in different situations such as hypertrophy, atrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia or dysplasia.
We will focus on hyperplasia.
Hyperplasia- this refers to an increase in tissue size as a result of an increase in the number of cells. There are two types of hyperplasia, the physiological and the pathological. Callus formation is a physiological type of hyperplasia because the growth occurs only in the epithelial cells and the growth is not abnormal. The callus is formed because it tries to protect the injured site. An abnormal growth of cells signals a pathological hyperplasia.
Physiological Hyperplasia is the term for normal tissue growth by cell division in response to a demand, such as callus formation from hard work.
Explanation:The tissue growth you're referring to, where cells divide to meet a normal demand, such as the formation of a callus when we carry out hard work, is known as Physiological Hyperplasia. Hyperplasia, in general, is a term that refers to the multiplication of cells leading to the enlargement of a tissue or organ. The 'physiological' part means it happens as a normal response to a stimulus, not due to a disease setting. In the case of a callus, for example, the skin cells in our hands divide more than usual to add extra protection against the physical demand posed by the hard work. This is a protective mechanism by the body.
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A serving of food labeled reduced fat has at least 25% less fat and 25% fewer calories than a full-fat version of the same food.True or False?
Answer:
False
Explanation:
It may have 25% less fat but may not have fewer Calories than a full-fat version of the same food.