Which particle has a high rate of deposition?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

A particle with jagged, rough ends has a high rate of deposition.

Explanation:

When erosion takes place, the particles of rocks move from one place to another and then they get settled on the new place. Those particles which have round shaped ends cannot settle quickly because they can be easily pushed by air and again moved but particles having rough ends get stuck in the soil or surface of earth and they are settled quickly.

Answer 2
Final answer:

The particle with a high rate of deposition could either be an alpha particle, due to its interaction with high electron densities like in lead, resulting in quick loss of kinetic energy, or sediment particles in water bodies, due to gravitational pull and terminal velocity.

Explanation:

The concept of 'deposition' can mean different things in different contexts. In the context of the physical sciences, it is usually related to the process by which a substance changes from a gas phase to a solid phase without passing through an intermediate liquid phase - this process is often observed in alpha particles. However, when it comes to movement and settlement of particles, sediment in a body of water might come to mind which has a slow deposition rate as the terminal velocity is quite low.

Depending on the context, the particle with a high deposition rate can either be an alpha particle or sediment particles in a body of water. Alpha particles have a high rate of deposition due to their interaction with high electron densities, such as in lead, where they lose their kinetic energy quickly and deposit on surfaces. On the other hand, sediment in a water body can have a higher rate of deposition due to gravitational pull and the terminal velocity at which they're able to move. This has been studied extensively in places like particle colliders, where subatomic particles are made to move at high speeds, including the alpha particle.

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Related Questions

What do birds need in order to maintain their body temperature?
Food they eat for storing carbohydrates
Plenty of food and water
Food they eat for energy
Carbohydrates and water
PLEASE QUICK MY QUIZ IS TIMEF

Answers

Food they eat for storing carbohydrates

The correct answer is: Carbohydrates and water.

Birds, like all endothermic animals, need to maintain their body temperature through metabolic processes. Carbohydrates are a primary source of energy that birds derive from their food, which helps them generate heat through metabolism. Water is also crucial as it is involved in all metabolic reactions and helps to regulate body temperature. Food provides the necessary carbohydrates for energy, and birds also require plenty of water to support metabolism and prevent dehydration, which is essential for thermoregulation. Therefore, the combination of carbohydrates from food and water is what birds need to maintain their body temperature."

Which feature forms as a result of a tectonic plate boundary that creates an underwater miuntainbrange in the open ocean?

Answers

Mid-ocean ridge. A mid-ocean ridge or mid-oceanic ridge is an underwater mountain range, formed by plate tectonics. This uplifting of the ocean floor occurs when convection currents rise in the mantle beneath the oceanic crust and create magma where two tectonic plates meet at a divergent boundary.

Answer:

The answer is mid-ocean ridge

Explanation:

This geographical feature is found in divergent boundaries where tectonic plates are moving away from each other. The magma from mantle rises (upwells) to replace the void. Therefore, as magma rises and accumulates, as it cools into new crust, it forms mountain ranges along the boundary.

Which of the following cannot be given to children under seven due to damage to their teeth?

A
Quinolones
B
Beta-lactams
C
Aminoflycosides
D
Sulfonamides
E
Tetracyclines

Answers

Answer:

The answer is C

Explanation:  s

Select the named the 4 main groups of fungi

Answers

Answer:

Chytridiomycota (chytrids),

Zygomycota (bread molds),

Ascomycota (yeasts and sac fungi),

and the Basidiomycota (club fungi).

Explanation:

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A botanist is conducting a two-factor experiment on seed germination. One factor is temperature, with two levels: cold storage and ambient temperature storage. The other factor is gibberelin treatment, which occurs at four different concentrations. Our botanist attempts this experiment on the cheap, with only one seed per treatment group (hey, maybe it's a coconut). If the ANOVA includes a test for the two-way interaction, how many degrees of freedom will our hero have for error? 3 0 4 7 1

Answers

Answer:

67

Explanation:

Final answer:

In a two-factor experiment with two levels of one factor and four levels of another factor, where each combination of factors is represented by one observation (as is the case with the botanist's seed germination experiment), the degrees of freedom for error would be zero.

Explanation:

In a two-factor experiment, the degrees of freedom for error are calculated as (total number of observations - total number of treatments). Here we have 2 levels of temperature and 4 levels of gibberelin treatment. So, there are 2*4=8 total treatments. In this case, each treatment being tried on one seed means there are also 8 total observations. Thus, when the botanist attempts the experiment, the degrees of freedom for error would be (8-8)=0.

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When comparing two ecosystems of the same type, the ecosystem that supports a greater number of species is _______ than the ecosystem that supports only a few.

Answers

OPTIOINS:

A) less habitable

B) more sustainable

C) less biodiverse

D) more fertile

Answer:

B) more sustainable

Explanation:

An ecosystem is considered to be sustainable if is able to support more life and thrive, without external support. One of the key factors upon which the sustainability of an ecosystem depends upon is the level of biodiversity of the ecosystem. A greater or higher biodiversity would mean more species of organisms with various genes are present in an ecosystem. The more biodiversity in an ecosystem, the more sustainable that ecosystem is.

Therefore, in comparing two ecosystems of the same type, the ecosystem that supports a greater number of species is said to be more sustainable than the other which supports just a few.

Final answer:

When comparing two ecosystems of the same type, the ecosystem that supports a greater number of species is more biodiverse than the ecosystem that supports only a few.

Explanation:

When comparing two ecosystems of the same type, the ecosystem that supports a greater number of species is more biodiverse than the ecosystem that supports only a few. For example, forests, particularly tropical forests, hold more species compared to grasslands or cerrado habitats. This greater biodiversity is associated with a number of benefits, including increased ecosystem function, more pathways for energy flow, nutrient recycling, and overall ecosystem stability and efficiency.

Key factors thought to contribute to higher levels of biodiversity include the sampling-competition effect, where the larger number of species increases the chances of having highly productive species. Diverse species can also result in complementary resource use, allowing the ecosystem to fully exploit environmental conditions. Plus, biodiverse ecosystems are more adept at maintaining soil fertility and reducing nutrient losses over time.

In summary, ecosystems with greater species numbers, such as those found in the tropics closer to the equator, are often more complex and may provide more opportunities for species interactions, coevolution, and specialization. Such ecosystems are said to be more diverse, resilient, and better at ecological functions like energy transfer and nutrient cycling compared to less diverse ecosystems.

Some autoimmune diseases show a positive correlation with dramatically decreased expression of histone deacetylase (HDAC9, an enzyme that removes acetyl groups from histones). Why would the decreased expression of HDAC9 cause immune cells to produce inflammatory genes at inappropriate times?

Answers

Answer:

The positive charge of the histone proteins get reduced due to the process of histone acetylation, thus making the wrapping of DNA around the histones less tightened. The loose connected DNA afterward associates with the transcription factors for the articulation of the genes situated in that area.  

Generally, when there is no requirement of gene anymore, the acetyl groups from the histones get withdrawn by the activity of histone deacetylase enzyme (HDAC9) that makes the DNA tightly wrapped and inaccessible again. In case, when less expression of histone deacetylase enzyme occurs, the process of deacetylation fails to take place. This indicates that within an immune cell, at the time of infection, the inflammatory gene, which was made available does not get re-wrapped firmly around the histones.  

Which image is an example of a rod-shaped colony of bacteria?
lam​

Answers

Answer: The last one

Explanation:

Answer:

the last picture

Explanation:

A rare genetic disease which is due to a recessive allele (a) and that is lethal when homozygous, occurs within a specific population at a frequency of one in a hundred thousand. In other words, one out of a hundred thousand individuals are homozygous recessive with the disease. How many individuals in a town with a population of 20,000 can be expected to carry this allele?

Answers

Answer:

40 individuals

Explanation:

The homozygous recessive percentage is equal to q2.

Recessive genotype frequency, q 2 is 1/1000000  = 0.000001  

therefore, q = [tex]\sqrt{q2}[/tex]  = [tex]\sqrt{0.000001 }[/tex]  = 0.001 =  allele "a" frequency  

and p + q = 1, thus, p = 1 – q = 1 – 0.001 = 0.999  

thus, the frequency of allele a = q = 0.001  and the frequency of allele A = p = 0.999

Carriers are heterozygous and are equal to 2pq.  

So, 2pq = 2  x 0.999 x 0.001 x  20,000 = 39.96 (round of to 40)

Hence, 40 individuals will be expected to carry the recessive allele.

Di a que tipo de órganos pertenecen las siguientes estructuras. Justifica tu respuesta:

La pata de un pato y la aleta de un pez.

La aleta de una ballena y el brazo del ser humano.

La pelvis reducida de los cetáceos.

Answers

Answer:

La pata de un pato y la aleta de un pez son en ambos casos son elementos que les permiten tanto al pato como al pez moverse, además de sus funciones de estabilidad. La aleta de una ballena y el brazo del ser humano, sucede lo mismo que en el caso anterior. En el caso de la aleta de la ballena, es como la aleta del pez. En cuanto al brazo del ser humano permite realizar movimientos que contribuyen al desarrollo de sus funciones, como por ejemplo, agarrar distintos elementos. La pelvis reducida de los cetáceos no tiene actualmente ninguna función.

Explanation:

La pata de un pato es una extremidad que por su estructura le permita nadar perfectamente. En cuanto a la aleta de los peces y ballenas, es una parte de estos animales formada por tejido conjuntivo. Pueden tener distintos tamaños y su principal función no sólo es permitir el movimiento sino también la estabilidad. En cuanto a la pelvis reducida de los cetáceos era algo que tenía sentido en especies de antaño. Durante la evolución, su utilidad de fue perdiendo, como podría mencionarse el ejemplo en los humanos de las muelas de juicio.

Final answer:

Las estructuras mencionadas pertenecen a los sistemas locomotores de animales acuáticos y mamíferos terrestres.

Explanation:

La pata de un pato y la aleta de un pez pertenecen al sistema locomotor de animales acuáticos. Estas estructuras se utilizan para moverse en el agua.

La aleta de una ballena también forma parte del sistema locomotor de animales acuáticos. Permite a la ballena nadar y desplazarse en el agua.

El brazo del ser humano pertenece al sistema locomotor de los mamíferos terrestres. Se utiliza para realizar movimientos y tareas.

La pelvis reducida de los cetáceos es un vestigio evolutivo que indica su pasado terrestre. Aunque ahora vivan en el agua, los cetáceos descienden de mamíferos terrestres y su estructura pélvica es un remanente de ese pasado.

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The genomic sequence of the African great apes is compared to that of South American monkeys, and an average difference of about 7.0% is observed. This is much smaller than the difference between either primate or other mammals. What evidence of evolution is this an example of?

Select one:

Embryological

DNA

Molecular

Anatomical

Answers

Dna because it’s talking about genomic sequence

Describing Comparative Investi
Name one benefit and one limitation of comparative
investigations.

Answers

Answer:

Limitation of comparative investigation is that when it is done on a huge population, huge amount cost is required. Explanation: Benefit of comparative investigation is that we can get descrete information about specific breed or species. It is important for the study of behaviour of many organisms.

Answer:

Comparative investigations provide large amounts of information and use a wide range of variables. However, they may reveal relationships that do not always indicate cause and effect.

Explanation:

Sample response from Edg.

Which characteristics accurately describe most reptiles? Check all that apply. are invertebrates are ectotherms have external fertilization lay eggs have a three-chambered heart

Answers

Answer:

2.are ectotherms

4. lay eggs

5. have a three-chambered heart

Explanation:

they my corrected answers

Answer:

B D E

Explanation:

De novo nucleotide synthesis differs for purine and pyrimidine bases. However, some molecules are important precursors and intermediates in both pathways. Which intermediates are common to both purine and pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis? orotate formate glycine aspartate PRPP Purine bases, which have two rings, have a more complex synthetic pathway than do pyrimidine bases, which have one ring. As a result, purine synthesis requires more components than pyrimidine synthesis. Which amino acids contribute atoms to the purine structure in de novo purine synthesis? lysine aspartate glycine glutamine histidine

Answers

Answer:

1. Aspartate  and PRPP

2. Aspartate, glycine and glutamine

Explanation:

Aspartate is a precursor in both the synthesis of purine and pyrimidine. It aids in the formation of Carbamoyl Aspartate in pyrimidine synthesis while in purine, it contributes nitrogen 1 to the purine ring. PRPP is needed in the activation of ribose sugar in the purine nucleotide synthesis, while in that of pyrimidine, it aids in the conversion of orotate to OMP by adding  phosphate group to orotate.

Aspartate, glycine and glutamine are precursors in the de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides. Aspartate contribts nitrogen 1, glycine cotributes C4, C5 and nitrogen 7 while glutamine contributes N3 and N9.

The process of formation of complex molecules from sugar and amino acids (complex molecules ) is called De nova synthesis.

1. The common intermediate  in both purine and pyrimidine synthesis is :

Option D. Aspartate

Option E. PRPP

Aspartate acts as a precursor in both purine and pyrimidine nitrogenous base formation. It forms carbamoyl aspartate during pyrimidine synthesis while it contributes one nitrogen to the purine ring during purine synthesis.

Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP) activates the ribose sugar in purine synthesis and converts orotate to OMP by adding phosphate during the pyrimidine synthesis.

2. The amino acid that contributes atoms to purine is:

Option B. Aspartate

Option C. Glycine

Option D. Glutamine

All the above-stated amino acids are a precursor in the purine synthesis by the de nova process.

N1 is provided by aspartate, N7, C4 and C5 are contributed by glycine and N3 and N9 by glutamine amino acid.

Therefore correct options are 1. D and E, 2. B, C and D.

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why is rice grown in clayey soil not in black soil​

Answers

Answer: can you help me plz and I’ll help you?

Explanation:

Rice is grown in clayey soil as it retains water well, which is crucial for rice's underwater breathing ability and maintaining wet, anaerobic conditions required for optimal growth.

Rice is commonly grown in clayey soil because it has the ability to retain water, which is essential for the wet rice agriculture. Unlike other grains, rice can breathe underwater, and the water acts as a temperature regulator, weed controller, and a dissolver of nutrients such as nitrogen and inorganic salts, making them more accessible to the rice plants. The use of clayey soil in growing rice is beneficial as it does not require fallowing, which means the soil does not need to be left unseeded for a season to rebuild nutrients. On the contrary, extended rice cultivation in the same area can increase the soil's nutrient content since water and roots pull minerals from deep layers of the earth.

Black soil, however, is not as suitable for rice cultivation. Although black soil is known for retaining moisture and being rich in nutrients, it may not provide the same consistent wet conditions that clayey soils do for the rice paddies. Moreover, rice agriculture thrives in flooded conditions which create anaerobic environments similar to natural wetlands, and these conditions are optimally sustained in clayey soils. Black soils might be more suitable for crops that do not require such heavily flooded conditions.

46. The experiments that clearly showed that DNA from every organism studied had an amount of adenine equal to the amount of thymine and a cytosine content equal to the content of guanine were conducted by: a. E. M. Sutton. b. Cohen and Boyer. c. Hershey and Chase. d. Erwin Chargaff. e. Rosalind Franklin. 47. A quiescent (non-dividing) human cell is most likely (or most correctly described as being) in: a. G1. b. S phase. c. G0 d. M phase. e. cytokinesis. 48. Who utilized the process of transformation, as originally demonstrated by Frederick Griffith, to p

Answers

The given question number 48 is not complete, the complete question is:

Who utilized the process of transformation, as originally demonstrated by Frederick Griffith, to provide the first solid evidence suggesting that DNA was the genetic material of living systems (in this case bacteria)?

Messelson and Stahl

Thomas Morgan

Erwin Chargaff

Hershey and Chase

Avery, McCarty and Macleod

Answer:

The correct answer of 46 is option d, that is, Erwin Chargaff.

The correct answer of 47 is option c, that is, G0 phase.

The correct answer of 48 is option e, that is, Avery, McCarty and Macleod.

Explanation:

46. Erwin Chargaff with the help of an experiment demonstrated that the amount of adenine present within the DNA is always equivalent to the amount of thymine present, similarly, guanine is always found in equal number to cytosine. He also demonstrated that pairing is always done between pyrimidines and purines within the DNA.  

47. It is in the G0 stage, also known as the quiescent stage, where a human cell is found in the non-proliferating phase. It is also considered as the resting stage of the cell cycle in which cell gathers enough of the substances for its nourishment. When the cell moves into the G0 stage of the cell cycle, then the cell either goes to further stages of the cycle when needed or goes through the process of differentiation.  

48. To prove that DNA works as a genetic substance, the Griffith experiment was further used by Avery, McCarthy, and Macloed. The experiment was again performed on a biochemical basis. In the experiment, distinct constituents of the bacterial cell were digested with the assistance of digestive enzymes, and in the process, it was found that when digestion of DNA was done, the process of transformation failed to take place. The performed experiment was also called the biochemical assay of transformation.  

why is it inportant for the cells in your body to go through the cell cycle

Answers

Answer:

It is important for cells to go through the cell cycle so that the organism can survive, heal, grow, and develop.

Explanation:

The cell cycle is the division of old cells to form two new daughter cells. Faor example, if a hamster sustained an injury, healthy cells would need to divide to make up for the cells that were damaged or killed in the injury.

Living things are classified into three domains. which domain would contain organisms that are unicellular and multicellular

Answers

Answer:

Unicellular - Archaea and Bacteria

Multicellular - Eukarya

Explanation:

Domain is the highest taxonomic rank in the hierarchical biological classification system, above the kingdom level. There are three domains of life, the Archaea, the Bacteria, and the Eukarya.

Final answer:

The domain that comprises both unicellular and multicellular organisms is the Eukarya domain, characterized by eukaryotic cells with membrane-bound nuclei and organelles. It includes animals, plants, fungi, and protists.

Explanation:

Living things are grouped into three domains: Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya. Both Bacteria and Archaea domains include prokaryotic organisms that do not have their genetic material enclosed in a membrane-bound nucleus. On the other hand, the domain that contains both unicellular and multicellular organisms is the Eukarya domain.

Organisms within the Eukarya domain possess cells with membrane-bound nuclei and various organelles. This domain is diverse; it includes familiar life forms such as animals, plants, and fungi, as well as protists, which are often less well-known. The characteristics that define this domain are the complex cells known as eukaryotic cells. As the most complex domain, Eukarya is subdivided into kingdoms that include both simple unicellular organisms like some protists and complex multicellular organisms like animals and plants.

The work of American microbiologist Carl Woese has greatly influenced this classification system by introducing the three-domain system based on genetic and cellular differences, which replaced the previous five-kingdom model.

A molecule containing one unit of sugar is called a ____?

Answers

A molecule containing one unit of sugar is called a monosaccharide. Monosaccharides are the building blocks of carbohydrates and can contain either five or six carbon atoms.

A molecule containing one unit of sugar is called a monosaccharide. Monosaccharides are the simplest carbohydrates and are the building blocks for larger carbohydrate molecules.

Examples of monosaccharides include glucose, fructose, and galactose, which are all hexose sugars containing six carbon atoms.

Other monosaccharides include ribose and deoxyribose, which are pentose sugars containing five carbon atoms.

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Which of the following statements describes how antibody-binding brings about the removal of antigens? A. Antibodies directly lyse cells expressing foreign antigen, thus removing the antigen. B. Antibodies tag antigens for destruction, either via phagocytes or via complement activation. C. Antibodies directly hydrolyze antigens, destroying them. D. Antibodies bind to antigens and hasten their removal through the kidneys.

Answers

Answer:

B. Antibodies tag antigens for destruction, either via phagocytes or via complement activation.

Explanation:

Antigens are proteins found at the surface of pathogens and causes diseases. Antibodies have Y-shaped that fights off the antigen.

As the antigen enters , the body produces antibodies against the particular antigen. Lymphocyte (white blood cell)  recognises the foreign molecules called antigen and produces antibodies. Each antibody has unique binding site for specific antigen like lock and key.

The antibodies then binds to the antigen and destroy the antigen via phagocytes or via complement activation.

Which of the following statements about cellulose is FALSE? Microtubules are directly attached to the outside surface of the plasma membrane to form tracks that help orient the cellulose polymers Cellulose is synthesized on the outside of the cell. An array of microtubules guides the cellulose synthase complex as it moves in the membrane Cellulose synthase enzyme complexes are integral membrane proteins

Answers

Answer:

Option A is false, the remaining statements regarding cellulose are correct

"Microtubules are directly attached to the outside surface of the plasma membrane to form tracks that help orient the cellulose polymers"

Explanation:

Cellulose is specific to plant cells walls only, animal cells do not contain cellulose. It is produced at the membrane of the cell. The microtubules are actually attached to the inside of the plasma membrane and it helps to orient the cellulose polymers that way. It provides vital structural support to the plant.

Hope that answers the question, have a great day!

Prokaryotic cells lack a nucleus. Therefore, the genes in prokaryotic cells are:


a) All expressed, all of the time

b) Transcribed and translated almost simultaneously

c) Transcriptionally controlled because translation begins before transcription ends

d) B and C are both true

Answers

Answer:

d) B and C are both true            

Explanation:

Prokaryotic cells: The term "prokaryotic cells" are described as cells that don't consist of "membrane-bound organelles" or "true nucleus". However, the organisms that come under the domain of Archaea and bacteria tend to possess prokaryotic cells and it has been described that organisms that consist of prokaryotic cells are abundant in nature and make most of the Earth Biomass. Prokaryotic cells don't possess the nucleus rather have one chromosome.

In the question above, the correct answer is option D.

Final answer:

In prokaryotic cells, gene expression is primarily regulated at the transcriptional level and the processes of transcription and translation occur almost simultaneously. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Both b and c are true.

Explanation:

Prokaryotic organisms are single-celled and do not have a cell nucleus, which means their DNA is present in the cytoplasm. This arrangement allows for the processes of transcription and translation to occur almost simultaneously. However, not all genes are expressed all the time. Genes are transcribed into RNA and then the RNA is translated into proteins when that particular protein is needed. Once the need diminishes, transcription ceases. Hence, gene expression in prokaryotic cells is primarily regulated at the transcriptional level. Regarding the choices provided:

(a) All expressed, all the time is incorrect as gene expression is conditional based on the protein needs of the cell.

(b) Transcribed and translated almost simultaneously is correct because of the proximity of genetic material to the protein-synthesizing machinery.

(c) Transcriptionally controlled because translation begins before transcription ends is also correct, reflecting the regulatory mechanism at the transcriptional level.

(d) Both b and c are true, making it the correct answer.

Which of the following can change shape and carries oxygen to cells that
need it?
white blood cells

red blood cells

veins

Platelets

Answers

Answer:

Red blood cells

Explanation:

Final answer:

Red blood cells are specialized cells that change shape and are responsible for carrying oxygen to various parts of the body.

Explanation:

Among the choices given, red blood cells are the type of blood cell that can change shape and are responsible for carrying oxygen to cells that need it. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin, a protein complex that binds to oxygen and allows for its transport throughout the body. Unlike white blood cells, which are part of the immune system, or platelets, which are involved in blood clotting, red blood cells have the primary function of gas exchange, particularly oxygen delivery.

Red blood cells (RBCs) are the cells that can change shape and carry oxygen to cells that need it. They are the most numerous cells in the blood and consist mostly of hemoglobin, which binds with oxygen. RBCs deliver oxygen to cells and remove carbon dioxide as waste.

A child was suffering from fever (38 ºC), cough, pharyngitis and his chest x-ray showed pneumonia at lower part of left lung. He was treated with penicillin and did not respond to treatment. Gram-stain and Acid-fast staining of sputum did not show Streptococcus pneumoniae or Mycobacterium tuberculosis.  Using a molecular method (PCR), no virus was detected.  What is this type of pneumonia is called and what is the most possible bacterial causative agent and how you confirm it

Answers

Answer:

Mycoplasma pneumonia

Explanation:

This is because with this type of pneumonia symptoms are milder than other which would tell why the fever is low and there are very few symptoms.

Final answer:

The pneumonia could be 'Walking pneumonia' caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. As the patient didn't respond to penicillin and showed no presence of Streptococcus pneumoniae or Mycobacterium tuberculosis, it suggests the causative agent is either drug-resistant or lacks a cell wall. Mycoplasma pneumoniae, which lacks a cell wall, fits this description.

Explanation:

The type of pneumonia the child could be suffering from is possibly caused by the bacterium Mycoplasma pneumoniae, leading to a condition known as Mycoplasma pneumonia or 'Walking pneumonia'. Since the symptomatic child did not respond to penicillin treatment and Streptococcus pneumoniae or Mycobacterium tuberculosis were not detected, it can suggest the presence of a microorganism that either lacks a cell wall (which is the target of penicillin) or is resistant to this medication. The possible culprit, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, is a bacterium that lacks a cell wall.

To confirm this, a clinical diagnosis can be supported by serological testing, including a cold agglutinin test, which is generally positive for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections. Direct detection through PCR, enzyme immunoassay, or indirect immunofluorescence can also be performed on sputum samples.

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During the course of an E. coli transformation laboratory, a student forgot to mark the culture tube that received the kanamycin-resistant plasmids. The student proceeds with the laboratory because he thinks that he will be able to determine from his results which culture tube contained cells that may have undergone transformation. Which plate would be most likely to indicate transformed cells?

Answers

Answer:

The plate that contains Kanamycin in it will have growth of colonies of bacteria that have been transformed with the plasmid which has the kanamycin-resistant gene. The bacterial cells that did not get transformed with this plasmid will not be able to grow into colonies in the presence of kanamycin.

While the negative control, a plate with any other antibiotic,such as ampicillin or tetracyclin, added to it will not allow growth of any bacteria on it.

Hope that answers the question, have a great day!

Final answer:

The plate that would be most likely to indicate transformed cells is the plate containing the antibiotic ampicillin.

Explanation:

The plate that would be most likely to indicate transformed cells is the plate containing the antibiotic ampicillin. In the presence of the ampicillin-resistant plasmids, the transformed cells will be able to grow on the plate while the non-transformed cells will not. By comparing the growth on the ampicillin plate to the growth on the other plates, the student can determine which culture tube contained the transformed cells.

The soil of the temperate forest is often rich in humus. Which statement best explains the presence of humus in the temperate forest?

Answers

Answer:

A. Humus forms from fallen leaves, dead wood, and other dead organic matter.

Option are the following;

A. Humus forms from fallen leaves, dead wood, and other dead organic matter.

B. Tree roots break rocks into humus as they grow.

C. Cold winter weather preserves humus in the soil.

D. Dry conditions allow humus to form

Explanation:

Humus is a type of organic matter which is formed due to the decomposition of plant parts and leaves by the action of decomposers such as bacteria and fungi. The soil of the temperate forest is often rich in humus because when the leaves falls from the trees when get older, these leaves mixes with the soil and due to the action of microorganisms such as bacteria and fungi. These microbes feed on these leaves and releases nitrogenous material which is used by the plants for making amino acid and enzymes etc.

If people are aware of the dangers of social traps, they are more likely to cooperate with each other. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F

Answers

Answer: True

Explanation:

In psychology a social trap can be defined as the group of people which obtain short term individual gain which in the long term leads to the loss of the people.

If people will known the after effects then they will operate with each other in order to avoid the loss of the people as a whole group.

Examples of social trap are over fishing, blackout, overgrazing of the cattles at the places where is already less vegetation.

Hence, the correct answer is True.

Which activity has had the most negative effect on the environment

Answers

Explanation:

The leakage of oil in oil carrying ships and the effect of atomic blust in oceans are affecting equally and have the most negative effect on the environment of oceans.

Final answer:

Industrial activities, energy production, and resource exploitation are key human activities causing substantial environmental harm. Pollution, habitat destruction, and unsustainable consumption patterns contribute significantly to environmental degradation. Efforts to mitigate these effects conflict with economic interests that benefit a few at the expense of wider societal and environmental health.

Explanation:

Among the myriad of human activities, industrial activities, energy production, and resource exploitation have been identified as having particularly severe impacts on the environment. Industrial activities release various pollutants into the atmosphere, such as carbon dioxide, hydrocarbons, and nitrogen oxides, which contribute to greenhouse warming, ozone depletion, and smog formation. The excessive use of water in industry can lead to both pollution and thermal pollution.

Energy production and exploitation of resources like oil, gas, and minerals often involve environmentally damaging processes. Events like oil spills, mining operations, and deforestation lead to habitat destruction, water contamination, and soil erosion. Issues such as air and water pollution, and the resultant health effects, are exacerbated by energy production including coal mining, oil refining, and natural gas combustion.

In addition to these tangible impacts, the perpetuation of unsustainable consumption patterns and the externalization of environmental costs underline the ongoing challenge of addressing environmental degradation. Despite the negative effects being well known, progress towards more sustainable practices is often hindered by the economic benefits that accrue to a small number while the broader society bears the environmental and health costs.

Which of the following features is not universally accepted as a sign of physical attractiveness? A. facial symmetry B. a curvy figure C. average body type D. average features Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D

Answers

Answer:The answer is B.curvy figure

Explanation:

A curvy figure is not a universally accepted sign of physical attractiveness. Therefore option “B” is correct.

What is physical attractiveness?

It is the measure of the degree to which a person can look and aesthetic pleasing.  Facial symmetry and sociocultural and personal choices of a person are evaluating factors.

Facial symmetry is based on the symmetry of the face of a person and youthfulness. It helps in determining the beauty of a person.

Sociocultural depend on how a person combines both social and cultural factors. Factors affecting are such as personal beliefs,  and values. Personal choices vary from person to person as everyone has different choices.

Physical attractiveness is the evaluation of the physical appearance of a person.

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Large areas of land are being developed. In the process thousands of trees are being removed and burned. How would this affect the cycle?

Answers

Answer:

The whole cycle is disturbed due to unwise cutting of trees.

Explanation:

Trees are the lungs of the planet earth which helps in cleaning the environment and provide habitat to millions of organisms. Trees absorb carbon-dioxide which is responsible for pollution and global warming and releasing oxygen which is necessary for the survival of living organisms. If these trees are removed, the habitat of many living organism will be destroyed and also increase occurs in the pollution and global warming of the earth atmosphere.

Answer: Trees are producers they use photosynthesis to create energy for food chains.

Explanation: Food chains are an exchange of energy that starts with producers and in this case the trees. Without the trees, there wouldn't be any food and the cycle would collapse.

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