The true statement about Healthy People 2020 is that it aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. It is developed by the DHHS, not the USDA, and targets all aspects of health.
Explanation:The statement that is TRUE regarding Healthy People 2020 is: d) It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. Healthy People 2020 is a program developed by the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) in the United States with the goal of improving the nation's health.
This initiative sets out a comprehensive set of 10-year national goals and objectives for improving the health of all Americans. While it is reviewed and evaluated every decade by the DHHS, it does not fall within the purview of the USDA, and it goes beyond dietary guidelines like the 5 food groups to encompass all aspects of health, with a particular focus on eliminating disparities and enhancing access to health education.
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The true statement about Healthy People 2020 is that it aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education. It's an initiative revised every ten years by the DHHS that focuses on promoting health equality and enhancing health knowledge access, instead on explaining the five food groups.
Explanation:The correct statement regarding Healthy People 2020 is: It aims to eliminate health disparities and improve access to health education.
Healthy People 2020 is an initiative by the U.S Department of Health & Human Services (DHHS). This organization revisits and updates its objectives every ten years, not every 20 years as stated in the question. Healthy People 2020 does not directly deal with providing explanations of the five food groups; such guidelines' framing lies more with the USDA. Its primary focus is on promoting health equity and enhancing the health knowledge and education access across the American population to improve nationwide health outcomes.
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A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. The first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14, 2013. Her expected date of birth (EDB) would be:
Answer:
October 14th
Explanation:
Child birth is the most miraculous time of a human beings life. It takes a period of 9 months and a new human baby is brought into this life.
Being pregnant simply means that the female stops having menstrual cycles because the child is in the process of formation. Every specie has a designated time period in which the reproduction process completes. For human beings, it is nine months, for cats, it is 2 months and it varies.
A woman who had her last menstrual period on February 14th, would expect child birth on October 14th. It can be before or after too.
Which Dimension of Wellness includes openness to new ideas, continued learning, a sense of humor, and the ability to find solutions to challenges?
Answer:
Intellectual Dimensions of wellness
Explanation:
Intellectual Dimensions of wellness -
This dimension of wellness include , creative and innovative activities .
It refers to the ability and desire of the human mind to adapt and initiate new experiences and ideas , which would help the professional as well as personal lives , is referred to as Intellectual Dimensions of wellness .
The people learn and apply new innovative skills and challenges for better development .
Hence , from the question,
The correct term is Intellectual Dimensions of wellness.
While it is known for a role in balance and coordination, the _____ is also very important for certain types of learning and conditioning.
Answer:
Cerebellum.
Explanation:
It is a part of the brain that at the back of the skull.One of it' s major function is to regulate the motor functions as it receives information from the sensory system, the spinal cord,and various other parts of the brain.Fifty percent of the neurons found in the brain is found in Cerebellum and it also consists cortex covering white matter and it also contains ventricle filled with fluids.Like the cerebral cortex it is also divided into two hemisphere.The cerebellum is crucial not only for balance and coordination, but also for certain types of learning and conditioning, including classical conditioning and motor learning.
Explanation:The part of the brain in question is the cerebellum. Aside from its primary role in aiding balance and coordination, the cerebellum also plays an integral role in certain kinds of learning and conditioning. For example, classical conditioning which involves learning to associate one stimulus with another and motor learning, which involves learning to perform physical tasks, are both supported by the cerebellum.
It plays a crucial role in maintaining balance, fine-tuning muscle movements, and ensuring smooth and coordinated motor function throughout the body.
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Those diagnosed with an intellectual disability score approximately 70 or below on an intelligence test and also demonstrate a limitation in_______.
Answer:
This question is comes related to the following options:
A. intrinsic motivation.
B. hybrid vigor.
C. physical health.
D. adaptive behavior
Intelligence tests are designed to calculate or assess various mental functions, including comprehension, reasoning, judgment, social skills, independence amid others; people with such low rate scores usually have a hard time living by themselves in society, they lack social competence, which is also known as "Adaptive Behavior".
Thereby the answer is D).
Describe at least four ways an epidemiologist could have helped in handling and analyzing the outbreak of hemorrhagic fever in Africa. How do epidemiologists play a role in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of chronic illnesses, such as cancer or heart disease?
Final answer:
Epidemiologists could have helped in handling and analyzing the outbreak of hemorrhagic fever in Africa by identifying the mode of transmission, conducting rapid investigations, developing public health policies, and collaborating with historians and other experts. They also play a significant role in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of chronic illnesses such as cancer or heart disease by gathering data and developing strategies.
Explanation:
An epidemiologist could have helped in handling and analyzing the outbreak of hemorrhagic fever in Africa in the following ways:
Identifying the mode of transmission: Epidemiologists track the spread of a disease and collect data to determine how it is transmitted. By identifying the mode of transmission of hemorrhagic fever, they can develop strategies to prevent its spread.Conducting rapid investigations: Epidemiologists conduct thorough investigations during outbreaks to gather information and recommend immediate control measures. In the case of hemorrhagic fever, they would have fast-tracked the investigation to contain the outbreak.Developing public health policies: Based on the data collected, epidemiologists can design and implement public health policies to reduce the incidence of the disease. They could have developed specific policies to address the hemorrhagic fever outbreak in Africa.Collaborating with historians and other experts: Epidemiologists often work with historians and other experts to understand the geographical and historical context of a disease. This collaboration helps in analyzing the outbreak and developing effective control measures.Epidemiologists play a crucial role in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of chronic illnesses such as cancer or heart disease. They gather data on the frequency and risk factors associated with these diseases in populations. This information is used to develop strategies for prevention, early diagnosis, and effective treatment.
Dr. Singh believes that a basic psychosocial conflict, which is resolved along a continuum from positive to negative, determines healthy or maladaptive outcomes at each stage of development. Dr. Singh’s beliefs are aligned with those of which theorist?
A) G. Stanley HallB) Sigmund FreudC) Erik EriksonD) B. F. Skinner
Dr. Singh's beliefs that a basic psychosocial conflict determines outcomes at each stage of development align with those of Erik Erikson. Erikson's psychosocial theory of development emphasizes the social nature of our development and the resolution of stage-specific conflicts throughout the lifespan.
Explanation:Dr. Singh's beliefs align closely with those of Erik Erikson, a theorist known for his psychosocial theory of development. Unlike Sigmund Freud, who believed personality is mostly developed in early childhood focusing on psychosexual stages, Erikson proposed that personality development continues throughout the lifespan, emphasizing the social nature of our development. Erikson identified eight stages of development, each characterized by a distinct conflict or task that contributes to a healthy or maladaptive outcome, depending on how well the conflict is resolved.
Erik Erikson was the theorist aligned with the belief that a basic psychosocial conflict determines healthy or maladaptive outcomes at each stage of development. Erikson's psychosocial theory emphasizes social relationships and the resolution of developmental tasks at different stages of life. He identified eight stages, each with a unique conflict or task that contributes to personality development.
Erikson's theory underscores the importance of social relationships and the resolution of conflicts across the entire lifespan, with each stage offering a unique developmental task crucial for the individual's growth. This approach marks a significant departure from Freud's, placing a greater emphasis on psychosocial rather than psychosexual aspects of development.
Dr. Levy's research showed that a dose of 200 mg of experimental Drug R had a minimal effect in reducing the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). He then revised the study's hypothesis by increasing the dosage to 300 mg. In this context, reduction of GAD symptoms is the:
Answer:
In this context, the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable.
Explanation:
In this experiment, drug R dose is the independent variable and the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable. The increase in drug dose is negatively associated with decrease in GAD symptoms. At 200 mg Drug R dose had a minimal effect on GAD symptoms. However, increase in drug dose to 300 mg had a marked decrease in GAD symptoms making the independent and dependent variable inversely proportional.
In this case, the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable. It is the outcome of interest that Dr. Levy is studying the effects of different dosages of experimental Drug R on.
Explanation:In the given context, the reduction of GAD (generalized anxiety disorder) symptoms is considered as the dependent variable. In research, the dependent variable is the outcome that a researcher is trying to explain or predict, which in this case is the effect of dosage of Drug R on reducing GAD symptoms. The dosage of experimental Drug R is the independent variable as this is manipulated by Dr. Levy in his study. By increasing the dosage from 200 mg to 300 mg, Dr. Levy is testing if this change will have an improved effect on reducing GAD symptoms.
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A victim with a foreign body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. what should you do?
Answer:
Start CPR beginning with chest compressions.
Explanation:
Airway obstruction may be defined as any obstacle in the normal process of respiration. This might occur due to some allergy, disease or the inhalation of the foreign substance.
The airway obstruction might cause problem in the inhalation of the oxygen and its deficiency in the specific organs of the body. In this case the CPR (Cardiopulmonary resuscitation) must be performed on the individual. The chest must be compressed so that pulmonary attack can be prevented. The artificial ventilation must be given to the patient.
Thus, the answer is start CPR beginning with chest compressions.
If an individual with an airway obstruction becomes unresponsive, immediately call for emergency medical support and begin CPR if trained to do so. Check for the obstruction between compressions. It is paramount to only provide such aid if one has appropriate training.
Explanation:If a victim with a foreign body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive, it is crucial to call for emergency medical care immediately. Assess the situation quickly; if you are trained in providing aid, begin CPR with chest compressions. After each set of compressions, check to see if the object causing the obstruction has become dislodged. It's essential to be trained in the correct CPR and choking relief techniques to avoid further harm to the victim.
The person experiencing a foreign body airway obstruction may show signs like difficulty speaking or breathing, gasping or wheezing, clutching at the throat, and potentially turning blue from lack of oxygen. Immediate action can be lifesaving. However, remember that it's important only to perform such maneuvers if you are properly trained.
In cases of choking under anesthesia, a procedure called an endotracheal intubation is performed. This involves placing a tube into the trachea to maintain an open airway and ensure that oxygen reaches the lungs.
Nurses in acute care settings must work with other health care team members to maintain quality care while facing pressures to care for patients who are hospitalized for shorter periods of time than in the past. To ensure positive health outcomes when patients return to their homes, what action should the nurse prioritize?
Answer: A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care based on a clinical pathway. When performing assessments and interventions with the aid of a pathway, the nurse should prioritize what goal? A) Helping the patient to achieve specific outcomes B) Balancing risks and benefits of interventions C) Documenting the patient's response to therapy D) Staying accountable to the interdisciplinary team Ans: A Feedback:Pathways are an EBP tool that is used primarily to move patients toward predetermined outcomes. Documentation, accountability, and balancing risks and benefits are appropriate, but helping the patient achieve outcomes is paramount
Explanation:
The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation at all in a person is the just noticeable threshold. True or False
The just noticeable threshold is the minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation in a person.
Explanation:The statement is True. The just noticeable threshold refers to the minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation in a person. This threshold varies for each sense. For example, in vision, the threshold is the minimum amount of light needed to perceive a visual stimulus. In hearing, it is the minimum sound intensity required to detect a sound.
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Scott, age 24, has withdrawn from most social contact and stopped dressing appropriately. When you speak with him, his conversation tends to make no sense. Of the following options, Scott is most likely to be diagnosed with ________.A. generalized anxiety disorder.B. a specific phobia.C. schizophrenia.D. an addiction.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Scott is most likely to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety. It lasts for longer than six months. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Generalized anxiety?Generalized anxiety disorder is a mental condition of excessive worry about the everyday issues and situations which one face. It lasts for longer than six months. In addition to feeling worried a person may also feel restlessness, fatigue, trouble in concentration, irritability, increased muscle tension, and trouble in sleeping.
The two main treatments for generalized anxiety disorder include psychotherapy and medications. A person may benefit most from a combination of the two treatments. It may take some trial and error method to discover which of the treatments works best for a person.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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A client in active labor is admitted with pree-clampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care? A. Patellar reflex 4+. B. Four-hour urine output 240 ml. C. Blood pressure 158/80.D. Respiration 12/minute.
Answer:
A. Patellar reflex 4+
Explanation:
Pree-clampsia in pregnant women shows some few symptoms which include; high blood pressure, protein in urine, swelling in legs and hands. Pree-clampsia is can be caused by poor nutrition or high amout of body fat, this high amount of blood fat can increase cholesterol which blocks the blood flow into the uterus. Now, a client in active labor who is admitted with pree-clampsia may increase the chances of long-term problems for both mom and baby in the labor process. The best assessment finding that is most significant in planning this child's care is Patellar reflex 4+.
This is because Patellar reflex 4+ test the L4 segment of the spinal cord.
The patella located at the knee region is being strike with a reflex hammer to stretch the muscle fibers in the quadriceps muscles. The effect of this activity give a signal to the spinal cord and synapses. Afterwards, motor neurons conduct an efferent impulse and relay the message back to the quadriceps muscle, thereby igniting contraction. This contraction can assist the client in active labor when planning for the client's suitable care.
The most significant finding for a client in active labor with preeclampsia for planning care is a Patellar reflex of 4+, indicating severe hyperreflexia which may require urgent intervention.
Explanation:The question is regarding the assessment of a client in active labor with preeclampsia and what finding is most significant in planning the client's care. Among the presented options, Patellar reflex 4+ (A), is the most significant. Preeclampsia can lead to hyperreflexia, and a patellar reflex of 4+ indicates severe hyperreflexia, which can be a precursor to eclampsia, a severe complication that can manifest as seizures. Options B (Four-hour urine output 240 ml), C (Blood pressure 158/80), and D (Respiration 12/minute) also require monitoring, but the exaggerated reflexes are a more immediate concern that may require urgent intervention.
___________ term that is synonymous with foreign animal disease, it describes a disease that is not currently found in the country but found in other places in the world
Answer: Exotic disease
Explanation: Exotic disease is a term used to describe infectious disease which are currently absent in a particular country but present in some other countries in the world. An exotic disease could result either due to the fact that such disease has never surfaced in the country or it has been completely eradicated through through quarantine or any other eradication scheme.
For Instance, pseudorabies is an exotic disease in Denmark because it has been eradicated in the country, while it isn't in Ireland.
A newly admitted client describes symptoms of dizziness and feeling faint on standing. The client has a history of type 2 diabetes, coronary artery disease, and bipolar disorder. Which medications may be contributing to the client's symptoms?
Answer:
Metoprolol
olanzapine
Explanation:
Metropolol is a generic drug used in the treatment and prevention of heart attacks. It is a beta-blocker and thus are used in the treatment of coronary artery disease. They are also used as a combination therapy and can be combined with with olanzapine, a drug used in the treatment of certain mental conditions such as bipolar disorders and schizophrenia. The side effects of these drugs include; low blood pressure while standing, thus leading to dizziness, drowsiness, weakness, tiredness to mention but a few.
During wind sprints for field hockey practice, Sarah noticed that her face felt very hot and looked red. Of the choices below, which would be considered the receptor(s) for thehomeostatic response to Sarah's running?A) Sarah's lungsB) Sarah's skeletal muscles and blood vesselsC) Sarah's cardiac muscleD) Sarah's brain
Answer:
Sarah's skeletal muscles and blood vessels.
Explanation:
Homeostasis may be defined as the process of maintaining the internal environment irrespective of the change in the external or internal environment of the body.
The receptors detect the changes in the environment. During running, the individual sweats and the flow of blood increase in the body. The receptors that might located to detect this change is located in the blood vessels and in the skeletal muscles.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Cheryl is trying to teach her son to do the laundry by having him watch her. According to observational learning theory, to be effective what must occur?
Answer:
To be effective, Learning through observation requires keen attentive abilities. This model does not meet reinforcement to occur, but instead, requires a social model such a friend, parent, teacher with surroundings.
Explanation:
This theory needs an individual learning a behavior by observing another individual and that individual serving as a model through whom other individuals learn the behavior. It suggests that an individual’s environment, cognition and behavior all incorporate and ultimately determine how the individual functions and model. There is a reciprocal determinism in which the environment can influence people’s behavior and vice versa.
According to observational theory, B. Her son must be motivated to learn how to do the laundry, must occur.
Cheryl wants to teach her son to do the laundry by having him watch her, which involves observational learning. According to Bandura's observational learning theory, four key steps must occur for learning to be effective: attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation.
Attention: Cheryl's son must pay attention to what she is doing while doing the laundry. Without attention, he won't be able to observe the steps involved in the process.
Retention: He must be able to remember what Cheryl did. This means that he needs to retain the sequence of actions and any specific techniques she uses during the laundry process.
Reproduction: Cheryl's son must be able to reproduce the behavior. In other words, he needs to practice and perform the steps he observed and remembered to be able to do the laundry himself.
Motivation: Finally, he needs to be motivated to learn and perform the task. This could involve Cheryl explaining the importance of doing the laundry or offering some form of reinforcement for completing the task.
Given the options provided, the most critical factor, according to observational learning theory, is motivation, because without the desire to learn and perform the behavior, the son may not engage fully in the learning process.
Complete question:
Cheryl is trying to teach her son to do the laundry by having him watch her. According to observational learning theory, to be effective what must occur?
A. Her son must always model the behavior immediately.
B. Her son must be motivated to learn how to do the laundry.
C. Her son must be able to complete other tasks while watching her.
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: a. absent peripheral pulses. b. cool and clammy skin. c. restlessness or anxiety. d. rapid, shallow breathing.
Answer:
a. absent peripheral pulses.
Explanation:
Shock is a syndrome that is characterized by the inability of the heart and / or peripheral circulation to maintain adequate perfusion of vital organs. It causes tissue hypoxia and cellular metabolic failure, either by low blood flow, or by an irregular distribution of it.
The signs are as follows:
• Superficial veins disappear
• Cold and pale skin and mucous membranes
• Dryness of the mucous membranes
•Muscular weakness
• Anxiety
• Oliguria
• Accelerated or shallow breathing
• Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
Humoral control of blood flow involves the effect of vasodilator and vasoconstrictor substances in the blood. Select the factor that has a powerful vasodilator effect on arterioles and increases capillary permeability.
Answer:
Histamine.
Explanation:
Histamine is the factor that increases the capillary permeability and has a vasodilator effect on arterioles. Histamine is generally in mast cells and in a type of white blood cells. It increases the permeability and vasodilates arterioles so that proteins and white blood cells that are in the blood can fight pathogens in a tissue.
Suzy just spent a hot summer afternoon having a picnic. The food has been lying out for a few hours. Explain what she should do with the food and why.
Final answer:
Suzy should discard any perishable foods that have been out for more than two hours in the temperature range of 4°C to 60°C to avoid foodborne illnesses, as they are at high risk for bacterial growth.
Explanation:
Suzy should analyze the picnic foods that have been left out during the hot summer afternoon to determine if they are safe to eat or need to be discarded. Perishable foods that have been left out at temperatures between 4°C (40°F) and 60°C (140°F) for more than two hours are at risk for the growth of microorganisms that cause foodborne disease, and consequently should be thrown away to avoid illness. Foods that are meant to be eaten hot should have been kept hot, and those meant to be cold should have been kept refrigerated; any deviation from these guidelines potentially makes the food unsafe.
Regarding leftovers, since they have been exposed to outdoor temperatures for a few hours, it is likely that they have entered the temperature danger zone where bacteria can rapidly multiply. Following the safety guideline, these foods should not be consumed. It is crucial for food safety to prevent foodborne illnesses that can result from the consumption of improperly handled foods.
Noor has gained twenty pounds over her optimal weight. We would expect her levels of leptin and insulin to _____ in order to _____ her feelings of hunger.
Answer:
The correct answer is - decrease and increase respectively in order to increase her feeling of hunger.
Explanation:
Insulin is the hormone that is made by the pancreas that permits the cells to absorb sugar or glucose to acts as energy. If insulin level is increase in the blood it will lead to increase the feeling of the hunger even however physiological you not need more food.
Leptin in other hand has the role as hunger hormone which include the lowering the feeling of the hunger if present in high level.
Thus, the correct answer is - decrease and increase respectively in order to increase her feeling of hunger.
Which of the following joint movements from the anatomical position has an average range of motion of 0 degrees in healthy adults?
A. Lumbar rotation.B. Elbow extension.C. Subtalar inversion.D. Hip extension.
Answer:
The correct option is B: Elbow extension
Explanation:
The elbow is a very complex joint in the human body and it comprises of the proximal radioulnar, the humeroradial, and the humeroulnar; three entirely different articulations. The elbow is most times subjected to a great deal of weighty loads and thus must have the potential perform certain functions. The elbow's range of motion start approximately at 0 degrees of extension and 140 degrees of flexion in healthy adults.
Delilah is overweight. She likes to eat cookies and other sugary snacks, and often eats an entire package at one sitting. She is upset by this because she knows how important weight is to health, but she does not engage in any compensatory behaviors. Which of the following would be a likely diagnosis?
Answer:
Binge eating disorder
Explanation:
Binge eating disorder is the a type of eating disorder that is characterized by the individual’s uncontrolled appetite resulting in the frequent consumption of huge quantity of food.
People who suffer from binge eating disorder often have the habit of overeating. They are usually overweight and would often feel helpless controlling their appetite even though they may not be happy with such behavior. They also do not involve in compensatory behaviors like vomiting, exercising or the use of laxative to loss the extra calorie consumed.
The client explains to her new provider that she receives periodic phlebotomies to decrease her red blood cell mass. The provider believes the client may have:________.
Answer:
Polycythemia vera
Explanation:
A absolute increase in total red blood cell mass is characterized by primary polycythemia, or polycythemia vera. Treatment aim is to reduce the viscosity of the blood. That can be done by removing blood by periodic phlebotomy to reduce the volume of red blood cells. Transfusions are used to treat sickle cells and beta-thalassemias. Megaloblastic anemias, caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folic acid, are treated by replacing those nutrients.
What is the minimal number of kilocalories that should come from carbohydrates in a diet of a body builder who consumes 4,100 total kilocalories daily?
Answer:
1845 kcal/day
Explanation:
According to dietary guidelines, 45% to 65% of kilocalories should come from carbohydrates in a daily uptake. A minimal number of kilocalories from carbohydrate should be 45%. If a body-builder consumes 4,100 kilocalories in a day, 1845 kilocalories comes from the carbohydrate.
45% of 4,100 kcal
= 45/100 x 4,100 kcal
= 0.45 x 4,100
= 1,845 kcal per day
It does not matter how much protein intake takes a bodybuilder. 45% of kilocalories should come from carbohydrates.
An older adult presents with a pearly-domed nodular looking lesion on the back of the neck. It does not hurt or itch. He does not know how long he's had it. What is the most likely etiology?
Answer:
Basal cell carcinoma .
Explanation:
Cancer may be defined as the uncontrolled division of the cell that might occur due to mutation. The different type of cancer are carcinoma, sarcoma and leukemia.
The basal cell carcinoma depicts the skin cancer cell that occur due to the mutation in the cell responsible for the production of new skin cell. This cancer is generally occur due to the areas that are directly exposed to the sun especially in the neck. These cancer can cause nodular like lesion.
Thus, the answer is basal cell carcinoma.
According to longitudinal population studies, the five factors commonly found to affect well-being include all of the following except_____________.
Answer: income
Explanation: longitudinal population studies are observational studies that track the same population, wherein the differences in such population are less likely to be the result of cultural differences. In it they study variations in thoughts, behaviors, emotions etc at instantaneous moments. As regards income, since these studies are instantaneous, there's no comparison to previous income or progression in income that affects wellbeing.
A 68 Y/O male was admitted to the ICU after a coronary artery bypass procedure. He was unstable with several episodes of hypotension for 3 days and then began to improve and stabilize. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 6 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 2 pressure injury over his coccyx.
Review of his hospital admission assessment record revealed his skin was warm, dry, and intact.
For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:
a. Community Acquired Pressure Injury
b. Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only
c. Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Answer:
c. Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Explanation:
The pressure injury was not observed during the documentation of hospital admission record. This pressure injury was developed after hospital admission and is thus a hospital acquired pressure injury. Moreover, he was admitted into the ICU where the pressure injury survey was conducted. Therefore, this injury will also be reported as unit acquired pressure injury.
Final answer:
The pressure injury found on the patient in the ICU is a Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury only, as it occurred post-admission and was not present at the time of hospital admission.
Explanation:
The pressure injury observed on the 68-year-old male patient at the intensive care unit (ICU) after a coronary artery bypass procedure, and identified on day 6 of hospitalization is a Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury. Since the patient's skin was documented as warm, dry, and intact upon admission, and the pressure injury was noticed after several days in the hospital, it indicates that the injury occurred during the patient's hospital stay. Therefore, the correct notation for this injury in the pressure injury survey would be b. Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only.
Hospitals must take preventive measures such as regularly turning patients who are at risk for bedsores, and addressing any skin injuries as soon as they are noted, to reduce the occurrence of pressure injuries in patients, especially those who are immobile for long periods.
After teaching a woman who has had an evacuation for gestational trophoblastic disease (hydatidiform mole or molar pregnancy) about her condition, which statement indicates that the nurse's teaching was successful
Answer:
The options for this question are:
A. "I will be sure to avoid getting pregnant for at least 1 year."
B. "My intake of iron will have to be closely monitored for 6 months."
C. "My blood pressure will continue to be increased for about 6 more months."
D. "I won't use my birth control pills for at least a year or two."
The correct answer is A. "I will be sure to avoid getting pregnant for at least 1 year."
Explanation:
She needs to have follow-ups for 1 year to see that there isn't any trophoblastic tissue that can grow and harm her. To check this, her hCG levels will be measured for a year, pregnancy modifies the levels of this hormone, so it is important to avoid getting pregnant for a year.
The woman understands the nurse's teaching if she acknowledges the need for regular hCG monitoring post-evacuation, the importance of avoiding pregnancy for a certain period, and recognizes the differences between normal implantation processes and gestational trophoblastic disease.
Explanation:A successful indication that the nurse's teaching was understood by the woman who experienced a molar pregnancy would be her acknowledgment and understanding of the importance of careful monitoring following the evacuation procedure. For instance, she should be aware that her human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels will need to be checked regularly since persistently high levels can indicate the need for further treatment. She should also recognize the need to avoid pregnancy for a recommended time to ensure complete recovery and monitoring for any signs of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) recurrence.
Additionally, her understanding should include knowledge about the process of implantation and its importance in establishing a normal pregnancy, distinguishing it from the abnormal growth patterns seen in hydatidiform moles. Recognizing the normal signs of a successful pregnancy, such as positive at-home urine pregnancy tests due to appropriate levels of hCG, contrasts with the abnormal situation previously experienced.
marking brilliant !!
Over the past few decades, what has been shown about school readiness programs?
A.They are too challenging and should be redesigned.
B. They have a positive impact on the pre-kindergarten child.
C. They promote anxiety because children are too young to be away from home.
D. They teach children more about functioning in a social institution than elementary school
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Answer:the answer is b
Explanation:
it is your turn to give a presentation in class. your heart beings to pound and your palms become sweaty. these reactions are an example of______-
Answer:a stress response