Answer:
E) Shallow breathing that does not fill her lungs will only move air into the alveoli in the upper part of her lungs, letting those in the lower part stay closed.
A) The alveoli are lined with water, and attraction between the water molecules pulls them together. This surface tension will pull the alveoli closed if she does not open them with deep breathing.
B) When she is lying down, it is harder for her to expand her chest cavity anyway. She needs to put extra effort into it.
The alveoli might collapse if Mrs. H does not use her incentive spirometer because the water lining of the alveoli can create surface tension that pulls them closed, shallow breathing keeps lower alveoli collapsed, and without deep breaths, the surfactant cannot reduce surface tension effectively.
Explanation:Among the provided explanations for why Mrs. H's alveoli might collapse without the use of an incentive spirometer for deep breathing, the three best explanations are:
A) The alveoli are lined with water, and the attraction between water molecules creates a surface tension that can pull the alveoli closed. Deep breathing can help overcome this force and fully open them.E) Shallow breathing does not fill the entire lungs with air, typically only reaching the alveoli in the upper parts, which can result in the lower part's alveoli remaining collapsed.The presence of a surfactant within the alveoli, which is a surface-tension reducing substance produced by the lungs, is crucial. Without adequate breaths, the surfactant cannot effectively reduce surface tension, possibly leading to alveoli collapse.These factors highlight the importance of deep breathing exercises to maintain lung function and prevent alveolar collapse. The surfactant plays a role in managing the surface tension which is crucial for preventing alveoli from collapsing during exhalation.
_____ occurs when a clot has developed in a coronary vessel and blocks the flow of blood to the heart.
Answer:
The correct answer will be- Heart Attack
Explanation:
Coronary vessels like coronary arteries supply the oxygen to the heart muscle cells as they also require oxygen to perform their function.
In conditions when the cholesterol or fat or other substances gets accumulated in the coronary arteries forms a plaque in the artery.
The formation of plaque leads to the formation of the blood clot which reduces the blood flow to the heart. Due to this, the heart cells do not get enough amount of oxygen as a result of which the heart cells die.
This condition of death of heart cells is known as the Heart attack caused due to the blood clot formation.
Thus, Heart Attack is the correct answer.
Bill was admitted to the hospital last week after he fell. When Bill's son visited, he found his father was unable to get words out in a smooth, connected fashion. If Bill's difficulty speaking is due to brain damage, what is the likely location of the damage?
Answer:
The Broca area
Explanation:
The Broca area is the part of the brain around the inferior frontal gyrus containing the neurons which is used for speech function. This part was named after Pierre Paul Broca who discovered that that part of the brain was connected to human speech function during a study of two patients who had injury in that part of the brain.
Long, thin, whip-like projections from the cell body of a prokaryote that aid in cell movement through the medium in which the organism lives; in animals, the only cell with this is the sperm cell.True / False.
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
This thin, whip-like projection from the cell's body is called a FLAGELLA.
It is not only present in the human sperm, you can find it also amongst the Euglena and Chlamydomonas.
A speaker opens with the following question: "Did you know that on this date in 1954, the USS Nautilus, the first atomic submarine, was launched at Groton, Connecticut?" What device is being employed in this introduction?
A) a reference to a historical event
B) an effective use of humor
C) a startling fact or statistic
D) a preview of the topic
Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
In this statement, the historical reference is used as an allusion. The speaker wants to give an indirect reference of something by mentioning the name of a person, place, thing, and any incidence be it political or historical. Here the speaker is giving reference of this incidence to deliver some hidden message through clues. The author can use other speech form such as a poem, song, phrases etc. instead of a question to deliver the same hint.
Hence, option A is correct
Salivary amylase beings the digestion of which nutrient in the mouth?
a.protein
b.fat
c.carbohydrate
d.iron
Answer:
C. carbohydrate.
Explanation:
The digestion of carbohydrate starts in the mouth, where the salivary amylase converts carbohydrate in the food to maltose. This action continues through the esophagus, and when it gets to the stomach, it stops due to the acidic nature of the stomach (as the amylase works only in alkaline environment).
The maltose (disaccharides) is further broken down to monosaccharides called glucose in the duodenum. other disaccharides like sucrose and lactose are coverted to glucose + fruitose by sucrase, and glucose + galactose by lactase respectively. Carbohydrate in the duodenum are broken down to maltose by pancreatic amylase before converted to glucose.
Salivary amylase starts the digestion of carbohydrates in the mouth by breaking down starch into maltose. This process stops when the food reaches the acidic environment of the stomach.
Explanation:The salivary amylase enzyme present in saliva begins the process of digestion in the mouth by breaking down carbohydrates. Specifically, salivary amylase acts on starch, which is a common dietary carbohydrate, breaking it down into smaller sugar units like maltose, a disaccharide.
The decomposition of carbohydrates by amylase continues until the food bolus reaches the stomach, where the acidic environment inhibits further action of the enzyme.
The disruption of which membrane component is most likely to result in cellular traffic complications similar to those seen in gap junction disorders?
Answer:
Glycoproteins.
Explanation:
The cell membrane is made up of different components each having different functions. If the disruption occurs in the components which spans the entire membrane than membrane transport is most likely to be affected.
Transmembrane proteins are the only components which helps to pass all the way through the facilitated membrane, and cell membrane transport. Glycoproteins are known as the transmembrane proteins which consist oligosaccharides glycans attached with amino acid side chain with the help of covalent bonds.
Disruption of connexins, which form gap junctions crucial for cell-to-cell communication, can lead to cellular traffic issues similar to those observed in gap junction disorders, especially impacting cardiac muscle function.
Explanation:The disruption most likely to cause cellular traffic issues similar to those seen in gap junction disorders would be the disruption of connexins. Connexins are integral proteins that form gap junctions, which are vital for cell-to-cell communication in many tissues, including cardiac muscle. These junctions allow for the passage of ions and small molecules between cells, enabling functions such as the synchronized contraction of heart muscle cells.
Gap junctions consist of connexon channels, each made up of six connexin proteins. An interference in the interaction between connexins, such as the connexin 43-ezrin interaction, can lead to alterations in heart conductivity which may be significant post-myocardial infarction. Disruptions in connexins can cause complications in cellular traffic by impeding the flow of ions and other signaling molecules, thus affecting the entire tissue's function.
What makes nekton swimming abilities different from plankton and benthos
Answer:
The nektonic organisms are those marine organisms that are found in almost every depth. These can move freely from one place to another in the ocean body due to its ability to swim. For example, Turtles, sharks, Fishes, and dolphins.
The planktonic organisms are passive swimmers, as they can move along with the ocean currents and are mostly found in the upper portion of the ocean body. For example, Diatoms and Rotifers.
The benthos is the bottom-dwelling organisms that cannot swim. For example, Bivalves, Corals and Sponges.
The nektonic organisms are different from the planktons and the benthos because the nektons can easily swim. They are constructed with such body parts that allow them to swim and migrate from one region to another region within the ocean water body. Whereas the planktons and the benthos cannot migrate easily and are considered as sessile organisms.
If Cindy wanted to increase her endurance by taking supplements or drugs, she would be attempting to increase the __________.
A. uptake of oxygen by red blood cells
B. release of sugars in the blood stream
C. uptake of carbohydrates by the body
D. release of insulin in the body.
Answer:
The correct answer is- A. uptake of oxygen by red blood cells
Explanation:
Red blood cell is important in transporting the oxygen from the lungs to the different body parts. During endurance activity, our breathing rate goes up so that the red blood cells carries more oxygen which is required by the muscle to generate energy during the aerobic respiration process.
Therefore if Cindy wanted to increase her stamina by taking drugs or supplements than Cindy would be attempting to increase the uptake of oxygen by red blood cells because more the uptake of oxygen more the oxygen can be present to create energy in muscles to work for long time. So the correct answer is A.
Answer:
The correct answer is- A. uptake of oxygen by red blood cells
Explanation:
Given the information below, answer the following questions, assuming complete dominance. Tongue rolling is a dominant trait. If two individuals homozygous dominant for this trait have a child, what is the chance that the child will not be able to roll his tongue?
Answer:
The chance that their child will not be able to roll his tongue will be zero.
The chances to have a child with tongue rolling ability is 100%.
Explanation:
In complete dominance, a dominant gene completely manifests over a recessive gene. If tongue rolling is a dominant trait, this means that the gene that expresses this trait is dominant over the recessive one that does not allow the person to roll the tongue.
If the gene for tongue rolling is called T, then a person that is homozygous dominant for this trait will have the following genotype: TT. If the person is heterozygous for this trait, the genotype will be Tt. And if a person is homozygous recessive for the trait, this person´s genotype will be tt.
When two homozygous dominant individuals mate, their chances to have a child with tongue rolling ability is 100%.
This is:
Parental) TT x TT
Gametes) T T T T
Punnet Square) T T
T TT TT
T TT TT
F1) Genotype: 100% TT, or 4/4 TT
Phenotype: 100% Tongue rolling capable.
In complete dominance, a dominant gene completely manifests over a recessive gene. If tongue rolling is a dominant trait, this means that the gene that expresses this trait is dominant over the recessive one that does not allow the person to roll the tongue. If the gene for tongue rolling is called T, then a person that is homozygous dominant for this trait will have the following genotype: TT. If the person is heterozygous for this trait, the genotype will be Tt. And if a person is homozygous recessive for the trait, this person´s genotype will be tt. When two homozygous dominant individuals mate, their chances to have a child with tongue rolling ability is 100%. This is: Parental) TT x TTGametes) T T T TPunnet Square) T T T TT TT T TT TTF1) Genotype: 100% TT, or 4/4 TT Phenotype: 100% Tongue rolling capable.
Which of the following experiments would provide the best supporting evidence that neutrophils are the cause of the reperfusion injury?A. Performing the ischemia/reperfusion experiment using animals whose B (antibody-producing) cells are depleted and examining whether the degree of tissue damage is reducedB. Performing the ischemia/reperfusion experiment using neutrophil-depleted animals and examining whether the degree of tissue damage is reducedC. Repeating the experiment with another antibody directed against the entire alpha/beta heterodimer, and examining whether the degree of tissue damage is reducedD. Repeating the experiment with another antibody directed against the beta subunit, and examining whether the degree of tissue damage is reduced
Answer:
Performing the ischemia/reperfusion experiment using neutrophil-depleted animals and examining whether the degree of tissue damage is reduced
Explanation:
Neutrophils are one of the important component of the white blood cells. Neutrophils has the ability to phagocytose the cell and these cells first reach at the time of parasitic infections.
In case of reperfusion experiment, the neutrophil cells can be used to obtain the best results. The variables that are used in the experiment can be tested and is limited in the absence and the presence of the neutrophil cells. The tissue damage can be diagnosed by this experiment.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Infection caused by __________ is of greatest concern to pregnant women and those with compromised immune systems.
Answer:
Listeria
Explanation:
Listeria causes invasive syndromes such as meningitis, sepsis, and stillbirth in pregnant or immunosuppressed people. It is an intracellular pathogen and affects the persons with deficient cell-mediated immunity. Bacteria from this genus are part of the normal gastrointestinal microbiota in healthy individuals. However, in immunosuppressed individuals, the bacterium uses proteins such as internalin and phospholipase C for invasion, intracellular multiplication, and cell-to-cell spread.
Pregnant women are at the increased risk of infection due to both systemic and local immunological changes that mostly occur during pregnancy. For example, local immunosuppression at the maternal-fetal interface of the placenta may support the intrauterine infection.
I will give 50 points!! PLEASE ANSWER:
List and briefly describe 8 major terrestrial biomes.
Forest: A large area covered in trees.
Taiga: A snow forest.
Tundra: A flat area with no trees.
Desert: A large, dry area covered in sand
Savanna: A grassy plain in tropical and subtropical regions with very few trees.
Grassland: A large open area covered in grass.
Chaparral: A land with vegetation that consists of shrubs and bushes with thorns.
Mixed Forest: A forest with two or more kinds of different trees.
Hope this helps!
Linnaeus' concept of kinds differed from ours today in holding that:_______
A. A kind may be a species, genus, or family
B. A kind is a genus
C. Variation may exist within a kind
D. Variation does not exist within a kind
Answer:
Answer is D. Variation does not exist within a kind.
Explanation:
Linnaeus is regarded as the father of classification. This is because, his method or system of classifying and naming of organism, known as taxonomy, is still relevant up till today.
He formulated the binomial nomenclature, which is the modern system of naming organisms.
Linnaeus system includes domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus and specie.
Final answer:
Linnaeus' concept of kinds implied that there was no variation within a species or kind, viewing each species as an unchanging ideal type.
Explanation:
Linnaeus' concept of kinds mainly referred to the constancy and the lack of variation within a kind, where each species was considered an unchanging 'ideal type'. Therefore, according to Linnaean taxonomy, individual organisms that differed from the species' ideal type were seen as deviant and imperfect. This reflects the notion that variation does not exist within a kind (D). Linnaeus thought of species as fixed and unvarying entities, unlike the modern understanding of species which acknowledges genetic variation and evolutionary change.
The pharmacology instructor is discussing age-related susceptibility to adverse effects of cholinergic drugs. Which statement could the instructor make to accurately describe the influence of age?
Answer:
Explanation:
Physiologic changes resulting from the normal aging process place older adults at higher risk for adverse effects.
The atp produced in the citric acid cycle is generated by
Answer:
Substrate level phosphorylation
Explanation:
Citric acid cycle forms two ATP molecules per glucose by Substrate level phosphorylation. Succinyl-CoA is one of the intermediates of the citric acid cycle and has a thioester bond with a strongly negative standard free energy of hydrolysis. The energy released in the breakage of this bond during the conversion of succinyl CoA into succinate is used to drive the synthesis of a phosphoanhydride bond in either GTP. This process of ATP formation that is not coupled to the electron-transfer chain is called substrate-level phosphorylation. The GTP formed by succinyl-CoA synthetase gives its terminal phosphoryl group to ADP and form ATP.
With the approach of night, our body temperatures begin to drop. This best illustrates the dynamics of the ________.a. hypnagogic state
b. circadian rhythm
c. alpha wave pattern
d. REM rebound
e. latent content.
Answer:
b. circadian rhythm
Explanation:
Circadian rhythm refers to an internal rhythm that operates during the 24-hour day. It represents the patterns of biological activity such as the sleep-wake cycle that occurs on a cycle of about 24 hours. The visual inputs from the retina to the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus regulate the release of melatonin. Reduced secretion of melatonin during day and increased levels during night regulate the rhythmic changes in sleep, wakefulness and body temperature. For example, as night arrives, the increased melatonin secretion stimulates sleep and lowers down the body temperature.
Under what conditions will the body use significant amounts of protein for energy during exercise?a.Inadequate calorie intakeb.Inadequate calorie intake and inadequate carbohydrate storesc.Inadequate carbohydrate storesd.Inadequate fluid intake
Answer:
Hello!
The answer is b. inadequate calorie intake and inadequate carbohydrate storage
Explanation:
Our body requires energy to carry out daily activities and body functions. This energy is available to the body in three forms:
carbohydratesfatsproteinsCarbohydrates are the first and most readily available source of energy as starch and complex carbohydrates and sugars are immediately broken down into glucose which is available for body cells. Excess glucose is also stored as glycogen in the muscles. During exercise, carbohydrates, particularly, glucose are the first sources of energy for the body.
Fats provide the highest energy of all three (9 kilocalories compared to 4 of protein and carbohydrates). Fats are stored in the body in the form of adipose tissues or body fat. Any excess energy is readily stored by the body in the form of fats.
As proteins are not stored by the body, they are the last to be broken down during strenuous or prolonged exercise. Protein, particularly the skeletal muscle is the last to be used for energy in case of low calorie intake and inadequate carbohydrate stores.
Which of the following BEST describes how ATP provides energy to the body's cells?A. Energy is released when a phosphate group is cleavedfrom the ATP molecule.B. Energy is released when two molecules of ATP combine.C. Energy is released when ATP is transported out of thecell membrane.D. Energy is released when adenosine binds to threephosphate molecules.
Final answer:
ATP provides energy to cells by releasing energy when a phosphate group is cleaved from it, which is used by the cell to perform vital functions such as muscle contraction and powering transport mechanisms.
Explanation:
The question asks which process best describes how ATP provides energy to the body's cells. The correct answer is that energy is released when a phosphate group is cleaved from the ATP molecule. This process is crucial because ATP, or adenosine triphosphate, serves as the primary energy currency in cells. It stores energy in phosphate ester bonds, and when these bonds are broken - specifically when ATP is converted to ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and a phosphate group - energy is liberated. This released energy is then used by the cell to perform vital functions, such as the mechanical work of muscle contraction, where ATP supplies the energy required to move contractile muscle proteins and to power the active transport mechanisms like the sodium-potassium pump in cell membranes.
The key to ATP's energy-providing role is the controlled release of energy stored in its phosphate bonds through a process called hydrolysis. This energy fuels a wide range of vital cellular processes.
The correct answer is A. Energy is released when a phosphate group is cleaved from the ATP molecule.
Here's a detailed explanation:
Chemical energy storage: ATP, or adenosine triphosphate, is a molecule that acts as the "universal energy currency" of cells. It stores chemical energy in the bonds between its three phosphate groups. These bonds are like springs: the more stretched they are, the more energy they store.
Energy release through hydrolysis: When a cell needs energy to power a specific process, an enzyme can break (hydrolyze) one of these phosphate bonds. This releases energy, much like releasing tension from a spring. The broken bond converts ATP into ADP (adenosine diphosphate), which has less energy stored.
Specificity of enzymes: Specific enzymes couple the energy released from ATP hydrolysis to the specific energy-requiring needs of different cellular processes. This ensures that the released energy is used efficiently and directed towards the right tasks.
Here's why the other options are incorrect:
B. Energy is released when two molecules of ATP combine: Combining two ATP molecules wouldn't release energy; it would create a larger molecule with more stored energy.
C. Energy is released when ATP is transported out of the cell membrane: ATP's energy is used within the cell, not exported. Transporting it wouldn't release energy.
D. Energy is released when adenosine binds to three phosphate molecules: Adenosine is part of the ATP molecule, but it's not the source of energy release. The energy comes from breaking the bonds between the phosphate groups.
The correct answer is A. Energy is released when a phosphate group is cleaved from the ATP molecule.
A change in facial expression, a pause, an altered vocal pitch or speaking rate, or a movement all may indicate a
Answer:
Nonverbal transition
Explanation:
Nonverbal transition involves using nonverbal communication techniques to pass across a message effectively to an audience. They are often employed by people who engage in public speaking to ensure a good flow of conversation. Nonverbal transition elements, such as a change I facial expression, a pause, an altered vocal pitch or speaking rate etc., are used alone or mixed together by a speaker to attract and sustain the interest and attention of the audience.
In Morgan's testcross of a gray-bodied, long-winged heterozygous female Drosophila with a homozygous recessive black-bodied, vestigial-winged male, the following offspring were obtained: 965 gray body, long wing; 944 black body, vestigial wing; 206 gray body, vestigial wing; 185 black body, long wing. Focusing only on the recombinant classes (gray body, vestigial wing and black body, long wing), the numbers of offspring of each type are similar (206 and 185). What accounts for the similar number of offspring of each recombinant phenotype?
Answer:
The similar number of offspring of each recombinant phenotype occurs as a result of Crossing over between chromosomes that are reciprocal, such that when a recombinant chromosome of one type is formed, the opposite recombinant of that same type is also formed.
You are interested in studying a gene called CFTR because mutations in this gene in humans cause cystic fibrosis. You have made a line of mice that lack the mouse CFTR gene. These mice are unable to clear bacteria from their lungs, so they get lung disease. You put a normal human CFTR gene into some of these mice and discover that the mice with the human gene are able to clear bacteria from their lungs and no longer get lung disease. From this experiment, you can conclude that: ___
A) The DNA sequences of the mouse CFTR gene and human CFTR gene are identical.
B) The amino acid sequences of the mouse CFTR protein and the human CFTR protein are identical.
C) The mouse CFTR gene and human CFTR gene encode proteins that can serve a similar function.
D) Both answers B and C are true.
E) All of the above are true.
Answer:
C) The mouse CFTR gene and human CFTR gene encode proteins that can serve a similar function.
Explanation:
CFTR gene encodes for Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator protein. It is ion channel protein and conducts chloride ions across the cell membrane. Its mutation leads to cystic fibrosis which is characterised by presence of thickened mucus in lungs with frequent infections.
In the given experiment, human CFTR gene is able to function in mouse and restore the lost body functions. This is because human and mouse CFTR gene show high level of similarity due to which they code similar proteins which can function in each other's place. However this does not mean that DNA sequence of the genes is identical. There is still some difference between them because they are two different species.
In reality human CFTR gene is around 189 kb in length whereas mouse CFTR gene is around 152 kb in length. The 27 exons have very similar sequence. Most introns of human CFTR gene are larger than the mouse counterpart.
Based on the information presented, which of the following genetic changes in an individual without diabetes is most likely to result in a disrupted cellular response to insulin signaling similar to that of an individual with type 2 diabetes?
Answer: A deletion in the gene encoding the insulin receptor that removes only the cytoplasmic domain of the protein.
Explanation: The other choices are either unrelated or contradictory to the question, so this would be correct because removing a feature almost vital to the cell will most similarly simulate type II diabetes, disrupting the function of the cell, thus hindering signaling pathways.
A genetic change causing a disrupted cellular response to insulin signaling in an individual without diabetes, similar to type 2 diabetes, would likely affect the insulin receptors or glucose transporters, leading to insulin resistance and hyperglycemia.
Explanation:Insulin Signaling Disruption and Type 2 DiabetesA genetic change in an individual without diabetes that could result in a disrupted cellular response to insulin signaling, similar to that seen in individuals with type 2 diabetes, would likely involve the insulin receptors or the glucose transporters within cells. Since insulin resistance is a hallmark of type 2 diabetes, a mutation that leads to defective insulin receptors on the cell membrane, or that impairs the ability of glucose transporters to respond to insulin, would mimic the effects of this condition. Such changes would prevent cells from taking up glucose efficiently, leading to elevated levels of glucose in the blood, which is symptomatic of type 2 diabetes.
Considering the mechanism of insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes, the genetic change most likely to cause a similar phenotype would be one that disrupts the function or expression of the insulin receptor or the glucose transporter proteins. These disruptions can result in target cell resistance to insulin, preventing the normal uptake of glucose into cells and leading to hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).
Derek takes protein supplements before and after his workouts. He told his workout partner that he became 200% stronger within a couple of months after he added the supplements to his diet. His report about the effects of the supplements is an example of a(an) ________.
Answer:
anecdote
Explanation:
This report would contain his journey of change in his physiology during the stint of two months during which he took protein supplements before and after his workouts.The report will reveal how he become 200% stronger after he added the supplements to his diet. Therefore, the would be an anecdote of this amazing journey of transformation.
It is 10 a.m. and Julie is trying to decide what to prepare for tonight's dinner. She selects a frozen turkey breast and must thaw it before she can proceed with her cooking preparations. Which of the following would be an appropriate method of thawing her poultry?
A. Julie could use her microwave.
B. Julie could place the turkey breast out on the kitchen counter (since she will be cooking the turkey the same day).
D. Julie could place the turkey breast in a basin of warm water.
E. All of these are appropriate thawing methods.
Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
Thawing is process in which a deep frozen food item is allowed to remain at any constant temperature which must be higher than 0 degree Fahrenheit. Once the food item is thawed, various processing can be practiced on it such as – cutting, slicing etc,
The best way to thaw the poultry is to either keep it in microwave at a constant temperature or keep it in some cold water or in the refrigerator.
Hence, option A is correct
Final answer:
The safe methods for thawing a frozen turkey breast, according to the USDA, are in the refrigerator, the cold water method with water changes every 30 minutes, and in the microwave, with immediate cooking afterward.
Explanation:
When deciding what method to use for thawing poultry, such as a frozen turkey breast, it is important to follow safe practices to prevent bacterial growth. The US Department of Agriculture (USDA) recommends three safe thawing methods:
Refrigeration: Thawing the turkey in the refrigerator is a safe method, though it requires planning ahead as it can take a full day for larger items to thaw.
Cold Water Method: Immersing the turkey breast in cold water, making sure the water is changed every 30 minutes, is another safe way to thaw the poultry quickly.
Using a Microwave: If you're short on time, you can use a microwave to thaw the turkey breast. If this method is chosen, you should cook the turkey immediately after thawing because some areas of the food may become warm and begin to cook during microwaving.
It is crucial to note that placing the turkey breast on the counter or in warm water are not recommended methods, as they can keep the food at temperatures that are conducive to bacterial growth.
A radiographic examination of the nasal bones would consist of which of the following positions/projections?A. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection and lateralB. Parietoacanthial (Waters) and PA (Caldwell) projectionsC. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection and both lateralsD. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection, AP axial (Towne) projection and lateral
Answer:
The correct answer is option C. "Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection and both laterals".
Explanation:
While most of the nose is comprised of cartilage, there are nasal bones that could be affected result of an impact or an accident. In order to see if nasal bones are damaged, a radiographic examination comprised of parietoacanthial (Waters) projection and both laterals is needed. Images of both laterals are needed to cover both sides of the nose, while a parietoacanthial examination using the method of Waters is needed to see the front part of the nose.
_____ is a method of enhancing the efficiency of food use and lowering the metabolic rate of the body through successive cycles of dieting and weight gain.
Answer:
yo- yo diet
Explanation:
Yo-yo diet is a method of cyclic loss of weight gain and loss which is called as yo-yo due to the up and down motion of a yo-yo.
In this type of diet the person who is dieting first looses the weight but then again gains it and then again goes on a diet to loose the gained weight.
In this type of dieting pattern a person initially starves and maintains a hypocaloric diet to enhance the efficiency of food use however, this starvation back fires as when the person starts eating again the tendency to eat more fatty food and high caloric intake increases.
Which of the enzymes removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3' end of Okazaki fragments? Use the list of choices below for the following question: I. helicase II. DNA polymerase III III. ligase IV. DNA polymerase I V. primase Which of the enzymes removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3' end of Okazaki fragments? I II III IV V
Answer:
DNA polymerase I
Explanation:
DNA polymerase I has 3' to 5' and 5' to 3' exonuclease activities. The 3' to 5' exonuclease activity is the proofreading activity while the 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of the enzyme is required for the removal of primer and gap-filling during DNA replication. The 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I can replace a segment of DNA or RNA paired to the template strand. This removal of the DNA or RNA segment is called nick translation.
Completion of formation of an Okazaki fragment is followed by removal of RNA primer through 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I. The same enzyme adds deoxyribonucleotides in the gap by its polymerization activity. The remaining nick is sealed by DNA ligase.
Bacteria that contain recombinant plasmids can be easily isolated because: Select one:
a. they are designed to be resistant to certain antibiotics
b. their colonies will be distinguished by a color variation from those colonies containing non recombinant plasmids
c. they are smaller than non-recombinant bacteria
d. they are larger than non-recombinant bacteria
Answer:
The correct answer is a. they are designed to be resistant to certain antibiotics
Explanation:
Recombinant plasmids are those bacteria in which a foreign genetic material is placed for giving some addition characteristic to the plasmid. The recombinant plasmid must have origin or replication and a selectable marker. It should produce its numerous copy in its host.
So most of the plasmids have antibiotic-resistant gene as selectable marker. So the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid can be isolated from other bacteria by growing them on medium containing the antibiotic that the recombinant plasmid in bacteria has.
For example, bacteria having a recombinant plasmid that contains an ampicillin-resistant gene can grow in medium having ampicillin antibiotic but other bacteria that do not have this gene can not grow.
DNA from an organism can bBacteria that contain recombinant plasmids can be easily isolated because: Select one:
a. they are designed to be resistant to certain antibiotics
b. their colonies will be distinguished by a color variation from those colonies containing nonrecombinant plasmids
c. they are smaller than non-recombinant bacteria
d. they are larger than non-recombinant bacteriae incorporated into a vector using the enzyme
Answer:
a. they are designed to be resistant to certain antibiotics
Explanation:
Most of the Bacteria that contain recombinant plasmids as antibiotic-resistant gene. This antibiotic-resistant gene can be used as a selectable marker.
To isolate these bacteria, you will have to inoculate and grow them in a medium containing the antibiotic. Take for example, a recombinant plasmid which has an ampicillin-resistant gene is grown in an ampicillin antibiotic medium since other bacterias present won't be able to grow in the medium due to the lack of the ampicillin-resistant gene.
A 9-month-old child with cystic fibrosis does not like taking pancreatic enzyme supplement with meals and snacks. The mother does not like to force the child to take the supplement. The most important reason for the child to take the pancreatic enzyme supplement with meals and snacks is:
1.The child will become dehydrated if the supplement is not taken with meals and snacks.
2.The child needs these pancreatic enzymes to help the digestive system absorb fats, carbohydrates, and proteins.
3.The child needs the pancreatic enzymes to aid in liquefying mucus to keep the lungs clear.
4.The child will experience severe diarrhea if the supplement is not taken as prescribed.
Answer:
The correct answer is 2. "the child needs these pancreatic enzymes to help the digestive system absorb fats, carbohydrates, and proteins".
Explanation:
90% of patients with cystic fibrosis get the pancreatic enzymes supplement because of their pancreatic insufficiency. These enzymes are released in the intestine and help to digest food.
The enzymes´ principal functions are:
- To digest carbohydrates, proteins, and fats;
- To help to gain weight;
- To promote the absorption of nutrients.
To get an appropriate corporal weight and an improved lungs´ functioning it is important to take the enzyme supplement with every meal. It reduces bad absorption and improves nutrition.