Answer: Hello, you can use the following codes:
ICD-10 M169: coxarthrosis unspecified or ICD-10 Z998: other specified postsurgical states
Explanation: if you want to refer to the disease use the first code, if you want to refer to the current state of the patient the second code explains the procedure to which he was subjected.
What percentage of the US population is estimated not to engage in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity?
Answer:
The estimated percentage is 75%.
Explanation:
It is very common for American people to have a sedentary lifestyle. This is especially true for people who are working in the managerial position. The availability of fast food everywhere is also one factor. It is said that 75% of the US population is estimated not to engage in 30 minutes of low-to-moderate physical activity. This estimation fluctuates according to age, gender and occupation. Another contributing factor to having less physical activity is the rate of unemployment. People who are unemployed find it hard to focus on exercise or physical activity. Instead, they divert their energy towards looking for work.
It is essential to have at least 30 minutes of low-to-moderate exercise 5 times a week in order to stay healthy. America's situation makes them more susceptible to chronic diseases such as diabetes, cancer and obesity.
Which of the following items is a good cue for estimating a portion size equal to one cup?
A. spoonful
B. baseball
C. golf ball
D. six dice
One cup of food is equivalent to an estimated weight of a baseball.
Option B
Explanation:A healthy diet is very essential for maintaining the body healthy as well as fit. The body weight also depends a lot on the amount of daily food intake and also the quality of food that the person consumes on a large scale. This quantification of food is often done by comparing a the weight of correct amounts of food with many household objects that a person uses almost daily, to give the person an idea of how much food intake is enough for a healthy living.
Thus, computer mouse, gold ball, tennis ball, base ball, dice all examples are used. Weight of a cup of food is basically dependent on the food's overall density. But a general estimation suggests that one cup of food weighs around the weigh of a baseball.
A baseball is a good representation of one cup portion size, while a spoonful, a golf ball, and six dice represent smaller portions.
Explanation:When it comes to estimating portion sizes in a diet, visual aids can be very useful. Among the options given to represent a portion-size equivalent to one cup, a baseball is the closest approximation.
A spoonful is too small, more akin to a teaspoon or tablespoon depending on the size of the spoon. A golf ball or the size of six dice arranged in a cube shape, would generally be used to represent 2 tablespoons or 1 ounce portions respectively.
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Which foods are most commonly associated with foodborne illnesses caused by Salmonella
Answer:
The correct answer is- Poultry and eggs
Explanation:
Salmonella is a gram-negative enteric bacteria and is involved in causing foodborne illnesses in humans called salmonellosis. This bacteria can easily be spread by food workers who prepare food especially poultry and meat products.
Humans can get salmonellosis by eating raw and undercooked poultry products. The symptoms of salmonellosis starts after 12-72 hour of consumption of food infected with salmonella.
Initial symptoms are diarrhea, stomach pain, and fever and in severe cases, symptoms like urine in blood, rash, and high fever are seen which can become fatal.
Which of the following actions is not one that bystanders should take?
A. Recognize the emergency.
B. Decide to help.
C. Terminate care before help arrives.
D. Assess the victim.
Answer:
The correct answer is- C. Terminate care before help arrives.
Explanation:
Bystanders are the people that are present at the site of the accident or the place where any incident takes place. Bystanders can be crucial in helping those people who are in trouble especially in case of accidents.
They can help the victim by calling an ambulance, regulating traffic, giving first aid to the victim, assessing the victim, giving moral support to the victim, etc. It is compulsory to provide help to the victim until the ambulance or medical personnel reaches to the victim.
Terminating care before help arrives will not be beneficial to the victim and can lead to more problems for the victim. Therefore the correct answer is C.
Answer:
Terminate care before help arrives.
Explanation:
Emergency medical services may be defined as the services that provide the medical help to the people in case of sudden emergency, accident and poor health condition.
The attendant must provide the first aid and medicine to the required patient. The bystanders should call the medical services and must assess the victim. The bystanders should not stop their help before any medical attendant arrives at the emergency place.
Thus, the answer is option (C).
More than 30 diseases new to human medicine have emerged in the past 3 decades. researchers like carol jenkins, who worked in papua new guinea, believe that many of these emerged as a result of environmental destruction. which of the following is not one of these "new" diseases
a) legionnaire's diseaseb) tuberculosisc) lyme diseased) hIV/AIDS
Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:
It was first discovered by Dr, Robert Koch 1882.
but others were relatively new diseases.
Maery and James are teenage parents of a newborn. They are participating in child development classes to understand appropriate interactions with their newborn. The current topic is preventing Shaken Baby Syndrome. All the following are suggestions to the new parents to prevent the syndrome EXCEPT?
Answer:
Please correct the question
Explanation:
When an infant or toddler is violently shaken, they can suffer from shaken baby syndrome, a catastrophic brain injury.
What is Shaken baby syndrome?Shaken impact syndrome, inflicted head damage, abusive head trauma, and whiplash shaken infant syndrome.
The brain of a child suffering from shaken infant syndrome loses brain cells and cannot receive adequate oxygen. This type of child maltreatment might result in death or irreversible brain damage.
Shaken baby syndrome can be avoided. Parents who run the risk of hurting a kid can get aid. Parents should also inform other caregivers about the risks associated with shaken baby syndrome.
Therefore, When an infant or toddler is violently shaken, they can suffer from shaken baby syndrome, a catastrophic brain injury.
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Jimmy has been diagnosed with expressive language disorder. We would thus expect Jimmy A. to have problems in understanding what others say to him. B. to speak in simplified, sometimes incorrect, sentences. C. to have age-appropriate vocabulary. D. to respond atypically to the speech of others, almost as if he were deaf.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Expressive disorder is when an individual has an issue with written and spoken expression
Although food labels are designed to inform people about how to make healthy food choices, a recent survey found that approximately _____of people have difficulty understanding them.
Answer:
more than 50%
Explanation:
More than half of the population over 40 do not understand the nutritional information that appears on food labeling, according to recent studies
Ignorance of labeling may be one of the reasons why society does not feed properly.
The three parts of the CPT manual are the main text, the appendices, and the alphabetic index
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
CPT ( Current procedure terminology) may be defined as the set of the medical code that are maintained by the American Medical Association. The CPT code the surgical, medical and diagnostic service.
These codes are generally designed to communicate within the coders, physicians and patients. The three different part included in the CPT manual are alphabetic index, main text and the appendices. These codes are quite useful in the medical field.
Thus, the answer is true.
Which of the following systems is involved in declining ability to balance with aging?
A. the nervous system, through slowed nerve conduction speed
B. the visual system, through a decline in visual information about the environment
C. the kinesthetic system, through a loss of kinesthetic receptor sensitivity in the lower limbs
D. B and C
Answer:
b
Explanation:
If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which activity should be avoided?
a. Versa climber
b. Elliptical trainer
c. Rowing machine
d. Treadmill
Final answer:
The client should avoid the Versa Climber as it requires significant shoulder mobility and stability, which could exacerbate the existing issue of arms falling forward during an overhead squat.
Explanation:
During an overhead squat assessment, if a client exhibits arms falling forward, it may indicate a lack of shoulder mobility or stability, tight anterior muscles (such as the pectorals), or weak upper back and scapular stabilizers. The client should avoid exercises that may exacerbate these issues until they have been addressed through a proper corrective exercise program.
In this scenario, the most appropriate answer is: Versa climber
As the Versa Climber requires significant shoulder mobility and stability. Using this equipment before correcting the dysfunctions could worsen the condition or result in injury. Instead, focus should be placed on exercises that improve shoulder mobility and strength, particularly for the upper back and scapular stabilizers.
Which of the following nutrients need to be supplied first by solid foods in a baby's diet?
a. Vitamin C and iron
b. Vitamin A and zinc
c. Vitamin B12 and fluoride
d. Vitamin E and magnesium
Answer:
a. Vitamin C and iron
Explanation:
As of the sixth month, this milk begins to be insufficient to meet the nutritional demands of growth, and it is time to start incorporating food that complements its contribution. For this, the consultant clarifies that the situation of babies who only breastfeed is different, from those who receive formula milk.
In the complementary feeding of children who receive exclusively the breast, it is necessary to incorporate meats, liver, eggs and fruits early, to avoid nutritional deficiencies (iron, zinc, proteins and some vitamins).
On the contrary, children who receive infant formulas or a combination of formula and breast in more than two thirds of the contribution as a formula, complementary feeding is less critical because the formulas are already added with vitamins and minerals. This is the reason why many pediatricians indicate iron and vitamin supplements (mainly vitamin C) from the sixth month on children who receive exclusive breast.
The process that helps the body cool off to maintain its temperature is called _____.
The ______ growth patterns involves the sequence in which growth starts at the center of the body and moves towards the extremities
Answer: proximodistal
Explanation:
The proximodistal is the growth pattern in humans. In this growth pattern the growth initiates in the body's center and extends to the extremities. It is the development of limbs and fine motor skills. It determines the pattern of growth from center to outward development.
An example of this kind of growth pattern is development of the trunk and arms is relative to the development of hands and fingers.
Answer:
Proximodistal
Explanation:
The proximodistal trend is the tendency for more general functions of limbs to develop before more specific or fine motor skills. It comes from the Latin words proxim- which means "close" and "-dis-" meaning "away from", because the trend essentially describes a path from the center outward.
Which of the following statements about conflict between adolescents and parents is TRUE?A) Parent-adolescent conflict increases from early adolescence to late adolescence.B) Recent research shows that Hall’s conception of adolescence as a time of "storm and stress" is probably true.C) Parent-child conflict is stronger than parent-early adolescent conflict.D) Conflict between parents and adolescents is highest in early adolescence.
Answer:
B) Recent research shows that Hall’s conception of adolescence as a time of "storm and stress" is probably true
Explanation:
In the scientific study, the work of G. Stanley Hall, with an emphasis on biological theory, which defines adolescence as a period of universal and inevitable transition, consider it as a second birth. It recognizes the influence of culture while valuing the individual differences of the adolescent and their characteristic of plasticity (malleability) and can be considered innovative and provocative for their time, a precursor of contemporary contextualist theories.
In his work, Hall described adolescence as a period marked by "storm and stress" and, over the past century, many studies have strengthened this view, emphasizing the difficulties and problems manifested at this time in life.
To this day, adolescence is touted as a particularly stressful period of life, probably as a result. physical, psychological, cognitive and social changes that are characteristic of this phase of development. Such changes lead to an increase in the number and variability of life experiences and demands that different environments (family, school, peer group) cause to those in this phase. At this time, young people seek to experience new events (eg, loving relationships, finding new friends, academic goals), which can become a source of stress, which, in turn trigger the stress, making it bigger the conflicts between parents and adolescents.
The true statement about parent-adolescent conflict is that it typically increases from early to late adolescence, but most conflicts are minor and about daily issues, decreasing as teens grow older.
Explanation:The statement about conflict between adolescents and parents that is TRUE is that parent-adolescent conflict increases from early adolescence to late adolescence (A). Research such as that by Steinberg & Morris (2001) and Barber (1994) has found that most disagreements between parents and adolescents are minor and revolve around day-to-day issues such as homework, curfews, and chores. Additionally, these conflicts tend to decrease as teens mature. The concept of adolescence as a time of 'storm and stress,' as originally suggested by G. Stanley Hall, has been largely reconsidered, with only small numbers of teens having major conflicts with their parents.
When protecting the client and therapist relationship which best describes the appropriate boundaries to set?
Answer:
When protecting the client and therapist relationship which best describes the appropriate boundaries to set:
Personal and Clinical BoundariesExplanation:
Whenever you make a relationship with some professional individual then it is best to set boundaries in order to prevent any kind of conflict and embarrassment in the relationship.In case of client and therapist relationship, it is best to set the boundaries in the personal life and clinical life of the therapist.If you will not make the boundaries, then it is highly likely that there may create a conflict or ambiguity. That is not good for relationships. Moreover, it will create distances and differences between the two.If a woman was assaulted and has sustained deep lacerations to her genitals the EMT should:
A. treat the injury like other soft tissue injuries.B. immediately administer oxygen.C. elevate the hips.D. apply the PASG.
Answer:
A. treat the injury like other soft tissue injuries
Explanation:
The vaginal is surrounded by soft tissues. Laceration on the vaginal as a result of the assault suffered by the woman would would result in tears in the vaginal, or in the skin and muscle that surrounds the vaginal.
To prevent further complications, the EMT should treat the vaginal lacerations like every other soft tissue injury. Treatment might include proper positioning, applying cold press, applying direct pressure etc.
The EMT should treat deep genital lacerations from an assault like other soft tissue injuries, focusing on controlling bleeding and providing sterility. Option A is correct .
When a woman has sustained deep lacerations to her genitals due to an assault, the EMT should follow a systematic approach to ensure she receives appropriate care.
The most suitable response is to treat the injury like other soft tissue injuries (Option A). This includes controlling any bleeding by applying direct pressure, using sterile dressings to cover the wounds, and ensuring the patient remains as comfortable as possible during transport. Elevating the hips or applying the PASG (Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment) is not recommended as it may complicate the injury.Administering oxygen is essential if there are signs of shock or respiratory distress but is not the immediate focus for managing lacerations.
The _______________ travels upward from the cecum to the undersurface of the liver
Answer:
ascending colon
Explanation:
Colon
Also called the large intestine, it is the last portion of the digestive system in most vertebrates; it extracts water and salt from solid waste before they are removed from the body. It is a long and hollow tube that is at the end of this system, in which the body produces and stores feces. The ileocecal valve of the ileum ([[small intestine]]) passes the material to the large intestine through the cecum. The material passes through the ascending, descending and transverse portions, and sigmoid of the colon and finally to the rectum. From this waste is expelled from the body.
Ascending colon
It extends from the cecum to the right colic flexure (colic impression on the underside of the liver, forming the hepatocolic ligament). It is related to the handles of the small intestine, right kidney, and descending portion of the duodenum, in addition to the muscular structures of the posterior wall: psoas, lumbar square, transverse abdomen, femoral nerve, [[lateral femoral cutaneous]], ilium- hypogastric, ilio-inguinal and [[femoral gene]]: gonadal vessels, internal iliac artery and [[iliac bone]] complete the relationships.
Answer:
ascending colon
Explanation:
Which of the following is not true about fish storage? (a) Frozen fish should be tightly wrapped to prevent freezer burn. (b) Fresh fish should be stored on crushed ice. (c) Frozen fat fish can be stored up to six months. (d) Frozen fish should be stored at 0°F (–18°C) or colder
Answer: (c) Frozen fat fish can be stored up to six months.
Explanation:
Fresh caught fish can be gutted and cleaned so that it can be stored in proper temperature in the refrigerator until ready for cooking. The temperature zone for fish ranges from 40°- 140°F is a danger temperature zone.
The raw or uncooked fish can be stored in the refrigerator only for 2 to 3 days. The leftover cooked fish can be stored in refrigerator only for 3 to 4 days.
The correct answer is c. The statement that is not true about fish storage frozen fat fish can be stored up to six months.
To address the storage of fish, let's consider each option:
a. Frozen fish should be tightly wrapped to prevent freezer burn. This statement is true. Freezer burn occurs when air reaches the surface of the food, causing it to dry out and lose flavor. Tightly wrapping fish helps to prevent this by minimizing exposure to air.
b. Fresh fish should be stored on crushed ice. This statement is also true. Keeping fresh fish on crushed ice ensures that it stays cold and slows down bacterial growth, which can spoil the fish.
c. Frozen fat fish can be stored up to six months. This statement is not true. Generally, fatty fish, such as salmon or mackerel, have a shorter freezer life compared to leaner fish because the fat can become rancid over time. Fatty fish are typically recommended to be stored for only 1 to 2 months in the freezer to maintain optimal quality.
d. Frozen fish should be stored at 0°F (18°C) or colder. This statement is true. To maintain the quality and safety of frozen fish, it should be kept at this temperature or lower to prevent the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms.
Therefore, the incorrect statement, which is not true about fish storage, is that frozen fat fish can be stored up to six months. The correct storage time for fatty fish in the freezer is shorter, usually around 1 to 2 months for best quality.
A 24-year-old woman undergoing a premarital screening test is found to have elevated levels of AST, ALT, and IgG, but no antibody-specific markers for viral hepatitis. A liver biopsy reveals inflammation and cellular damage. Which of the following treatments is most likely to be effective for her?
A) Lamivudine
B) Peginterferon and ribavirin
C) Interferon alfa-2b
D) Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs
Answer:
Corticosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs
Explanation:
The Woman is probably down with Autoimmune Hepatitis which may have been induced by genetic, or environmental factors ( possibly viral infection). Autoimmune hepatitis arises when the immune system of a person attack its own cells in this case the liver cell. This can lead to inflammation of the liver, scarring of the liver (cirrhosis) or possibly liver failure. People can be asymptomatic ( showing no symptoms) but in people with symptoms, jaundice (yellowness of the skin and eyes) pruritis (itching skin) and others is often seen.
Treatment will be administration of immunosuppressant drugs such as Azathioprine, in combination with corticosteriods (prednisone) to lower the immune system. Other immunosuppressive drug used in treatment include mycophenoate mofetil and cyclosporine. People may not to respond to treatment or might have complication due to toxicity of the drug in such case Liver transplant may be necessary if the damage is enormous. `
Answer:
Immunosuppressants drugs and Corticosteroids
Explanation:
Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment and have been shown to produce remission.
A drug screening test performed on a urine sample can detect the presence of
Answer:
May detect amphetamines or methamphetamines, barbiturates, benzodiazepines, cocaine, marijuana, MDA-analogues (MDA or MDMA), opiates (codeine, morphine, 6-acetylmorphine [indicative of heroin use], hydromorphone, hydrocodone, oxymorphone, oxycodone), nicotine, or alcohol.
Explanation:
A drug screening test performed on a urine sample can detect numerous substances including glucose and cortisol. This is accomplished using urine test strips or through a common method known as urinalysis. Some substances the tests can detect are indicative of diabetes, bacterial infections, and kidney complications.
Explanation:A drug screening test performed on a urine sample can detect the presence of a number of substances. Like the use of urine test strips, other tests such as Benedict's test can be performed to detect and quantify the presence and quantity of glucose in urine, which correlates to diabetes in high quantities. Testing for other substances such as the adrenal hormone cortisol may require a 24-hour urine collection.
Regarding urinalysis, a simple and common urine test, it can detect various elements such as protein, glucose, pH, and even cellular elements including red and white blood cells. In the case of infections, specific tests are carried out to identify the type of bacteria, if present, or if kidney impairment is suspected, further extensive tests are conducted.
Urine test strips can be used to detect abnormal levels of certain components in urine, for instance, nitrites that point to certain bacterial infections, albumin indicating a kidney infection or kidney failure, high sodium concentrations suggesting kidney failure, and the presence of white blood cells and blood indicative of a urinary tract infection or other urinary system disorder.
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Jeff is an unforgiving perfectionist who would rather deliver work a week late than turn in a project with even minor mistakes. In fact, he spends so much time working that he never has time for anything else. Jeff is known to be rigid, inflexible, and stubborn, and he never compromises. Which of the following diagnoses accounts for Jeff's personality?
Answer:
Jeff has Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder
Explanation:
Final answer:
Jeff likely has obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, marked by a pervasive need for perfectionism, rigidity, and excessive devotion to work. He also exhibits Type A behavior, which includes competitiveness and susceptibility to stress-related health issues.
Explanation:
Based on the detailed descriptions provided, the diagnosis that accounts for Jeff's personality could be considered obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). This disorder is characterized by a pervasive need for perfectionism that significantly interferes with the individual's ability to complete tasks. Jeff's symptoms include being excessively devoted to work at the expense of leisure and friendships, a strong adherence to rules and schedules, and being rigid, inflexible, and stubborn. It is important to differentiate OCPD from obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), as they are not the same condition.
Jeff also seems to exhibit traits of the Type A behavior pattern, such as being highly competitive, strong-willed, and prone to stress-related health issues, like his heart attack at the age of 52. This behavior pattern can further contribute to his stringent work ethic and difficulty in managing personal relationships and emotions.
Of the ten leading causes of death in the United States, diet plays a role in six of them. Drag the six leading causes of death in which diet plays a part to the box on the left. Drag the remaining causes of death (not related to food intake) to the box on the right.
Answer:
Diet plays an important role in the individual's life, Most of the disease might occur in the body due to the improper diet and diet includes the junk and oily food. Some of the disease has no consideration with the diet and occurs due to the genetic related problems.
Among the disease listed in the question, the disease that are related to the intake of the food are : cancer, diabetes, heart disease, kidney diseases , stroke and Alzheimer's disease. The disease that has no relation with the diet are accidents, self killing, influenza and respiratory disease.
Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants...a. Two weeksb. Two monthsc. Five monthsd. One year
Answer: c. Five months
Explanation:
The digestive system in infants is weak and is incapable of digesting solid foods in young age typically in one or two months after birth. According to the american academy of pediatrics. The infant must be fed with solid foods in 4-6 months. It also depends on how the infant responds when fed with different solid foods. The solid food must be in highly diluted form, like in a meshed form and must be boiled so that the infant can swallow and digest the food easily.
In the United States, people who live in urban areas have a life expectancy ______ years longer than those who live in rural areas.
Answer: 2.0 years
Explanation:
NOTE:
17% of the U.S. population lives in rural areas, while 83% in urban areas.
During the past 40 years, there is a consistent overall increase in U.S. life expectancy from 70.8 years in 1970 to 78.7 years in 2010. However, a decade ago, a study reveals the rural-urban gap widening from 0.4 years in 1969 through 1971 to 2.0 years in 2005 through 2009.
Study showed that 70% of the overall rural-urban gap in life expectancy and 54% of the life expectancy gap between the urban rich and rural poor in 2005 to 2009 are caused by accidents, cardiovascular disease, COPD and lung cancer.
A combination of factors likely accounts for this disparity. Compared to urban areas, rural areas have higher rates of both smoking and lung cancer, plus obesity, yet reduced access to health care services. Also, rural dwellers have a very low median family income, higher poverty rate and very few have college degrees.
Answer:
The correct answer for: In the United States, people who live in urban areas have a life expectancy ______ years longer than those who live in rural areas. Is: 3.5%
Explanation:
All right, to understand this question we need to recall 2005-2009 rural and urban census information. According to that study, the urban population lived 3.5% more than people in rural areas. To be honest this is not a very big gap. However, it was declared that most of the difference was because people who live in rural areas have less access to healthcare emergency services. Thus, that results in a very small GAP.
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of a traction splint?A. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femurB. Pelvis, hip, or knee injuryC. Injury to the lower third of the leg that would interfere with the ankle hitchD. Avulsion or partial amputation where traction could separate the extremity
Answer: The rigth answer is: A. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur
Explanation: There are some contraindications for the use of a traction splint among them are: -Injuries near the knee and injuries of the hips and / or pelvis and amputation of some part of the limb, therefore option B and D are incorrect. The traction splint firmly grabs the ankle, if there is an injury that interferes with the hitch, it cannot be placed, so option C is incorrect. If there is a femur fracture, it is very common to find severe swelling and redness in the femur of the middle axis and there is no problem with placing the traction splint because the purpose of this is to stabilize the fracture.
Which of the following is FALSE concerning the safe storage of leftovers at home?
A. You can safely eat leftovers during your 12:30-1:00 PM lunch break if you packed them in an airtight glass container before you left your apartment at 8:00 AM.
B. You make a large tuna casserole at home and can eat only a small portion. You don't plan to eat at home again until the following week.
C. Your best bet is to separate the remaining casserole into shallow containers and freeze them. You purchase some pasta salad from a deli on Monday night, consume a portion, and refrigerate the leftovers.
D. You can safely consume the remainder of the salad on Thursday night.
E. After consuming half of a pizza at a restaurant at 7:00 PM, you can safely refrigerate the remaining half when you get home at 8:30 PM.
Answer:B. You make a large tuna casserole at home and can eat only a small portion. You don't plan to eat at home again until the following week.
Explanation:
The left overs can be kept in refrigerator only for 5 days. The meat dishes can be kept in refrigerator for 3days or must be consumed within 3days.
The tuna fish in casserole form will get spoiled if left for a week. Thus must be consumed within 3 days.
The false statement concerning the safe storage of leftovers at home is that you can safely eat leftovers during your lunch break if you packed them in an airtight glass container in the morning.
Explanation:The false statement concerning the safe storage of leftovers at home is A. You cannot safely eat leftovers during your 12:30-1:00 PM lunch break if you packed them in an airtight glass container before you left your apartment at 8:00 AM.
Perishable leftovers should be refrigerated as soon as possible. If cooked leftovers are stored at room temperature for more than two hours, they can become unsafe to eat even if reheated. It is important to keep foods meant to be eaten hot hot until served and foods meant to be eaten cold refrigerated until served.
Scott has sexual fantasies and engages in sexual behavior that is focused on objects and situations that are not part of the usual pattern of affectionate sexual activity. His behavior often puts him at risk for being arrested. If Scott has a sexual problem, it is likely to be in the general category of ____.a. paraphilic disorders
b. sexual personality disorders
c. sexual dysfunctions
d. gender dysphoria
Answer:
B. Sexual Personality Disorders
Explanation:
He becomes a different person when engaging in sexual behavior thus illustrating someone who does not really maintain his normal mindset during the act.
A health educator is performing a health promotion workshop with the staff of a large, urban homeless shelter, and a component of the teaching centers around tuberculosis. One of the staff members comments, "Anyone who's had contact with tuberculosis in the past can give it to any of the other residents of the shelter, even if they didn't get sick themselves." How could the educator best respond to this comment?
A) "Many people do manage to fight off the infection, but you're right: they can still spread it by coughing or sneezing."
B) "If someone has been previously exposed to tuberculosis, they are particularly infectious because they are often unaware of the disease."
C) "Actually, people who have the latent form of the disease won't be sick and can't spread it either."
D) "There isn't any real risk of them spreading it, but we would like to vaccinate everyone who's had any contact with it in the past."
Answer:
C) "Actually, people who have the latent form of the disease won't be sick and can't spread it either."
Explanation:
People who have the latent form of the disease have tuberculosis' bacteria in their system, but it is not active, therefore they can not spread it when they sneeze or cough, and they will not be sick. Only people with active tuberculosis can spread the disease as well as being sick.
Ruby performs self-myofascial release and static stretching on a client, following which she performs an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following, if observed, will indicate the need for active-isolated stretching of the client's rear hip?
a. The client's knees bow out
b. The client's knees fall in
c. The client's toes turn out
d. The client leans forward excessively
Answer: A. The client’s knees bows out
Explanation:
When Ruby is performing the self myofascial release and static stretching on the client, after which she performs an overhead squat assessment, the only option amongst the list that will indicate the need for active isolated stretching of the clients rear hip will be the first option “the client’s knees bows out”. This should be seen practically to fully understand it so take note when next you hit the gym
In an overhead squat assessment, if the client excessively leans forward, it is indicative of a need for active-isolated stretching of the client's rear hip. This is due to tight hip flexors and weak hip extensors which can be improved through active-isolated stretching.
Explanation:The overhead squat assessment is a tool used by fitness professionals to identify imbalances and weaknesses in the body that could potentially lead to injury. When Ruby assesses the client performing an overhead squat, she is looking for any abnormalities in the client's posture and movements.
If Ruby notes that the client excessively leans forward during the overhead squat, this indicates a need for active-isolated stretching of the client's rear hip. The forward lean is a sign of tight hip flexors and weak hip extensors which can be improved through active-isolated stretching. This type of stretching method specifically isolates the muscle to be stretched, in this case, the hip extensors (gluteus maximus, hamstrings), to allow for deeper and more efficient stretching. Thus, the correct answer is d. The client leans forward excessively.
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