They will have differing effects dependent upon the type of genetic messages. So, the correct option is B.
What is Genetic code?Genetic code is defined as the set of rules used by living cells to translate the information encoded within the genetic material into proteins.
The genetic code is made up of codons, which are three-letter chains of nucleotides, where each codon codes for a specific amino acid. The code determines the order in which amino acids are added to a polypeptide chain during protein synthesis, thus, the genetic code determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein.
If a person has inherited genetic coding that is related to heart disease as they will have differing effects dependent upon the type of genetic messages.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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Final answer:
Dietary practices can significantly affect the health of a person with a genetic predisposition to heart disease by helping to slow down or prevent the disease's onset. A balanced diet low in saturated fats and cholesterol, along with a healthy lifestyle, can reduce the risk despite genetic factors. Lifestyle choices are crucial in managing the risk of heart disease.
Explanation:
If a person has inherited genetic coding that is related to heart disease, dietary practices can play a significant role in their health. Although one cannot change their genetic makeup, adopting healthy dietary practices can help to slow down or prevent the onset of heart disease. Consuming a balanced diet that is low in saturated fats and cholesterol, as suggested by the 2015-2020 US Dietary Guidelines, is crucial for people with a genetic predisposition to heart disease.
Additionally, maintaining a healthy weight and engaging in physical activity can further decrease the risk. It is important to understand that genetic factors may influence how one's body processes cholesterol, contributing to disease risk; however, lifestyle choices such as diet and exercise can mitigate some of these risks. Lifestyle and environmental factors can be powerful tools in managing health.
Despite the genetic predisposition, heart disease is not inevitable for those with a family history of cardiovascular disease. By being proactive about dietary choices and other lifestyle habits, individuals can significantly impact their overall risk and health outcomes.
The ______ growth patterns involves the sequence in which growth starts at the center of the body and moves towards the extremities
Answer: proximodistal
Explanation:
The proximodistal is the growth pattern in humans. In this growth pattern the growth initiates in the body's center and extends to the extremities. It is the development of limbs and fine motor skills. It determines the pattern of growth from center to outward development.
An example of this kind of growth pattern is development of the trunk and arms is relative to the development of hands and fingers.
Answer:
Proximodistal
Explanation:
The proximodistal trend is the tendency for more general functions of limbs to develop before more specific or fine motor skills. It comes from the Latin words proxim- which means "close" and "-dis-" meaning "away from", because the trend essentially describes a path from the center outward.
Which of the following is FALSE concerning the safe storage of leftovers at home?
A. You can safely eat leftovers during your 12:30-1:00 PM lunch break if you packed them in an airtight glass container before you left your apartment at 8:00 AM.
B. You make a large tuna casserole at home and can eat only a small portion. You don't plan to eat at home again until the following week.
C. Your best bet is to separate the remaining casserole into shallow containers and freeze them. You purchase some pasta salad from a deli on Monday night, consume a portion, and refrigerate the leftovers.
D. You can safely consume the remainder of the salad on Thursday night.
E. After consuming half of a pizza at a restaurant at 7:00 PM, you can safely refrigerate the remaining half when you get home at 8:30 PM.
Answer:B. You make a large tuna casserole at home and can eat only a small portion. You don't plan to eat at home again until the following week.
Explanation:
The left overs can be kept in refrigerator only for 5 days. The meat dishes can be kept in refrigerator for 3days or must be consumed within 3days.
The tuna fish in casserole form will get spoiled if left for a week. Thus must be consumed within 3 days.
The false statement concerning the safe storage of leftovers at home is that you can safely eat leftovers during your lunch break if you packed them in an airtight glass container in the morning.
Explanation:The false statement concerning the safe storage of leftovers at home is A. You cannot safely eat leftovers during your 12:30-1:00 PM lunch break if you packed them in an airtight glass container before you left your apartment at 8:00 AM.
Perishable leftovers should be refrigerated as soon as possible. If cooked leftovers are stored at room temperature for more than two hours, they can become unsafe to eat even if reheated. It is important to keep foods meant to be eaten hot hot until served and foods meant to be eaten cold refrigerated until served.
which medical development used to treat children battling leukemia was made possible by animal research?
Answer: Chemotherapy
Explanation: Chemotherapy is the use of chemical substances to treat diseases,most of the drugs used to treat the diseases of Humans were developed through animal research. The drugs for Leukemia (cancer of the blood forming tissues,bone marrow and the lymphatic system) helping in treating children battling with Leukemia where developed through animals some of the used in drugs research are Mice,White Rats etc most of which have similar biological/physiological composition like man.
Of the ten leading causes of death in the United States, diet plays a role in six of them. Drag the six leading causes of death in which diet plays a part to the box on the left. Drag the remaining causes of death (not related to food intake) to the box on the right.
Answer:
Diet plays an important role in the individual's life, Most of the disease might occur in the body due to the improper diet and diet includes the junk and oily food. Some of the disease has no consideration with the diet and occurs due to the genetic related problems.
Among the disease listed in the question, the disease that are related to the intake of the food are : cancer, diabetes, heart disease, kidney diseases , stroke and Alzheimer's disease. The disease that has no relation with the diet are accidents, self killing, influenza and respiratory disease.
Jeff is an unforgiving perfectionist who would rather deliver work a week late than turn in a project with even minor mistakes. In fact, he spends so much time working that he never has time for anything else. Jeff is known to be rigid, inflexible, and stubborn, and he never compromises. Which of the following diagnoses accounts for Jeff's personality?
Answer:
Jeff has Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder
Explanation:
Final answer:
Jeff likely has obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, marked by a pervasive need for perfectionism, rigidity, and excessive devotion to work. He also exhibits Type A behavior, which includes competitiveness and susceptibility to stress-related health issues.
Explanation:
Based on the detailed descriptions provided, the diagnosis that accounts for Jeff's personality could be considered obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). This disorder is characterized by a pervasive need for perfectionism that significantly interferes with the individual's ability to complete tasks. Jeff's symptoms include being excessively devoted to work at the expense of leisure and friendships, a strong adherence to rules and schedules, and being rigid, inflexible, and stubborn. It is important to differentiate OCPD from obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), as they are not the same condition.
Jeff also seems to exhibit traits of the Type A behavior pattern, such as being highly competitive, strong-willed, and prone to stress-related health issues, like his heart attack at the age of 52. This behavior pattern can further contribute to his stringent work ethic and difficulty in managing personal relationships and emotions.
Which of the following activities can spread an STI? A. giving blood B. using public toilets C. swimming in public pools D. sharing needles Please select the best answer from the choices provided.
Answer:
D. Sharing needles
Explanation:
Sharing a needle or syringe to inject any substance (including steroids, hormones or silicone) puts you at risk of HIV and other infections found in the blood, like hepatitis C. You’re at risk whether you’re injecting under the skin only or directly into your bloodstream.
Sharing needles is an activity that can spread se*ually transmitted infection (STI). Details about STI can be found below.
What is an STI?STI means se*ually transmitted infection and it is any disease or infection that can be contacted through se*ual intercourse.
Examples of STI are as follows:
GonorrheaSyphilisAIDsGenital herpesSince STI's require the contact of blood to be contacted, therefore, sharing needles is an activity that can spread se*ually transmitted infection (STI).
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A health educator is performing a health promotion workshop with the staff of a large, urban homeless shelter, and a component of the teaching centers around tuberculosis. One of the staff members comments, "Anyone who's had contact with tuberculosis in the past can give it to any of the other residents of the shelter, even if they didn't get sick themselves." How could the educator best respond to this comment?
A) "Many people do manage to fight off the infection, but you're right: they can still spread it by coughing or sneezing."
B) "If someone has been previously exposed to tuberculosis, they are particularly infectious because they are often unaware of the disease."
C) "Actually, people who have the latent form of the disease won't be sick and can't spread it either."
D) "There isn't any real risk of them spreading it, but we would like to vaccinate everyone who's had any contact with it in the past."
Answer:
C) "Actually, people who have the latent form of the disease won't be sick and can't spread it either."
Explanation:
People who have the latent form of the disease have tuberculosis' bacteria in their system, but it is not active, therefore they can not spread it when they sneeze or cough, and they will not be sick. Only people with active tuberculosis can spread the disease as well as being sick.
Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants...a. Two weeksb. Two monthsc. Five monthsd. One year
Answer: c. Five months
Explanation:
The digestive system in infants is weak and is incapable of digesting solid foods in young age typically in one or two months after birth. According to the american academy of pediatrics. The infant must be fed with solid foods in 4-6 months. It also depends on how the infant responds when fed with different solid foods. The solid food must be in highly diluted form, like in a meshed form and must be boiled so that the infant can swallow and digest the food easily.
_______________ is the process by which cells from healthy bone become attached and grow around a dental implant.
Answer:
Osseointegration.
Explanation:
Osseos are known as bone. Bone may be defined as one of the important connective tissue present in the body. Bones bears the weight of all the muscles of the body.
Osseointegration determines the structural and the functional connection between the bone and the artificial implantation of the bone. This is also known as bone adherence and the new bone get directly laid on the implant surface of the bone.
Thus, the answer is osseointegration.
If a woman was assaulted and has sustained deep lacerations to her genitals the EMT should:
A. treat the injury like other soft tissue injuries.B. immediately administer oxygen.C. elevate the hips.D. apply the PASG.
Answer:
A. treat the injury like other soft tissue injuries
Explanation:
The vaginal is surrounded by soft tissues. Laceration on the vaginal as a result of the assault suffered by the woman would would result in tears in the vaginal, or in the skin and muscle that surrounds the vaginal.
To prevent further complications, the EMT should treat the vaginal lacerations like every other soft tissue injury. Treatment might include proper positioning, applying cold press, applying direct pressure etc.
The EMT should treat deep genital lacerations from an assault like other soft tissue injuries, focusing on controlling bleeding and providing sterility. Option A is correct .
When a woman has sustained deep lacerations to her genitals due to an assault, the EMT should follow a systematic approach to ensure she receives appropriate care.
The most suitable response is to treat the injury like other soft tissue injuries (Option A). This includes controlling any bleeding by applying direct pressure, using sterile dressings to cover the wounds, and ensuring the patient remains as comfortable as possible during transport. Elevating the hips or applying the PASG (Pneumatic Anti-Shock Garment) is not recommended as it may complicate the injury.Administering oxygen is essential if there are signs of shock or respiratory distress but is not the immediate focus for managing lacerations.
Which of the following systems is involved in declining ability to balance with aging?
A. the nervous system, through slowed nerve conduction speed
B. the visual system, through a decline in visual information about the environment
C. the kinesthetic system, through a loss of kinesthetic receptor sensitivity in the lower limbs
D. B and C
Answer:
b
Explanation:
What approach would you recommend that low- and middle-income countries take to prevent and control unintentional injuries? Group of answer choices
A. Broadly implement policies that have worked in high-income countries.
B. Ignore the epidemiology of injuries in local contexts and take a unified approach to addressing the issue.
C. Carry out pilot projects based on what has worked in high-income countries, adapt to the local context, and expand more broadly with time.
D. Invest all the resources into public health education and communication.
Answer:
Carry out pilot projects based on what has worked in high-income countries, adapt to the local context, and expand more broadly with time.
Option: (C)
Explanation:
Pilot projects are the major criteria for the low and middle level income countries. It includes the small-scale research, and feasibility test for the long run helpful projects. So, they can get a large amount of brain storming ideas from the developed countries work investments and make it stable in long run.A 68-year-old man who has smoked for at least 50 years reports that lately he feels as though food is "getting stuck" in his throat. At first this was a problem just with dry food, but now his morning oatmeal is getting stuck. On questioning, he reports drinking at least five alcoholic beverages nearly every day. His problem is most likely:
A) achalasia.B) squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus.C) dysphagia secondary to scleroderma.D) gastrointestinal reflux disease.
Answer:
B) Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus
Explanation:
In a short answer, the man is suffering from esophagus cancer. It is often lethal, and is usually associated with excessive smoking and drinking (along with old age).
The phrase "squamous cell carcinoma" can be interpreted as "cancer of the squamous cells". Squamous epithelial cells are the cells that line the esophagus and make it possible for the "swallowing action" to happen.
Although food labels are designed to inform people about how to make healthy food choices, a recent survey found that approximately _____of people have difficulty understanding them.
Answer:
more than 50%
Explanation:
More than half of the population over 40 do not understand the nutritional information that appears on food labeling, according to recent studies
Ignorance of labeling may be one of the reasons why society does not feed properly.
The three parts of the CPT manual are the main text, the appendices, and the alphabetic index
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
CPT ( Current procedure terminology) may be defined as the set of the medical code that are maintained by the American Medical Association. The CPT code the surgical, medical and diagnostic service.
These codes are generally designed to communicate within the coders, physicians and patients. The three different part included in the CPT manual are alphabetic index, main text and the appendices. These codes are quite useful in the medical field.
Thus, the answer is true.
Digoxin has been prescribed for an outclient with symptomatic heart failure. What is the priority teaching point to convey to this client?
Answer:
Make sure to take your pulse for a minute before you take the digoxin.
Explanation:
Digoxin can also help people who have a rapid or irregular heartbeat. This can be caused by a heart problem called atrial fibrillation. Digoxin helps by slowing down and controlling the heart rate. If you have atrial fibrillation, the following symptoms may mean that you are not getting enough digoxin:
Rapid pulse (more than 100 beats per minute).
Palpitations, or a feeling that your heart is racing.
Change in your heart rate.
Dizziness.
Fainting or blackouts.
So if the heart beat is irregular digoxin can work to balance the heart beat.
Scott has sexual fantasies and engages in sexual behavior that is focused on objects and situations that are not part of the usual pattern of affectionate sexual activity. His behavior often puts him at risk for being arrested. If Scott has a sexual problem, it is likely to be in the general category of ____.a. paraphilic disorders
b. sexual personality disorders
c. sexual dysfunctions
d. gender dysphoria
Answer:
B. Sexual Personality Disorders
Explanation:
He becomes a different person when engaging in sexual behavior thus illustrating someone who does not really maintain his normal mindset during the act.
Sheri wants to get her husband, Carlos, to finish waxing the car before they go out for the evening. Being a student of Jeffery Gray's theory of personality Sheri knows that the best way get her impulsive husband to complete the task is to _________________.
Answer:
Sheri could offer to buy her husband his favorite dinner if he finishes waxing the car.
Explanation:
Carlos may be more inclined to finish waxing the car if he will be rewarded with something he enjoys that evening.
The process that helps the body cool off to maintain its temperature is called _____.
Which of the following items is a good cue for estimating a portion size equal to one cup?
A. spoonful
B. baseball
C. golf ball
D. six dice
One cup of food is equivalent to an estimated weight of a baseball.
Option B
Explanation:A healthy diet is very essential for maintaining the body healthy as well as fit. The body weight also depends a lot on the amount of daily food intake and also the quality of food that the person consumes on a large scale. This quantification of food is often done by comparing a the weight of correct amounts of food with many household objects that a person uses almost daily, to give the person an idea of how much food intake is enough for a healthy living.
Thus, computer mouse, gold ball, tennis ball, base ball, dice all examples are used. Weight of a cup of food is basically dependent on the food's overall density. But a general estimation suggests that one cup of food weighs around the weigh of a baseball.
A baseball is a good representation of one cup portion size, while a spoonful, a golf ball, and six dice represent smaller portions.
Explanation:When it comes to estimating portion sizes in a diet, visual aids can be very useful. Among the options given to represent a portion-size equivalent to one cup, a baseball is the closest approximation.
A spoonful is too small, more akin to a teaspoon or tablespoon depending on the size of the spoon. A golf ball or the size of six dice arranged in a cube shape, would generally be used to represent 2 tablespoons or 1 ounce portions respectively.
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When protecting the client and therapist relationship which best describes the appropriate boundaries to set?
Answer:
When protecting the client and therapist relationship which best describes the appropriate boundaries to set:
Personal and Clinical BoundariesExplanation:
Whenever you make a relationship with some professional individual then it is best to set boundaries in order to prevent any kind of conflict and embarrassment in the relationship.In case of client and therapist relationship, it is best to set the boundaries in the personal life and clinical life of the therapist.If you will not make the boundaries, then it is highly likely that there may create a conflict or ambiguity. That is not good for relationships. Moreover, it will create distances and differences between the two.Maery and James are teenage parents of a newborn. They are participating in child development classes to understand appropriate interactions with their newborn. The current topic is preventing Shaken Baby Syndrome. All the following are suggestions to the new parents to prevent the syndrome EXCEPT?
Answer:
Please correct the question
Explanation:
When an infant or toddler is violently shaken, they can suffer from shaken baby syndrome, a catastrophic brain injury.
What is Shaken baby syndrome?Shaken impact syndrome, inflicted head damage, abusive head trauma, and whiplash shaken infant syndrome.
The brain of a child suffering from shaken infant syndrome loses brain cells and cannot receive adequate oxygen. This type of child maltreatment might result in death or irreversible brain damage.
Shaken baby syndrome can be avoided. Parents who run the risk of hurting a kid can get aid. Parents should also inform other caregivers about the risks associated with shaken baby syndrome.
Therefore, When an infant or toddler is violently shaken, they can suffer from shaken baby syndrome, a catastrophic brain injury.
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Which of the following actions is not one that bystanders should take?
A. Recognize the emergency.
B. Decide to help.
C. Terminate care before help arrives.
D. Assess the victim.
Answer:
The correct answer is- C. Terminate care before help arrives.
Explanation:
Bystanders are the people that are present at the site of the accident or the place where any incident takes place. Bystanders can be crucial in helping those people who are in trouble especially in case of accidents.
They can help the victim by calling an ambulance, regulating traffic, giving first aid to the victim, assessing the victim, giving moral support to the victim, etc. It is compulsory to provide help to the victim until the ambulance or medical personnel reaches to the victim.
Terminating care before help arrives will not be beneficial to the victim and can lead to more problems for the victim. Therefore the correct answer is C.
Answer:
Terminate care before help arrives.
Explanation:
Emergency medical services may be defined as the services that provide the medical help to the people in case of sudden emergency, accident and poor health condition.
The attendant must provide the first aid and medicine to the required patient. The bystanders should call the medical services and must assess the victim. The bystanders should not stop their help before any medical attendant arrives at the emergency place.
Thus, the answer is option (C).
Which of the following nutrients need to be supplied first by solid foods in a baby's diet?
a. Vitamin C and iron
b. Vitamin A and zinc
c. Vitamin B12 and fluoride
d. Vitamin E and magnesium
Answer:
a. Vitamin C and iron
Explanation:
As of the sixth month, this milk begins to be insufficient to meet the nutritional demands of growth, and it is time to start incorporating food that complements its contribution. For this, the consultant clarifies that the situation of babies who only breastfeed is different, from those who receive formula milk.
In the complementary feeding of children who receive exclusively the breast, it is necessary to incorporate meats, liver, eggs and fruits early, to avoid nutritional deficiencies (iron, zinc, proteins and some vitamins).
On the contrary, children who receive infant formulas or a combination of formula and breast in more than two thirds of the contribution as a formula, complementary feeding is less critical because the formulas are already added with vitamins and minerals. This is the reason why many pediatricians indicate iron and vitamin supplements (mainly vitamin C) from the sixth month on children who receive exclusive breast.
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of a traction splint?A. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femurB. Pelvis, hip, or knee injuryC. Injury to the lower third of the leg that would interfere with the ankle hitchD. Avulsion or partial amputation where traction could separate the extremity
Answer: The rigth answer is: A. Severe swelling and redness at a midshaft femur
Explanation: There are some contraindications for the use of a traction splint among them are: -Injuries near the knee and injuries of the hips and / or pelvis and amputation of some part of the limb, therefore option B and D are incorrect. The traction splint firmly grabs the ankle, if there is an injury that interferes with the hitch, it cannot be placed, so option C is incorrect. If there is a femur fracture, it is very common to find severe swelling and redness in the femur of the middle axis and there is no problem with placing the traction splint because the purpose of this is to stabilize the fracture.
Which of the following statements about conflict between adolescents and parents is TRUE?A) Parent-adolescent conflict increases from early adolescence to late adolescence.B) Recent research shows that Hall’s conception of adolescence as a time of "storm and stress" is probably true.C) Parent-child conflict is stronger than parent-early adolescent conflict.D) Conflict between parents and adolescents is highest in early adolescence.
Answer:
B) Recent research shows that Hall’s conception of adolescence as a time of "storm and stress" is probably true
Explanation:
In the scientific study, the work of G. Stanley Hall, with an emphasis on biological theory, which defines adolescence as a period of universal and inevitable transition, consider it as a second birth. It recognizes the influence of culture while valuing the individual differences of the adolescent and their characteristic of plasticity (malleability) and can be considered innovative and provocative for their time, a precursor of contemporary contextualist theories.
In his work, Hall described adolescence as a period marked by "storm and stress" and, over the past century, many studies have strengthened this view, emphasizing the difficulties and problems manifested at this time in life.
To this day, adolescence is touted as a particularly stressful period of life, probably as a result. physical, psychological, cognitive and social changes that are characteristic of this phase of development. Such changes lead to an increase in the number and variability of life experiences and demands that different environments (family, school, peer group) cause to those in this phase. At this time, young people seek to experience new events (eg, loving relationships, finding new friends, academic goals), which can become a source of stress, which, in turn trigger the stress, making it bigger the conflicts between parents and adolescents.
The true statement about parent-adolescent conflict is that it typically increases from early to late adolescence, but most conflicts are minor and about daily issues, decreasing as teens grow older.
Explanation:The statement about conflict between adolescents and parents that is TRUE is that parent-adolescent conflict increases from early adolescence to late adolescence (A). Research such as that by Steinberg & Morris (2001) and Barber (1994) has found that most disagreements between parents and adolescents are minor and revolve around day-to-day issues such as homework, curfews, and chores. Additionally, these conflicts tend to decrease as teens mature. The concept of adolescence as a time of 'storm and stress,' as originally suggested by G. Stanley Hall, has been largely reconsidered, with only small numbers of teens having major conflicts with their parents.
The _______________ travels upward from the cecum to the undersurface of the liver
Answer:
ascending colon
Explanation:
Colon
Also called the large intestine, it is the last portion of the digestive system in most vertebrates; it extracts water and salt from solid waste before they are removed from the body. It is a long and hollow tube that is at the end of this system, in which the body produces and stores feces. The ileocecal valve of the ileum ([[small intestine]]) passes the material to the large intestine through the cecum. The material passes through the ascending, descending and transverse portions, and sigmoid of the colon and finally to the rectum. From this waste is expelled from the body.
Ascending colon
It extends from the cecum to the right colic flexure (colic impression on the underside of the liver, forming the hepatocolic ligament). It is related to the handles of the small intestine, right kidney, and descending portion of the duodenum, in addition to the muscular structures of the posterior wall: psoas, lumbar square, transverse abdomen, femoral nerve, [[lateral femoral cutaneous]], ilium- hypogastric, ilio-inguinal and [[femoral gene]]: gonadal vessels, internal iliac artery and [[iliac bone]] complete the relationships.
Answer:
ascending colon
Explanation:
To find a weight loss plan that offers the best chance of success, you should avoid plans that?
Answer:
You should avoid plans that drastically change your eating patterns.
Explanation:
A successful weight loss plan should introduce small changes in your diet and daily routine. If we make drastic changes in our diet, the most probable thing to happen is that after some time, you will fall back into your old habits and gain weight again. To change eating patterns and eat healthily you should have a plan where small changes are made taking little steps that will guarantee success.
Which of the following is not true about fish storage? (a) Frozen fish should be tightly wrapped to prevent freezer burn. (b) Fresh fish should be stored on crushed ice. (c) Frozen fat fish can be stored up to six months. (d) Frozen fish should be stored at 0°F (–18°C) or colder
Answer: (c) Frozen fat fish can be stored up to six months.
Explanation:
Fresh caught fish can be gutted and cleaned so that it can be stored in proper temperature in the refrigerator until ready for cooking. The temperature zone for fish ranges from 40°- 140°F is a danger temperature zone.
The raw or uncooked fish can be stored in the refrigerator only for 2 to 3 days. The leftover cooked fish can be stored in refrigerator only for 3 to 4 days.
The correct answer is c. The statement that is not true about fish storage frozen fat fish can be stored up to six months.
To address the storage of fish, let's consider each option:
a. Frozen fish should be tightly wrapped to prevent freezer burn. This statement is true. Freezer burn occurs when air reaches the surface of the food, causing it to dry out and lose flavor. Tightly wrapping fish helps to prevent this by minimizing exposure to air.
b. Fresh fish should be stored on crushed ice. This statement is also true. Keeping fresh fish on crushed ice ensures that it stays cold and slows down bacterial growth, which can spoil the fish.
c. Frozen fat fish can be stored up to six months. This statement is not true. Generally, fatty fish, such as salmon or mackerel, have a shorter freezer life compared to leaner fish because the fat can become rancid over time. Fatty fish are typically recommended to be stored for only 1 to 2 months in the freezer to maintain optimal quality.
d. Frozen fish should be stored at 0°F (18°C) or colder. This statement is true. To maintain the quality and safety of frozen fish, it should be kept at this temperature or lower to prevent the growth of bacteria and other microorganisms.
Therefore, the incorrect statement, which is not true about fish storage, is that frozen fat fish can be stored up to six months. The correct storage time for fatty fish in the freezer is shorter, usually around 1 to 2 months for best quality.
During the preovulatory phase of the ovarian cycle, the release of estrogen and inhibin by the dominant follicle decreases the release of _____ by the anterior pituitary gland causing less developed follicles to stop growing and die.
Answer: Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)
Explanation: The FSH when released, acts on one primordial follicle in the ovary to ripen. The ripened follicle then produces oestrogen in large quantity which then stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to stop producing FSH