True or false? Axon diameter and degree of myelination determine nerve impulse conduction velocity.

Answers

Answer 1
Final answer:

The diameter of the axon and the degree of myelination determine nerve impulse conduction velocity.

Explanation:

True or false? Axon diameter and degree of myelination determine nerve impulse conduction velocity.

The statement is true. The diameter of the axon and the degree of myelination both affect the conduction velocity of a nerve impulse.

The axon is a long, slender projection of a nerve cell and the diameter of the axon plays a role in determining the speed of impulse conduction. A wider axon allows for faster conduction of the impulse compared to a narrower axon.

Additionally, the degree of myelination, which refers to the presence of a myelin sheath around the axon, also affects conduction velocity. Myelin acts as an insulator and speeds up the conduction process by allowing the nerve impulse to jump from one node of Ranvier to the next, rather than traveling along the entire length of the axon.

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Answer 2
Final answer:

The axon diameter and degree of myelination significantly influence the speed of nerve impulse conduction in a neuron. Myelination enhances speed through saltatory conduction, and a larger axon diameter reduces resistance, thereby accelerating conduction.

Explanation:

The statement is true. The axon diameter and the degree of myelination significantly influence the nerve impulse conduction velocity in a neuron. An axon's diameter affects conduction speed because ions diffusing within the cell encounter less resistance in a wider space, much like water flows faster in a wide river than a narrow creek. This concept is known as resistance.

On the other hand, myelination affects conduction velocity through a process called saltatory conduction. In saltatory conduction, the action potential essentially 'leaps' from one node (unmyelinated gap, or nodes of Ranvier) to another along the length of a myelinated axon. This conduction is much quicker than the continuous conduction that occurs in unmyelinated axons, where the action potential has to be regenerated continuously along the entire length of the axon. Thus, the thicker the myelination and the wider the axon's diameter, the faster the nerve impulse conduction velocity.

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Related Questions

Oxygen is the final electron acceptor for cellular respiration. What is the final electron acceptor in photosynthesis?waterlightATPNADP+

Answers

The correct answer is: NADP+

During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, four major protein complexes in the thylakoid membrane are involved in energy synthesis: Photosystem II (PSII), Cytochrome b6f complex, Photosystem I (PSI), and ATP synthase. All of them work together to create the final products ATP and NADPH. Reactions start when a chlorophyll a molecule within the PSII absorbs a photon, and an electron in this molecule attains a higher energy level (unstable state). Consequently the electron is transferred from one to another molecule which creates a chain of redox reactions also called electron transport chain.

Kathleen, age 7, holds the small ball in both hands in front of her before swinging forward, then backward, with one hand and balancing on well-separated feet. as her arm swings forward and across her body, she rotates and leans into the throw. she moves her foot from the back to a forward position as she follows through the body movement and maintains her balance. what word best describes this movement

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is bilateral.

Explanation:

The tendency to use the left and the right sides of the body together at a similar time or with alternating movements is known as bilateral-coordination. For example, the movement of the body of a striker while playing a baseball game. The tendency to coordinate both the body sides together is an essential skill for various motor skills. The gross motor skills like climbing stairs, walking, skipping, jump rope, and many others need the skills of bilateral coordination.

I will mark the best answer brainliest!!!!!!!!!


I need help on the questions with the purple dot!

Answers

You didn’t add anything to show

Answer1+1=3

Explanation:

When starting a new job, Carl’s wife advises him to avoid making quick decisions about his coworkers. The research on thin slices of behavior would suggest that this advice is?

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the advice his wife gives him is good because you can't judge a man character based on one or 2 acts it's in their continuous lifestyle

The advice Carl's wife gives him about avoiding quick decisions on his coworkers is backed by research on thin-slice judgments, which suggests that while people can make surprisingly accurate inferences about others with minimal information, these first impressions are often resilient to change even when presented with contrary evidence.

It is wise to reserve judgments, as a more informed view might be quite different from the initial impression. Particularly in new work environments, giving colleagues time to reveal their true character may lead to better working relationships.

Studies show that although quick judgments (thin-slice judgments) can be predictive of behavior, they become more accurate with more information. Furthermore, first impressions tend to have a lasting impact and can be hard to shake even when contradicted by new evidence. Kahneman's research also highlights the importance of promoting careful, effortful thinking within organizations to make important decisions and judgments.

Which is NOT used to classify organisms?

A. ancestry

B. habitat

C. age of the organism

D. dichotomous key

Answers

Answer: dichotomous key

Explanation:

Dichotomous key

The organism is the level of organization that together makes the population and community. The age of the organism is not used to classify the organisms. Thus, option C is correct.

What is the basis of an organism's classification?

The organisms are said to be composed of various organ systems that work and functions other to make a whole organism. An organism can be classified and differentiated from others based on their habitats like amphibians and mammals.

They can also be classified based on the common ancestry that is the basis of their origin like the apes and humans. Also, the dichotomous key is used to classify closely related organisms based on shared characteristics. But, the age of the organism is not used to classify them.

Therefore, option C. the age of the organism is not used to classify the organisms.

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Do you think mouse offspring will always look like their parents? ______________________



Explain: __________________________________________________________________

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Not always because there could be birth defects, mutations, or other variables.

No, children of identical parents don't always resemble their parents because each child inherits both dominant and recessive features from both parents. Recessive features, however, can skip generations and don't always manifest.

What is genetic recombination?

The exchange of genetic material between distinct species, or genetic recombination, produces offspring with features that are different from those of either parent.

DNA fragments are broken and recombined during the recombination process to create novel allele combinations.

The genetic variety that results from this recombination process at the gene level reflects variations in the DNA sequences of various species.

Because each youngster receives both dominant and recessive traits from both parents, the mouse offspring will not always resemble their parents, just as children of identical parents do not always look like their parents. However, recessive traits can skip generations and aren't always present.

Thus, it can be concluded that the offspring will not be alike the parent.

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Certain exposures to radiation can cause cancer. What is the main difference between the use of radiation treatments to treat cancer and exposures that cause cancer?

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the radiations that are used to treat cancers are of the gamma type. primarily emitted from cobalt-60 (a radioactive isotope).  and it is more controlled than other radiation exposures. i.e. solar radiation which is not controlled.

hope that this helps.

Why is there no rock record of the Hadean period?

A. Rocks only formed near subduction zones during this period.
B. The lack of ozone prevented rock formation.
C. Earth's temperature was too high for solid rocks to form.
D. Only metamorphic rocks formed during that period.

Answers

Earth’a temperature was too high for solid rock to form.

Answer:

Option C,  Earth's temperature was too high for solid rocks to form.

Explanation:

During the Hadeon age ( some 4.6 billion years ago), the earth was at its initial stage of formation. By that time the temperature of earth was extremely high and extraterrestrial bombardments from  other planets or celestial structures further raised the earth’s temperature. Due to such extremities and high temperature the rocks at the surface of earth could not solidify and hence no traces of rocks can be found from the Hadeon era.  

Digestive enzymes are breaking down the soft tissues of the body:

A. 1-3 days

B. 4-10 days

C. 10-25 days

D. 20-50 days

E. After 50 days

Answers

Final answer:

Digestive enzymes and bacteria in the body begin to break down soft tissues within 4-10 days after death. However, external and internal conditions can influence the exact timeframe.

Explanation:

The question pertains to the length of time it takes for digestive enzymes to break down the soft tissues of the body after death. The extent of the breakdown is subject to various factors including temperature and moisture levels. Generally, soft tissues start to decompose rapidly and are significantly broken down by intestinal bacteria and enzymes within 4-10 days. Therefore, option B is the most accurate answer. It's also important to note that this is a simplified explanation; in a real-world scenario, the exact timeframe could vary due to external and internal conditions.

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Final answer:

Digestive enzymes don't start breaking down the body's soft tissues until after death, typically beginning this process around 4-10 days afterward.

Explanation:

The digestive enzymes within our body work to process food, but they don't begin breaking down the body's soft tissues until after death. Although the exact timeline may vary based on individual circumstances, typically this process begins in earnest around 4-10 days following death (option B). This is when the digestive enzymes start to breakdown the soft tissues. The duration can extend based upon the prevailing conditions like temperature, humidity, etc. Thus, among the given options, the most accurate answer would be option B (4-10 days).

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An overweight, 14-year-old boy feels tired all the time. he sleeps 12 to 14 hours a day and has a voracious appetite but no energy to burn off the calories. he has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism brought about by the accumulation of a nonpitting mucosus type of edema. for which life-threatening condition should his care team be prepared?

Answers

Answer;

Myxedematous coma

Explanation;Myxedema coma is a severe hypothyroidism leading to decreased mental status, hypothermia, and other symptoms related to slowing of function in multiple organs.it is a loss of brain function as a result of severe, longstanding low level of thyroid hormone in the blood.It is a rare life threatening complication of hypothyroidism.

Letter D is the part of the cell that makes proteins. What is letter D? A) ribosomes B) chromosomes C) chloroplast D) golgi apparatus

Answers

A.) ribosomes, ribosomes are the protein makers.

If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to

A) be replicating.
B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis.
C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription.
D) be very active in translation.
E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it.

Answers

The correct answer is: C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription

There are many types of gene expression regulation in eukaryotes and DNA methylation is one of them. DNA methylation is an epigenetic tool that cells use to lock genes for the transcription (make them in the "off" position).

It is a process by which methyl groups are added to the DNA molecule and thus, activity of a DNA  is changed without changing the sequence.

DNA methylation also has role in chromosome stability, embryonic development, genomic imprinting, X-chromosome inactivation..

Final answer:

Methylated DNA is usually a sign that the gene expression is being silenced as this epigenetic modification leads to a chromatin structure that prevents transcription factors from initiating transcription.

Explanation:

If one were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, one would expect it to have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription. Methylation of DNA is a common epigenetic signaling tool that cells use to lock genes in the "off" position. In particular, the methylation of cytosine bases in DNA can lead to the recruitment of proteins that bind to methylated DNA and change the chromatin structure to a more closed conformation. This prevents transcription factors from accessing the DNA and thereby reduces the expression of genes.

For instance, the addition of methyl groups to the DNA base cytosine is typically associated with transcriptional repression. DNA methylation can also recruit proteins that can further modify histones to a state that is not permissive for transcription. In summary, the presence of highly methylated DNA regions with deacetylated histones tends to indicate a tightly coiled chromatin structure that is transcriptionally inactive.

The number of births that occur in a period of time in a given area is called? Birth rate death rate life expectancy

Answers

The answer is Birth rate.

Which cell structure is semi-permeable and forms the boundary of the cell

Answers

The answer is the Plasma Membrane. The Plasma Membrane is a double-layered structure that surrounds the cell, and provides a shield between the cell and its environment.

Phosphatases are a family of enzymes that remove phosphate groups from specific proteins; these phosphate groups had been added to the proteins by protein kinases. Vanadate is an inhibitor of phosphatases in eukaryotic cells. What effect would vanadate have on the response of cells to signals received by receptor kinases? The response of the cell would be shorter than it normally would. The response of the cell would last longer than it normally would. The signal would still bind the receptor, so there would be no effect.

Answers

Answer:

The response of the cell would last longer than it normally would

Explanation:

Vanadate, an inhibitor of tyrosine phosphatase activity, might induce the cell response through the stimulation of the receptor kinases.

Vanadate have on the response of cells to signals received by receptor kinases - The response of the cell would last longer than it normally would.

Vanadate is an inhibitor of phosphatases in eukaryotic cells, presence of the Vanadate in the cell will affect the function of the phosphatases enzyme.

The function of phosphatases is to remove the phosphate group from specific proteins.Vanadate would inhibit the removal of the phosphate group from specific proteins.which results in the response of the cells received by receptor kinases lasting longer than it normally would.

Thus, Vanadate have on the response of cells to signals received by receptor kinases - The response of the cell would last longer than it normally would.

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99pts
How does soil permeability and porosity affect the problems associated with large-scale removal of ground water.

Answers

hope this helps keep me updated

Groundwater is water that exists in the pore spaces and fractures in rock and sediment beneath the Earth's surface. It originates as rainfall or snow, and then moves through the soil into the groundwater system, where it eventually makes its way back to surface streams, lakes, or oceans.

Groundwater makes up about 1% of the water on Earth (most water is in oceans).

But, groundwater makes up about 35 times the amount of water in lakes and streams.

Groundwater occurs everywhere beneath the Earth's surface, but is usually restricted to depths less that about 750 meters.

The volume of groundwater is a equivalent to a 55 meter thick layer spread out over the entire surface of the Earth.

It is an important resource for potable water, irrigation, and industry.

Groundwater is water that exists in the pore spaces and fractures in rock and sediment beneath the Earth's surface. It originates as rainfall or snow, and then moves through the soil into the groundwater system, where it eventually makes its way back to surface streams, lakes, or oceans.

Groundwater makes up about 1% of the water on Earth (most water is in oceans).

But, groundwater makes up about 35 times the amount of water in lakes and streams.

Groundwater occurs everywhere beneath the Earth's surface, but is usually restricted to depths less that about 750 meters.

The volume of groundwater is a equivalent to a 55 meter thick layer spread out over the entire surface of the Earth.

It is an important resource for potable water, irrigation, and industry.

Because it is largely hidden from view, it is often forgotten and subject to contamination by careless humans.

Groundwater is a primary agent of chemical weathering and is responsible for the formation of caves and sinkholes.

What is typically the result of double fertilization in angiosperms two embryos endosperm?

Answers

Answer:

Both the diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed.

Explanation:

Explain how a shortage of water affects the health of your cells. Make sure to use words such as osmosis

Answers

im pretty sure a shortage of water means your cell wont get the nutrients they need

Nutrients form digested food move from the digestive system directly into the

Answers

Nutrients move directly into the esophagus where it continues to be warmed and lubricated as it moves toward the stomach.

What kind of nutrients does the lymphatic system carry to the bloodstream?
a. proteins and carbohydrates b. essential minerals c. fats and fat - soluble vitamins d. water and water - soluble vitamins e. dietary fiber

Answers

The correct answer is:  c. fats and fat - soluble vitamins  

Lymph vessels called lacteals are responsible for the transport of large fats from the digestive tract. Those vessels are located at the beginning of the gastrointestinal tract, predominantly in the small intestine. Fats and fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed from the digestive system and then transported to the venous circulation. The lymph in the lacteals is called chyle.

Final answer:

The lymphatic system carries fats and fat-soluble vitamins from the digestive system to the bloodstream. These nutrients are first encapsulated into chylomicrons in the small intestines before being transported to the lymphatic system and then the bloodstream.

Explanation:

The lymphatic system plays a significant role in the body's absorption and transportation process particularly with regard to fats and fat-soluble vitamins. This is due to the fact that when fats and fat-soluble vitamins are ingested they are first absorbed into the small intestines. They are then encapsulated into structures called chylomicrons, which are transported into a lacteal a lymphatic capillary in the small intestine, and thus into the lymph system. This fatty lymph or chyle eventually drains into the bloodstream. So the lymphatic system carries fats and fat-soluble vitamins to the bloodstream.

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Translation involves several different types of tRNA molecules. Which statement best describes how tRNA molecules assemble amino acids into a polypeptide?

A. One tRNA molecule assembles the polypeptide, and the others assist it.
B. Three tRNA molecules assemble the polypeptide, and the others assist them.
C. Each tRNA molecules assembles a different part of the polypeptide, and all at the same time.
D. The different tRNA molecules act in a specific order, one after the other like an assembly line.

Answers

The correct option is d. The different tRNA molecules act in a specific order, one after the other like an assembly line.

The different tRNA molecules act in a specific order, one after the other like an assembly line. During translation, specific tRNA molecules pick up specific amino acids and transfer those amino acids to the ribosome. Here, they insert them in their proper place according to the mRNA genetic "message." Each tRNA is linked to its correct amino acid by an enzyme called aminoacyl tRNA synthetase. This process relies on the anticodon portion of the tRNA molecule complementary base pairing with the codons along the mRNA. Therefore, the assembly of amino acids into a polypeptide involves each tRNA acting in sequence, adding amino acids one by one to the growing polypeptide chain.

An earthquake decimates a ground-squirrel population, killing 98% of the squirrels. The surviving population happens to have broader stripes, on average, than the initial population. If broadness of stripes is genetically determined, what effect has the ground-squirrel population experienced during the earthquake?

directional selection
a founder event
disruptive selection
a genetic bottleneck

Answers

C: disrupted selection

Final answer:

The reduction in the ground-squirrel population because of an earthquake is an example of a genetic bottleneck. The surviving squirrels, all having broader stripes which is a genetic trait, will pass only these traits to succeeding generations, causing a shift in the gene pool and driving evolution.

Explanation:

The ground-squirrel population has experienced a genetic bottleneck as a result of the earthquake. A genetic bottleneck refers to a sharp reduction in the size of a population due to environmental events (like the earthquake in this case) leading to a decreased genetic diversity in the population. In other words, the surviving squirrels had broader stripes, which is a specific trait that will now be overrepresented in the population going forward, thus presenting an example of genetic bottleneck. This situation causes a shift in the gene pool, and only the traits of the surviving squirrels get passed on to successive generations, which can lead to evolution over time due to this genetic drift.

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What is the main muscle in the respiratory system?

Answers

Answer:

the diaphragm

Explanation:

Since they are called on to help both the older and younger generations of the family, middle-aged adults have been called the ____

Answers

Since they are called on to help both the older and younger generations of the family, middle-aged adults have been called the sandwich generation.

The sandwich generation is a generation of people that provide care for both their own children and their aging parents. The sandwich generation are usually in their 30s or 40s and they provide both emotional and financial support. According to Carol Abaya; an aging and elder care expert, the sandwich generation is divided into three groups based on their roles. They include; traditional, club sandwich and open faced sandwich generation.

Which of the following statements about cellular metabolism is false?A) Glycolysis is inhibited when cellular energy levels are abundant.B) Krebs cycle activity is dependent solely on availability of substrate; otherwise it is unregulated.C) In the electron transport chain, electrons decrease in energy level as they are transferred from one electron carrier to the next.D) Reactions of the Krebs cycle take place in the mitochondrial matrix.

Answers

The statement about cellular respiration that is not true is this: KREB'S CYCLE ACTIVITY IS DEPENDENT SOLELY ON AVAILABILITY OF SUBSTRATES; OTHERWISE IT IS UNREGULATED.

Kreb's cycle refers to the series of biochemical reactions through which humans generate energy in the presence of oxygen via the oxidation of acetyl COA.

The major factors that regulate the Krebs cycle is the concentration of ATP and NADH. The cycle is strictly controlled based on the level of energy available in the cells. The key regulatory enzymes for the cycle are isocitrate dehyrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate deydrogenase.

Final answer:

The false statement about cellular metabolism is that the Krebs cycle activity is solely dependent on the availability of substrate and is otherwise unregulated. In actuality, Krebs cycle activity is regulated by enzyme activity and cellular energy needs, especially levels of ATP, NADH, and FADH2.

Explanation:

The false statement among the given options about cellular metabolism is B) 'Krebs cycle activity is dependent solely on availability of substrate; otherwise it is unregulated.' This is not accurate because Krebs cycle activity is regulated not just by substrate availability but also by enzyme activity and the cellular energy needs, especially those of ATP, NADH, and FADH2. Furthermore, when energy levels are high, the cycle is inhibited.

Regarding the other statements, they are correct. A) Glycolysis is indeed inhibited when energy levels are abundant as excess energy signals the cell to slow down the breakdown of glucose. Similarly, C) In the electron transport chain, electrons do decrease in energy as they are shuttled from one electron carrier to another, converting stored energy to ATP. Lastly, D) The reactions of the Krebs cycle do take place in the mitochondrial matrix, specifically the matrix of the mitochondria where enzymes necessary for the cycle are located.

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4. removes excess water, salts, uric acids, and chemicals from the blood pulmonary circulation

Answers

The Kidneys removes excess water, salts, uric acids, and chemicals from the blood.

A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count?

Answers

The correct answer is: neutrophils.

Neutrophils are a type of white blood cells (granulocytes), part of innate immune response with the role of phagocyte. They appear first during the acute phase of inflammation which is a result of bacterial infection and are first recruited to the site of injury.

Which of the following bones is not a facial bone?

A. Vomer
B. Mandible
C. Lacrimal bone
D. Middle nasal conchae

Answers

Final answer:

The mandible is not a facial bone, while the Vomer, Lacrimal bone, and Middle nasal conchae are all facial bones.

Explanation:

The bone that is not a facial bone among the options given is the Mandible. The mandible, commonly known as the lower jaw, is the largest and strongest bone in the face and is part of the skull. It is responsible for functions such as talking, chewing, and biting. The other options, the Vomer, Lacrimal bone, and Middle nasal conchae, are all facial bones.

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d. Why are both the gene of interest and the plasmid cut with the same restriction enzyme? e. What is the role of DNA ligase in this process? 11. Why is the DNA sample to be separated by gel electrophoresis always loaded at the cathode or negative end of the power source? 12. Explain why shorter DNA molecules travel farther down the gel than larger molecules. 13. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a Nobel Prize–winning idea that is used by scientists to amplify DNA, particularly when the quantity of DNA is very small or contaminated. Explain the three initial steps that occur in cycle 1 of PCR.

Answers

D. So that they produce a complimentary sticky end to each other

E. Dna ligase is used for linking together the plasmid with the desired gene

11. Because DNA contain phosphate group which is a negative recharge, so it will attracted to the anode.

12. Because shorter DNA molecules means less Mr so the shortest length of DNA move faster

13. Denaturing the DNA into 2 single stranded of DNA at 95°, then add primer after cooling it at 65°, after that DNA polymerase is added so that the DNA polymerase will add extra basses across the dna strand.

What are the mechanisms by which aneuploidy and polyploidy are caused? What are the mechanisms by which aneuploidy and polyploidy are caused? The principal cause of aneuploidy is chromosome nondisjunction during mitosis or meiosis. Polyploidy in nature can result either from the duplication of euploid chromosome sets from a single species or from the combining of chromosome sets from different species. The principal cause of aneuploidy is paternal chromosome nondisjunction during meiosis. Polyploidy in nature results from the combining of chromosome sets from different species. The principal cause of aneuploidy is chromosome nondisjunction during mitosis. Polyploidy in nature can result from the deletion of one chromosome set during meiosis or during the first mitotic division. The principal cause of aneuploidy is maternal chromosome nondisjunction during meiosis. Polyploidy in nature results from the deletion of one chromosome set in somatic cells.

Answers

Final answer:

Aneuploidy and polyploidy are caused by errors during meiosis or mitosis. Aneuploidy occurs due to chromosome nondisjunction, resulting in an unequal number of chromosomes in the daughter cells. Polyploidy happens when there are more than the normal sets of chromosomes in a cell or organism, due to either chromosome duplication or a combination of different species.

Explanation:

The principal mechanisms by which aneuploidy and polyploidy are caused involve errors during meiosis or mitosis. Aneuploidy is primarily caused by chromosome nondisjunction during these processes, an error in which the chromosomes do not separate properly, resulting in an imbalance in the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells.

Polyploidy, on the other hand, occurs when there are more than the normal sets of chromosomes in a cell or organism. This can result from the duplication of euploid chromosome sets from a single species (autopolyploidy), or the combining of chromosome sets from different species. Polyploidy is more common in the plant kingdom, where polyploid plants tend to be larger and more robust than euploids of their species. In contrast, polyploid animals are extremely rare and are usually sterile as meiosis cannot proceed normally, leading to aneuploid daughter cells.

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